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  • Question 1 - For a healthy adult, how much moderate-intensity physical activity is recommended per week...

    Incorrect

    • For a healthy adult, how much moderate-intensity physical activity is recommended per week by the World Health Organization?

      Your Answer: > 120 minutes

      Correct Answer: > 150 minutes

      Explanation:

      WHO Physical Activity Recommendations for Adults

      The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends that adults aged 18-64 engage in a minimum of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity per week. This can be achieved through 30 minutes of exercise on at least 5 days per week. However, additional health benefits can be gained by increasing the amount of exercise beyond this minimum level.

      The recommended physical activity can be achieved through either moderate-intensity aerobic activity, vigorous-intensity aerobic activity, or a combination of both. Aerobic activity should be performed in bouts of at least 10 minutes duration. For even greater health benefits, adults should aim for 300 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week, or 150 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity per week, or a combination of both.

      In addition to aerobic activity, adults should also engage in muscle-strengthening activities involving major muscle groups on two or more days per week. By following these recommendations, adults can improve their overall health and reduce the risk of chronic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman is preparing for surgery to remove her submandibular gland due...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is preparing for surgery to remove her submandibular gland due to recurrent sialadenitis. What is a significant structure that is located medially to the gland?

      Your Answer: The maxillary artery

      Correct Answer: Mylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Arteries of the Head and Neck

      The mylohyoid muscle is situated close to the superficial part of the submandibular gland. Meanwhile, the genioglossus muscle originates from the mandible and attaches to the tongue and hyoid bone. This muscle is responsible for tongue movement and swallowing. Another muscle in the head and neck region is the lateral pterygoid muscle, which is located in the infratemporal fossa of the skull. It is a two-headed muscle that aids in chewing and movement of the temporomandibular joint. Lastly, the maxillary artery arises posterior to the mandibular neck and passes between the sphenomandibular ligament and ramus of the mandible. This artery supplies blood to the deep structures of the face and maxilla. the anatomy of these muscles and arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various head and neck conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to a...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to a significantly elevated level of creatine kinase in his blood. What is the role of creatine kinase in the body?

      Your Answer: To regenerate ATP for muscle contraction

      Explanation:

      Creatine Kinase: An Enzyme for Muscle Contraction

      Creatine kinase (CK), also known as creatine phosphokinase (CPK), is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in muscle tissue. Its main function is to catalyze the regeneration of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and creatine phosphate after muscle contraction. This process allows for further muscle contraction and supports sustained exertion. CK is present in many tissues, but it is most active in striated and cardiac muscle. Other tissues with CK activity include the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and bladder.

      The body’s tissues contain a dimeric form of CK, which is made up of two subunits. Each subunit of CK can be made from a genetic area on chromosome 14 (CK-B) or chromosome 19 (CK-M). There are three dimeric forms (isoforms) of CK: CK-MM, CK-MB, and CK-BB. CK-MM is abundant in striated muscle tissue, while CK-MB is abundant in cardiac muscle tissue. CK-BB is abundant in the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and bladder.

      In patients with muscle diseases such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy, CK-MM is released and will be the main form of CK measured. CK-MB has been widely used in the past as an aid in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction and other diseases affecting the heart muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 17-year-old pupil comes in with rapid breathing, lack of fluids and high...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old pupil comes in with rapid breathing, lack of fluids and high blood sugar levels. What evidence would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes?

      Your Answer: Positive anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies

      Explanation:

      Type 1 Diabetes

      Type 1 diabetes is a condition where the body’s immune system attacks the pancreas, specifically the islet cells and glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD). This autoimmune process leads to a loss of insulin production, which is necessary for regulating blood sugar levels. However, it is important to note that the exocrine function of the pancreas, which is responsible for producing digestive enzymes, remains intact.

      Interestingly, the alpha and delta cells in the pancreas, which produce glucagon and somatostatin respectively, are initially unaffected by the autoimmune process. This means that early on in the development of type 1 diabetes, these cells continue to function normally.

      Overall, the mechanisms behind type 1 diabetes can help individuals with the condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life. It is important to work closely with healthcare professionals to develop a personalized treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 24-year-old man has sustained a stab wound to his thigh caused by...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man has sustained a stab wound to his thigh caused by a broken bottle. What sign indicates damage to the femoral nerve?

      Your Answer: Weakness of adduction at the hip

      Correct Answer: Loss of knee reflex

      Explanation:

      Lesion of the Femoral Nerve and its Effects on Sensation and Movement

      A lesion of the femoral nerve, specifically at the L2-4 levels, can result in several noticeable effects. One of the most prominent is weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle, which leads to difficulty extending the knee. Additionally, there may be a loss of sensation over the front of the thigh and a lack of knee jerk reflex. These symptoms can significantly impact a person’s ability to move and perform daily activities.

      The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, which originates from the L1-2 levels, is responsible for providing sensation to the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, as well as the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock. Meanwhile, the obturator nerve, which also originates from the L2-4 levels, supplies the adductors of the hip and sensation to the inner part of the thigh. These nerves can also be affected by a lesion, leading to further sensory and motor deficits.

      Overall, a lesion of the femoral nerve can have significant consequences for a person’s mobility and sensation. the specific nerves involved and their functions can help in diagnosing and treating these types of injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - How would a CT scan show the structure located posteriorly to the first...

    Incorrect

    • How would a CT scan show the structure located posteriorly to the first part of the duodenum?

      Your Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Duodenum

      The duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine, can be divided into four sections. The posterior relations of the first part of the duodenum include the portal vein, common bile duct, and gastroduodenal artery, with the inferior vena cava located behind them. The third part of the duodenum is crossed by the abdominal aorta, while the superior mesenteric vessels are an anterior relation of this section. The second part of the duodenum is where the main pancreatic duct opens, and it is also crossed by the transverse colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement about the internal jugular vein and its relations is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about the internal jugular vein and its relations is correct?

      Your Answer: Lies lateral to the common carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The Path of the Internal Jugular Vein

      The internal jugular vein begins at the jugular foramen and is initially located behind the carotid artery. As it descends in the carotid sheath, it moves to the side of the internal and common carotid arteries. Eventually, it passes in front of the subclavian artery and joins with the subclavian vein to form the brachiocephalic vein. The left and right brachiocephalic veins then come together to create the superior vena cava. At the point where the internal jugular vein meets the subclavian vein, it receives a lymphatic trunk. The external jugular vein, on the other hand, drains into the subclavian vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old individual is currently undergoing tuberculosis treatment and is being administered vitamin...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old individual is currently undergoing tuberculosis treatment and is being administered vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). What is the primary function of vitamin B6 in the human body?

      Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. It is essential for the metabolism of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Vitamin B6 also aids in the production of neurotransmitters, such as serotonin and dopamine, which are responsible for regulating mood and behavior. Additionally, it is involved in the synthesis of hemoglobin, which is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Therefore, the administration of vitamin B6 as part of tuberculosis treatment may help support the body's immune system and aid in the recovery process.

      Your Answer: Production of serotonin

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Human Body

      Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, plays a crucial role in various functions of the human body. One of its primary functions is the production of neurotransmitters such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, which are essential for regulating mood, behavior, and cognitive processes. Additionally, vitamin B6 acts as a cofactor in cellular reactions required for collagen synthesis, lipid metabolism, and red blood cell function.

      The body’s requirement for vitamin B6 increases during periods of growth, pregnancy, and lactation. Consumption of coffee and alcohol, smoking, and certain chronic diseases can also increase the body’s need for this vitamin. Moreover, a high protein diet and administration of certain medications, including azathioprine, corticosteroids, chloramphenicol, oestrogens, levo dopa, isoniazid, penicillamine, and phenytoin, can also increase the body’s demand for vitamin B6.

      In some cases, pyridoxine supplementation is necessary, especially for individuals taking isoniazid for tuberculosis. The long treatment regimen required to eliminate tuberculosis increases the risk of vitamin B6 deficiency. Therefore, it is essential to ensure adequate intake of vitamin B6 through a balanced diet or supplementation to maintain optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the underlying pathological process that leads to the development of Non-alcoholic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the underlying pathological process that leads to the development of Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

      Your Answer: E Swelling (ballooning) of hepatocytes

      Correct Answer: B Insulin sensitisation

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is becoming increasingly prevalent, affecting around 30% of patients in the Western world. A small percentage of these patients (2-4%) will develop non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) with cirrhosis. The exact cause of NAFLD is not fully understood, but it is linked to the metabolic syndrome and associated with central obesity, insulin resistance, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.

      NAFLD is characterized by abnormal lipid handling, which leads to fat accumulation in the liver. Inflammatory cytokines, particularly TNF-alpha, produced in adipocytes, contribute to liver inflammation and lobular hepatitis. Additionally, hepatocytes may become swollen and filled with fluid, leading to an increased cytoplasm:nuclei ratio and vacuolated nuclei. As the disease progresses, pericellular fibrosis may develop, increasing the likelihood of NASH and cirrhosis.

      Currently, the primary treatment for NAFLD is risk factor reduction, addressing associated hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from a rehabilitation center...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from a rehabilitation center where he is receiving treatment for alcohol addiction. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with hypomagnesaemia. What are the possible symptoms that can arise due to this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypotonicity

      Correct Answer: Palpitations

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia, or low levels of magnesium in the blood, is a common electrolyte disturbance among inpatients. It can lead to serious complications, particularly cardiac arrhythmia, which can result in cardiac arrest. The condition is often caused by gastrointestinal loss of magnesium due to vomiting, high output stomas, fistulae, and malabsorption disorders. Poor nutritional input, renal losses of magnesium, and primary renal diseases can also contribute to hypomagnesaemia.

      Mild magnesium deficiency usually results in few or no symptoms, but severe deficiency can cause hypokalaemia and hypocalcaemia, as well as overlapping clinical features with hypocalcaemia and hypokalaemia. These symptoms include tetany, neuromuscular excitability, hypertonicity, palpitations, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias.

      Mild hypomagnesaemia can be treated with oral magnesium salts, while severe cases require cautious intravenous correction. It is important to monitor and correct magnesium levels to prevent the development of cardiac dysrhythmia and cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A study investigating the effectiveness of D-dimer testing in detecting DVT analyzed the...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigating the effectiveness of D-dimer testing in detecting DVT analyzed the medical records of 800 patients. To be eligible for the study, D-dimer had to be measured and DVT must have been confirmed by ultrasound.
      Out of the 800 patients, 720 had positive D-dimers and 80 had negative D-dimers.
      What is the sensitivity of D-dimer measurement in identifying DVT?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      Sensitivity in Medical Testing

      Medical testing involves the use of various diagnostic tools to identify the presence or absence of a disease. One important aspect of medical testing is sensitivity, which refers to the proportion of individuals with the disease who are correctly identified by the test. For instance, if 950 out of 1000 people with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are correctly identified as having the condition, the sensitivity of the test is 95%.

      Highly sensitive tests are particularly useful for ruling out diseases. This means that if the test is negative, it is unlikely that the person has the disease. To remember this, you can use the mnemonic spin and snout, which stands for specificity for ruling in (spin) and sensitivity for ruling out (snout).

      In addition to sensitivity, medical testing also involves positive predictive value and negative predictive value. Positive predictive value refers to the odds of having the disease if the test is positive, while negative predictive value refers to the odds of not having the disease if the test is negative. these values can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - How would you define vigorous exercise? ...

    Correct

    • How would you define vigorous exercise?

      Your Answer: Exercising at 80% of maximal individual capacity

      Explanation:

      Exercise Intensity Levels

      Exercise intensity can be determined by comparing it to your maximum capacity or your typical resting state of activity. It is important to note that what may be considered moderate or intense for one person may differ for another based on their fitness and strength levels. Mild intensity exercise involves working at less than 3 times the activity at rest and 20-50% of your maximum capacity. Moderate intensity exercise involves working at 3-5.9 times the activity at rest or 50-60% of your maximum capacity. Examples of moderate intensity exercises include cycling on flat ground, walking fast, hiking, volleyball, and basketball. Vigorous intensity exercise involves working at 6-7 times the activity at rest or 70-80% of your maximum capacity. Examples of vigorous intensity exercises include running, swimming fast, cycling fast or uphill, hockey, martial arts, and aerobics. exercise intensity levels can help you tailor your workouts to your individual needs and goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old patient has been diagnosed with diabetic nephropathy and is being prepared...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient has been diagnosed with diabetic nephropathy and is being prepared for dialysis. During testing, it was discovered that the patient has an increased level of parathyroid hormone in their bloodstream. What is the function of parathyroid hormone?

      Your Answer: To promote loss of calcium in the urine

      Correct Answer: To promote loss of phosphate in the urine

      Explanation:

      The Role of Parathyroid Hormone in Calcium and Phosphate Regulation

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. It works on the bone to release calcium into the bloodstream and interstitial fluid through bone resorption. PTH also works on the kidney to increase the activity of the 1-alpha hydroxylase enzyme, which activates vitamin D, promoting increased calcium absorption from the gut. Additionally, PTH reduces the amount of calcium lost in the urine and increases the amount of phosphate lost in the urine by altering the renal tubular threshold for phosphate.

      However, in cases of hyperparathyroidism, excessive PTH is produced at an inappropriate time, leading to elevated calcium concentrations and low phosphate concentrations in the blood. This can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including bone pain, kidney stones, and osteoporosis. Therefore, it is important to maintain proper levels of PTH to ensure healthy calcium and phosphate regulation in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which compound is classified as a ketone? ...

    Correct

    • Which compound is classified as a ketone?

      Your Answer: Acetoacetate

      Explanation:

      Ketone Bodies and their Production

      Ketone bodies, namely acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate, are synthesized when the levels of fatty acids in the bloodstream are elevated. This can occur during fasting, starvation, or when following a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet. When these conditions arise, triglycerides from adipose tissue are broken down into fatty acids and re-enter the bloodstream. The fatty acids then enter liver cells and undergo beta-oxidation in the mitochondria to form acetyl CoA. As acetyl CoA accumulates, two molecules can combine to form acetoacetyl CoA, which is then converted to HMGCoA by the enzyme HMG CoA synthetase. HMGCoA lyase then changes the HMG CoA into acetoacetate, which is a ketone body.

      Ketones are essential as they provide fuel for body cells during times of fasting when glucose may be scarce. Brain cells are particularly able to use ketones as a fuel source.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old asthmatic woman with severe community acquired pneumonia. She...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old asthmatic woman with severe community acquired pneumonia. She has been admitted to the intensive care unit for cardiovascular support. Currently, her blood pressure is 80/64 mmHg, heart rate is 128 bpm, and cardiac output is 3.2 L/min. Ms. Johnson is receiving 15 L/min of oxygen through a facemask and has oxygen saturations of 88% with a respiratory rate of 16. Her temperature is 39.6°C. What is the estimated stroke volume for Ms. Johnson?

      Your Answer: 40 ml

      Correct Answer: 25 ml

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Output and its Relationship to Health Conditions

      Cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume. Stroke volume can be calculated by dividing cardiac output by heart rate. The average cardiac output is 5 liters per minute, with a normal stroke volume ranging from 50-85 milliliters per beat, depending on heart rate.

      When a person experiences poor oxygen saturation and a normal respiratory rate, it may indicate that they are becoming exhausted and unable to breathe rapidly. This, combined with low blood pressure, tachycardia, and a failure to maintain cardiac output, can be indicative of shock. Additionally, a high temperature may suggest severe sepsis secondary to pneumonia.

      cardiac output and its relationship to various health conditions can help medical professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. By monitoring heart rate, stroke volume, and other vital signs, healthcare providers can identify potential issues and intervene before they become life-threatening. Proper management of cardiac output is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      89.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A random selection of 800 elderly adults agree to participate in a study...

    Incorrect

    • A random selection of 800 elderly adults agree to participate in a study of the possible effects of drug Y.

      They are followed prospectively for a period of ten years to see if there is an association between the incidence of dementia and the use of drug Y.

      Which type of study is described here?

      Your Answer: Cross-sectional study

      Correct Answer: Cohort study

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Research Studies

      Cohort studies, also known as longitudinal studies, involve the follow-up of individuals over a defined period of time. These studies can be either prospective or historical. In a prospective cohort study, individuals who are exposed and not exposed to a potential risk factor are followed up, and their disease experience is compared at the end of the follow-up period. On the other hand, a historical cohort study identifies a cohort for whom records of exposure status are available from the past, and their disease experience is measured after a substantial period of time has elapsed since exposure.

      In contrast, a case-control study compares patients who have a disease with those who do not have the disease and looks retrospectively at their exposure to risk factors. A cross-over study is similar to a longitudinal study, but the interventions given to each group are crossed over at a set time in the trial design. Finally, a cross-sectional study analyzes data at a certain point in time of a specific population.

      Among these types of research studies, randomized controlled clinical trials are considered one of the best for statistical significance. the different types of research studies is crucial in designing and conducting studies that can provide reliable and valid results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which anatomical feature travels posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus? ...

    Correct

    • Which anatomical feature travels posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Ulnar Nerve

      The ulnar nerve travels behind the medial epicondyle before entering the forearm. In contrast, other structures such as the radial nerve and musculocutaneous nerve pass over the lateral epicondyle, while the radial and ulnar arteries originate in the forearm. This unique pathway of the ulnar nerve is important to understand in clinical settings, as it can be susceptible to injury or compression at the elbow. Proper knowledge of the anatomy of the ulnar nerve can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions such as cubital tunnel syndrome or ulnar nerve entrapment. By studying the intricate details of the human body, healthcare professionals can better understand the complexities of the nervous system and provide optimal care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential? ...

    Correct

    • What is responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer: Sodium channels opening

      Explanation:

      The Phases of Cardiac Action Potential

      The cardiac action potential is a complex process that involves several phases. The first phase, known as phase 0 or the depolarisation phase, is initiated by the opening of fast Na channels, which allows an influx of Na ions into the cell. This influx of ions causes the membrane potential to become more positive, leading to the contraction of the heart muscle.

      Following phase 0, the second phase, known as phase 1 or initial repolarisation, occurs when the Na channels close. This closure causes a brief period of repolarisation, where the membrane potential becomes more negative.

      The third phase, known as phase 2 or the plateau phase, is characterised by the opening of K and Ca channels. The influx of calcium ions into the cell is balanced by the efflux of potassium ions, leading to a stable membrane potential. This phase is important for maintaining the contraction of the heart muscle.

      Finally, phase 3 or repolarisation occurs when the Ca channels close, causing a net negative current as K+ ions continue to leave the cell. This phase allows the membrane potential to return to its resting state, ready for the next cardiac action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.7
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  • Question 19 - A 37-year-old pregnant woman has experienced premature rupture of membranes (PROM) four hours...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old pregnant woman has experienced premature rupture of membranes (PROM) four hours prior to the onset of labour. What is the most significant predictor of PROM?

      Your Answer: Second trimester haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Premature Rupture of Membranes: Causes and Complications

      Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) is a condition where the amniotic sac ruptures more than an hour before the onset of labor. This sudden loss of amniotic fluid vaginally is a common symptom experienced by the mother. PROM is often associated with first and second trimester hemorrhage, although smoking is also a predisposing factor. Infection is a rare cause of PROM, but Chlamydia trachomatis and B haemolytic Streptococci are among the implicated organisms.

      Complications of PROM include infection, which can affect both the mother and infant. Additionally, fetal pulmonary dysplasia may occur if there is insufficient remaining amniotic fluid. It is important to monitor and manage PROM to prevent these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What does the term glycaemic index mean? ...

    Correct

    • What does the term glycaemic index mean?

      Your Answer: A measurement of how rapidly the carbohydrate in the food enters the blood

      Explanation:

      The Glycaemic Index Method is a commonly used tool by dieticians and patients to determine the impact of different foods on blood glucose levels. This method involves calculating the area under a curve that shows the rise in blood glucose after consuming a test portion of food containing 50 grams of carbohydrate. The rationale behind using the GI index is that foods that cause a rapid and significant increase in blood glucose levels can lead to an increase in insulin production. This can put individuals at a higher risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain.

      High GI foods are typically those that contain refined sugars and processed cereals, such as white bread and white rice. These foods can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose levels, leading to a surge in insulin production. On the other hand, low GI foods, such as vegetables, legumes, and beans, are less likely to cause a significant increase in blood glucose levels.

      Overall, the Glycaemic Index Method can be helpful in making informed food choices and managing blood glucose levels. By choosing low GI foods, individuals can reduce their risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain, while still enjoying a healthy and balanced diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What does the first heart sound indicate in terms of cardiac activity? ...

    Correct

    • What does the first heart sound indicate in terms of cardiac activity?

      Your Answer: Closing of the mitral/tricuspid valves

      Explanation:

      Valvular Sounds and the Cardiac Cycle

      Valvular sounds are the audible representation of the closure of the heart valves. The first heart sound occurs during systole, when the pressure in the ventricles increases and the mitral and tricuspid valves close, forcing blood through the aorta or pulmonary artery. As the ventricles empty and their pressure drops, the aortic or pulmonary valves close, creating the second heart sound. During diastole, the ventricles relax and their pressure decreases even further. When this pressure falls below that of the atria, the mitral and tricuspid valves open once again.

      the cardiac cycle and the sounds associated with it is crucial in diagnosing and treating heart conditions. By listening to the timing and quality of the valvular sounds, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the heart’s function and structure. Additionally, monitoring changes in these sounds over time can help track the progression of certain conditions and guide treatment decisions.

      In summary, the valvular sounds of the heart represent the opening and closing of the heart valves during the cardiac cycle. These sounds are important indicators of heart health and can provide valuable information for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old amateur cricketer complains of a painful and stiff right shoulder following...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old amateur cricketer complains of a painful and stiff right shoulder following a match. Upon examination, there is tenderness around the shoulder joint. The patient experiences significant difficulty in abducting the joint initially, but can lift it fully with the assistance of his left hand. Which rotator cuff muscle is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Rotator Cuff Muscles in Shoulder Abduction

      The rotator cuff muscles, including subscapularis, infraspinatus, teres minor, and supraspinatus, play a crucial role in shoulder joint movements. However, teres major is not one of the rotator cuff muscles. Specifically, supraspinatus assists in the initial abduction of the shoulder, originating from the supraspinous fossa and inserting in the greater tubercle of the humerus, passing under the acromion.

      As the shoulder is abducted beyond 30 degrees, the deltoid muscle takes over most of the movement. Therefore, if there is a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, initial movement may be difficult, but abduction can be achieved more easily once the limb is abducted to 30 degrees. These types of tears are more common in the elderly and in sports that require rapid overhead throwing movements, such as cricket or baseball.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In which type of liver cells do oxygen-dependent metabolic reactions occur mostly? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which type of liver cells do oxygen-dependent metabolic reactions occur mostly?

      Your Answer: Kupffer cells

      Correct Answer: Zone 1 hepatocytes

      Explanation:

      The Liver’s Dual Blood Supply and Cell Zones

      The liver is composed of small units called acini, each with a dual blood supply from the hepatic artery and portal vein. The blood flows through the hepatic sinusoids, allowing solutes and oxygen to move freely into the hepatocytes. The blood eventually drains into the hepatic vein and back into the systemic circulation.

      The hepatocytes in the periportal region, closest to the hepatic arterial and portal vein supply, are called zone 1 hepatocytes. They are highly metabolically active due to their oxygen-rich and solute-rich supply, but are also more susceptible to damage from toxins. Zone 1 hepatocytes are responsible for oxygen-requiring reactions such as the electron transport chains, Krebs’ cycle, fatty acid oxidation, and urea synthesis.

      Zone 2 and 3 hepatocytes receive less oxygen and are involved in reactions requiring little or no oxygen, such as glycolysis. Ito cells store fats and vitamin A and are involved in the production of connective tissue. Kupffer cells, specialized macrophages, are part of the reticuloendothelial system and are involved in the breakdown of haemoglobulin and the removal of haem for further metabolism in the hepatocytes. Kupffer cells also play a role in immunity. In liver disease, Ito cells are thought to be fundamental in the development of fibrosis and cirrhosis.

      Overall, the liver’s dual blood supply and cell zones play important roles in the metabolic and immune functions of the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the main role of cholecystokinin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main role of cholecystokinin?

      Your Answer: Triggers gallbladder contraction

      Explanation:

      Hormones and their Functions in Digestion

      Cholecystokinin is a hormone that helps in digestion by neutralizing the partially digested food. It does this by stimulating the gallbladder to contract and the pancreas to release alkaline pancreatic fluid. This fluid helps to neutralize the acidic food and aids in the digestion process.

      Gastrin is another hormone that plays a crucial role in digestion. It increases the production of stomach acid and also increases the rate of gastric emptying. This helps to break down the food more efficiently and move it through the digestive system.

      Secretin is a hormone that reduces the production of stomach acid. It is released by the small intestine in response to the acidic food passing through it. This helps to prevent the stomach from becoming too acidic and causing discomfort.

      Leptin is a hormone that helps to regulate appetite. It is produced by fat cells and acts on the brain to suppress appetite. This helps to maintain a healthy weight and prevent overeating.

      In summary, hormones play a vital role in digestion by regulating the production of stomach acid, neutralizing acidic food, and suppressing appetite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of thyroid disease that have...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of thyroid disease that have been ongoing for six months. These symptoms include weight loss, diarrhea, heat intolerance, and irritability. Upon examination, a small goiter and exophthalmos are observed. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Grave's disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis and Its Causes

      Thyrotoxicosis is a medical condition characterized by symptoms such as weight loss, diarrhoea, heat intolerance, and irritability. These symptoms suggest an overactive thyroid gland, which produces too much thyroid hormone. The most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is Graves’ disease, an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system produces autoantibodies that stimulate the thyroid TSH receptor. This leads to an overproduction of thyroid hormone, resulting in thyrotoxicosis.

      While Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause thyrotoxic symptoms in its early stages, it is important to note that all symptoms except those caused by Graves’ disease are recognized as symptoms of thyroid insufficiency rather than thyrotoxicosis. In Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, the immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and damage. This can cause the thyroid gland to release excess thyroid hormone, leading to thyrotoxicosis. However, as the disease progresses, the thyroid gland becomes damaged and unable to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to hypothyroidism.

      In summary, the causes of thyrotoxicosis is important in diagnosing and treating this condition. While Graves’ disease is the most common cause, it is important to consider other potential causes such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of experiencing severe dizziness upon standing quickly. He is currently taking atenolol 100 mg OD for hypertension. Upon measuring his blood pressure while lying down and standing up, the readings were 146/88 mmHg and 108/72 mmHg, respectively. What is the main cause of his postural hypotension?

      Your Answer: Impaired baroreceptor reflex

      Explanation:

      Postural Hypotension and the Sympathetic Response

      Postural hypotension is a common occurrence, especially in the elderly and those with refractory hypertension. When standing up, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs, causing temporary hypotension. However, the baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus detect this change and trigger a sympathetic response. This response includes a rapid generalised venoconstriction, an increase in heart rate, and an increase in stroke volume, all working together to restore cardiac output and blood pressure. In most people, this response occurs before any awareness of hypotension, but a delay in this response can cause giddiness and pre-syncope.

      However, in some cases, the reflex is partially impaired by the action of beta blockers. This means that the sympathetic response may not be as effective in restoring blood pressure. Increased adrenaline release, decreased pH (via chemoreceptors), or pain (via a sympathetic response) can all lead to an increase in blood pressure rather than a decrease. It is important to be aware of these factors and to monitor blood pressure regularly, especially in those who are at higher risk for postural hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 27 - What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume?

      Your Answer: 100 g

      Correct Answer: 50 g

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Carbohydrates in the Diet

      Carbohydrates are essential for the body as they provide fuel for the brain, red blood cells, and the renal medulla. Although the average daily intake of carbohydrates is around 180 g/day, the body can function on a much lower intake of 30-50 g/day. During pregnancy or lactation, the recommended minimum daily requirement of carbohydrates increases to around 100 g/day.

      When carbohydrate intake is restricted, the body can produce glucose through gluconeogenesis, which is the process of making glucose from other fuel sources such as protein and fat. However, when carbohydrate intake is inadequate, the body produces ketones during the oxidation of fats. While ketones can be used by the brain as an alternative fuel source to glucose, prolonged or excessive reliance on ketones can lead to undesirable side effects. Ketones are acidic and can cause systemic acidosis.

      It is important to note that most people consume 200-400 g/day of carbohydrates, which is much higher than the recommended minimum daily requirement. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a balanced diet that includes carbohydrates in the appropriate amount to ensure optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 28 - What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?...

    Correct

    • What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Parathyroid Hormone in Regulating Blood Calcium Levels

      Calcium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone support, blood clotting, muscle contraction, nervous transmission, and hormone production. However, excessively high or low levels of calcium in the blood and interstitial fluid can lead to serious health issues such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. This is where parathyroid hormone comes in.

      Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating blood calcium levels. It works directly on the bone, stimulating bone production or resorption depending on the concentration and duration of exposure. It also acts on the kidney, increasing the loss of phosphate in the urine, decreasing the loss of calcium in the urine, and promoting the activity of the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase, which activates vitamin D. Additionally, parathyroid hormone indirectly affects the gut through the action of activated vitamin D.

      Overall, the regulation of blood calcium levels is crucial for maintaining optimal bodily functions. Parathyroid hormone plays a vital role in this process by directly and indirectly affecting various organs and systems in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old woman complains of altered bowel movements and a sigmoidoscopy reveals an...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman complains of altered bowel movements and a sigmoidoscopy reveals an abnormal, ulcerated mass in the sigmoid colon. She undergoes anterior resection. Upon pathological examination, it is found that the tumor has invaded the muscularis propria but not the underlying tissues. Out of 36 lymph nodes, two are positive. What is the Dukes stage of this tumor?

      Your Answer: B

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Staging Colorectal Cancer: Dukes System

      Colorectal cancer can be staged using either the TNM classification system or the simpler Dukes system. Both methods are used to determine the appropriate treatment and prognosis for the patient. The Dukes system categorizes the cancer into four stages based on the extent of its spread.

      Stage A refers to cancer that is confined to the mucosa or submucosa only, with a 93% 5-year survival rate. Stage B indicates that the cancer has invaded into the muscularis propria but has not spread beyond it, with a 77% 5-year survival rate. Stage C is characterized by the presence of local lymph node metastases, regardless of the depth of invasion, and has a 48% 5-year survival rate. Finally, Stage D indicates the presence of distant metastases, with a 6% 5-year survival rate. However, if the metastases are isolated to the liver, a 25-40% 5-year survival rate is possible.

      In summary, the Dukes system provides a simple and effective way to stage colorectal cancer based on the extent of its spread. This information is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and predicting the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 30 - Which statement accurately reflects the findings of the double-blind, randomised, placebo-controlled trial of...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately reflects the findings of the double-blind, randomised, placebo-controlled trial of drug A for hypercholesterolaemia treatment?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is that drug A is as effective as placebo

      Explanation:

      The Null Hypothesis in Testing for Differences between Variables

      In testing for differences between variables, the null hypothesis always assumes that there is no difference between the variables being tested. This means that the null hypothesis assumes that the variables are either equally effective or equally ineffective.

      For instance, in testing the cholesterol-reducing effect of drug A and placebo, the null hypothesis would assume that there is no difference between the two in terms of their effectiveness. Therefore, the null hypothesis would state that drug A and placebo are equally effective or equally ineffective in reducing cholesterol levels.

      It is important to establish the null hypothesis before conducting any statistical analysis because it provides a baseline for comparison. If the results of the analysis show that there is a significant difference between the variables, then the null hypothesis can be rejected, and it can be concluded that there is indeed a difference between the variables being tested. On the other hand, if the results do not show a significant difference, then the null hypothesis cannot be rejected, and it can be concluded that there is no difference between the variables being tested.

      In summary, the null hypothesis assumes that there is no difference between the variables being tested, and it serves as a baseline for comparison in statistical analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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