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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman with haematuria underwent a kidney biopsy, but light microscopy results...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with haematuria underwent a kidney biopsy, but light microscopy results were inconclusive. As a result, the specimen was sent for electron microscopy. Which renal disease requires electron microscopy for diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Correct Answer: Thin membrane disease

      Explanation:

      Renal Diseases and their Diagnostic Methods

      Renal diseases can be diagnosed through various methods, including electron microscopy, blood tests, and renal biopsy. Here are some examples:

      Thin Membrane Disease: Electron microscopy is crucial in diagnosing thin membrane disease, as well as Alport syndrome and fibrillary glomerulopathy.

      Anti-GBM Disease: Blood tests for anti-GBM can confirm Goodpasture’s syndrome, but a renal biopsy can also be taken to show IgG deposits along the basement membrane.

      Lupus Nephritis: While electron microscopy can show dense immune deposits in lupus nephritis, diagnosis can also be made through immunofluorescence without the need for electron microscopy.

      IgA Nephropathy: A renal biopsy can confirm IgA nephropathy, showing mesangium proliferation and IgA deposits on immunofluorescence.

      Churg-Strauss Syndrome: Also known as eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), Churg-Strauss syndrome can be diagnosed through blood tests showing high eosinophils and ANCA, as well as renal biopsy showing eosinophil granulomas.

      Diagnostic Methods for Renal Diseases

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old accountant presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with flank pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old accountant presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with flank pain and an episode of frank haematuria. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and has had similar symptoms before. She attributes this episode to another UTI. She also has hypertension which is well controlled with ramipril. The doctor is concerned regarding the history of recurrent UTIs, and patient is further investigated for her symptoms with blood tests and ultrasound imaging. Results of the bloods and ultrasound confirms a diagnosis of polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which of the following is true regarding PKD?

      Your Answer: Is usually inherited as an autosomal recessive condition

      Correct Answer: Is associated with berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis

      Explanation:

      Polycystic Kidney Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Associations

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys and other organs. It is caused by mutations in either the PKD1 or PKD2 gene, which leads to the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys. Here are some important facts about PKD:

      Associations with other conditions: PKD is associated with cerebral berry aneurysms, liver cysts, hepatic fibrosis, diverticular disease, pancreatic cysts, and mitral valve prolapse or aortic incompetence.

      Inheritance: PKD is usually inherited as an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from one parent to develop the disease. Autosomal recessive PKD is rare and has a poor prognosis.

      Kidney involvement: Both kidneys are affected by PKD, with cysts replacing the functioning renal parenchyma and leading to renal failure.

      Age of onset: PKD usually presents in adult life, but cysts start to develop during the teenage years. The mean age of ESRD is 57 years in PKD1 cases and 69 years in PKD2 cases.

      PKD is a complex disorder that can have serious consequences for affected individuals. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant. After three months he starts to feel unwell with flu-like symptoms, fever, and pain over the transplant area.
      What is the most likely type of reaction that has occurred in the patient?

      Your Answer: Hyperacute rejection

      Correct Answer: Acute graft failure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Graft Failure After Transplantation

      Acute graft failure is a type of graft failure that occurs within six months after transplantation. If a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms, and pain over the transplant after three months, it may indicate acute graft failure. This type of failure is usually caused by mismatched human leukocyte antigen and may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.

      Wound infection is not a likely cause of symptoms after three months since any wounds from the transplant would have healed by then. Chronic graft failure, on the other hand, occurs after six months to a year following the transplant and is caused by a combination of B- and T-cell-mediated immunity, infection, and previous occurrences of acute graft rejections.

      Hyperacute rejection is a rare type of graft failure that occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. It happens because of pre-existing antibodies towards the donor before transplantation. In cases of hyperacute rejection, removal of the organ and re-transplantation is necessary.

      It is important to understand the different types of graft failure after transplantation to properly diagnose and treat patients who may be experiencing symptoms.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department. She was found to be confused at home by her son. According to her son, the patient is independent and able to take care of herself. On examination she has a temperature of 38.1 °C. Her blood pressure is 136/74 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 bpm. She is disorientated and not able to provide any history. Physical examination is unremarkable except for tenderness elicited at the right lower back.
      Urine dipstick results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Colour Turbid Clear
      pH 6.7 7.35–7.45
      Glucose 2+ Negative
      Bilirubin Negative Negative
      Ketone 1+ Negative
      Nitrite 2+ Negative
      Leukocytes 3+ Negative
      Blood 1+ Negative
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is an infection of the upper urinary tract system, including the kidney and ureter. Symptoms include fever, chills, flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness. Elderly patients may present with confusion, delirium, or urinary retention/incontinence. Positive nitrite and leukocytes in the urine suggest a urinary infection, while glucose and ketones may indicate chronic diabetes or starvation. Cystitis, a bladder infection, presents with dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, and suprapubic tenderness. Renal stones cause dull pain at the costovertebral angle and positive blood on urine dipstick, but negative leukocytes and nitrites. Acute appendicitis in an elderly patient may be difficult to diagnose, but costovertebral angle tenderness and a positive urine dipstick suggest pyelonephritis. Prolapsed intervertebral disc causes chronic back pain and leg symptoms, but does not typically cause fever or delirium, and the tenderness is specific to pyelonephritis.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 5 - What is the correct statement regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

      Your Answer: Renin is secreted in response to a raised sodium level at the macula densa

      Correct Answer: A fall in pressure in the afferent arteriole promotes renin secretion

      Explanation:

      Renin secretion and the role of the macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells

      Renin is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. It is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells, which are modified smooth muscle cells located in the wall of the afferent arterioles. Renin secretion is stimulated by a fall in renal perfusion pressure, which can be detected by baroreceptors in the afferent arterioles. Additionally, reduced sodium delivery to the macula densa, a specialized region of the distal convoluted tubule, can also stimulate renin production. However, it is important to note that the macula densa itself does not secrete renin. Understanding the mechanisms behind renin secretion can help in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions such as hypertension and kidney disease.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes of frank haematuria. He does not recall any abdominal or loin pain. He had an upper respiratory tract infection a few days ago. Urine dipstick shows blood, and blood tests are normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Glomerulonephritis and Other Possible Causes of Haematuria in a Young Patient

      Haematuria in a young patient can be caused by various conditions, including glomerulonephritis, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, sexually transmitted infections, and bladder cancer. IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s Disease, is the most common glomerulonephritis in the developed world and commonly affects young men. It presents with macroscopic haematuria a few days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. A renal biopsy will show IgA deposits in the mesangium, and treatment is with steroids or cyclophosphamide if renal function is deteriorating.

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, on the other hand, presents in young children usually one to two weeks post-streptococcal infection with smoky urine and general malaise. Proteinuria is also expected in a glomerulonephritis. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and is associated with an upper respiratory tract infection. However, nephrotic syndrome involves proteinuria, which this patient does not have.

      It is also important to exclude sexually transmitted infections, as many are asymptomatic, but signs of infection and inflammation would likely show up on urine dipstick. Bladder cancer is unlikely in such a young patient devoid of other symptoms. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and proper diagnosis are necessary to determine the underlying cause of haematuria in a young patient.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome

      Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.

      Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome

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      • Renal
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to the Emergency Department in a confused and dehydrated state. Her blood tests reveal significant abnormalities, including a potassium level of 7.2 mmol/l (NR 3.5–4.9), creatinine level of 450 μmol/l (NR 60–110), and urea level of 31.2 mmol/l (NR 2.5–7.5). Upon retesting, her serum potassium remains elevated. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange continuous ECG monitoring and consider giving 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenous (IV)

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia in a Patient with Renal Dysfunction

      Hyperkalaemia is a medical emergency that requires prompt management. Once confirmed via a repeat blood sample, continuous ECG monitoring is necessary. For cardioprotection, 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate IV should be considered. Insulin can also be administered to drive potassium ions from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment. A third blood sample is not necessary and may delay treatment. An urgent ultrasound scan should be arranged to determine the underlying cause of renal dysfunction. Furosemide should be reserved until fluid balance assessment results are known. Renal replacement therapy may be considered as a final option, but prognosis should be assessed first. Nebulised salbutamol may also have positive effects in reducing serum potassium, but IV administration carries a significant risk of arrhythmia. Correction of severe acidosis may exacerbate fluid retention in patients with kidney disease.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 9 - A 62-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. Her most recent early morning urinary albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 4 mg/mmol (normal for women: < 3.5 mg/mmol). What should be the target blood pressure for managing her diabetic nephropathy?

      Your Answer: 135/85 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 130/80 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Blood Pressure Targets for Patients with Diabetes

      Blood pressure targets vary depending on the type of diabetes and the presence of co-morbidities. For patients with type II diabetes and signs of end-organ damage, the target is 130/80 mmHg. Ideal blood pressure for most people is between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg. Patients with type I diabetes without albuminuria or > 2 features of metabolic syndrome have a target of 135/85 mmHg. Type II diabetics without signs of end-organ damage have a target of 140/80 mmHg. For patients over 80 years old, the target is 150/90 mmHg. It is important for patients with diabetes to work with their healthcare provider to determine their individual blood pressure target.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years. He previously had an AV fistula in his left arm, but it became infected 4 years ago and was no longer functional. Currently, he is receiving dialysis through an AV fistula in his right forearm. He presents with pain in his right hand and wrist. Upon examination, there is redness and a necrotic ulcer on his right middle finger. His right hand strength is normal. He is not experiencing any constitutional symptoms and is not taking any medications. He had undergone uncomplicated dialysis the day before. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thrombosis and distal embolisation from the fistula

      Correct Answer: Distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS)

      Explanation:

      Possible Complications of AV Fistula in Dialysis Patients

      AV fistula is a common vascular access for patients undergoing dialysis. However, it can lead to various complications, including distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS). DHIS, also known as steal syndrome, occurs when blood flow is shunted through the fistula, causing distal ischaemia, which can result in ulcers and necrosis. Surgical revision or banding of the fistula may be necessary in severe cases. Older patients with atherosclerotic arteries are more prone to DHIS. Other possible complications include unrelated local pathology, infected AV fistula, infective endocarditis, and thrombosis with distal embolisation. It is important to identify and manage these complications promptly to prevent further harm to the patient.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 11 - A middle-aged woman with a history of renal cell carcinoma complains of swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman with a history of renal cell carcinoma complains of swelling in both legs extending from the groin area and dilated veins around the belly button. What is the underlying mechanism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypoalbuminaemia

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava obstruction

      Explanation:

      Causes of Bilateral Lower Limb Edema: Differential Diagnosis

      Bilateral lower limb edema can have various causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with inferior vena cava obstruction, which is caused by extrinsic compression from a renal mass. This obstruction prevents venous drainage of the lower limbs and leads to bilateral edema and distended superficial abdominal veins. Other causes of bilateral lower limb edema include hyponatremia, hypoalbuminemia, deep venous thrombosis, and heart failure. However, each of these conditions presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Hyponatremia and hypoalbuminemia cause generalized edema, while deep venous thrombosis presents with painful swelling and erythema in the affected limb. Heart failure also causes bilateral dependent edema but does not lead to venous engorgement and dilated veins around the umbilicus. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory tests is crucial to establish the correct diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old woman presents for review of her chronic kidney disease.
    Her investigation results...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents for review of her chronic kidney disease.
      Her investigation results show:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Calcium 1.70 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Potassium 6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Phosphate 2.5 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Urea 80 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 400 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      What is the mechanism for the low calcium?

      Your Answer: Reduced vitamin D hydroxylation

      Explanation:

      This patient has hypocalcaemia due to chronic renal failure, which reduces the production of calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D that plays a crucial role in calcium absorption. Calcitriol increases the permeability of tight junctions in the small intestine, allowing for the absorption of calcium through both passive and active pathways. In the active pathway, calcitriol stimulates the production of calbindin, which helps transport calcium into the enteral cells. However, in chronic kidney disease, the hydroxylation of calcidiol to calcitriol is impaired, leading to reduced calcium absorption and hypocalcaemia. Other potential causes of hypocalcaemia, such as increased tubular loss of calcium or a parathyroid tumour, have been ruled out in this patient.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents with an incidental finding of a blood pressure of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with an incidental finding of a blood pressure of 180/130 mmHg on three separate occasions. Her cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, but further investigation reveals a significantly smaller left kidney with a 'string of beads' appearance in the left renal artery. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Balloon angioplasty

      Explanation:

      Management of Renal Artery Stenosis: Fibromuscular Dysplasia

      Fibromuscular dysplasia is a rare cause of renal artery stenosis, typically affecting young women and presenting with hypertension. The characteristic ‘string of beads’ appearance on CT imaging helps in diagnosis. While atherosclerotic disease is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis, a combination of antihypertensive therapy and renal artery balloon angioplasty is curative for fibromuscular dysplasia. Kidney transplantation is not usually required, but it is important to recognize the condition in donors to prevent complications in recipients. Nephrectomy is not typically necessary, and surgical reconstruction is rarely recommended. Statins are not used in the management of fibromuscular dysplasia, but may be used in atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. He is diagnosed with renal clear cell carcinoma. Upon staging, it is discovered that the tumour has spread to the adrenal gland. What would be the primary management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Radiofrequency ablation

      Correct Answer: Immunomodulatory drugs

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stage 4 Renal Cancer with Metastases

      Loin pain, haematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass are the classic symptoms of renal cancer, which is not very common. When the cancer has metastasized to the adrenal gland, it becomes a stage 4 tumor. Targeted molecular therapy is the first-line treatment for stage 4 renal cancer with metastases. Immunomodulatory drugs such as sunitinib, temsirolimus, and nivolumab are commonly used for this purpose.

      Other treatment options for renal cancer include cryotherapy, partial nephrectomy, radiofrequency ablation, and radical nephrectomy. Cryotherapy uses liquid nitrogen to freeze cancerous cells, but it is usually only used for early-stage disease and is not first-line here. Partial nephrectomy is reserved for patients with small renal masses, usually stage 1. Radiofrequency ablation can be used for non-surgical candidates with small renal masses without metastasis, usually stage 1 or 2. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of the entire kidney, which is primarily done for stage 2 and 3 renal cell cancers.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and oedema. He has no past medical history and is typically healthy, without recent illnesses. Upon examination, his serum urea is elevated and protein in his urine is ++++. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Glomerulonephritis

      Glomerulonephritis is a group of kidney diseases that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some of the different types of glomerulonephritis:

      1. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: This is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. It is caused by T-cell-mediated injury to the podocytes of the epithelial cells. The diagnosis is made by electron microscopy, and treatment is with steroids.

      2. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is the second most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. It can be primary or secondary, and some causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis include autoimmune conditions, malignancy, viral infections, and drugs. On light microscopy, the basement membrane has characteristic spikes.

      3. Mesangiocapillary Glomerulonephritis: This is associated with immune deposition in the glomerulus, thickening of the basement membrane, and activation of complement pathways leading to glomerular damage. It presents with nephrotic syndrome and is seen in both the pediatric and adult population. It is the most common glomerulonephritis associated with hepatitis C.

      4. Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis: This presents with haematuria, oedema, hypertension, fever, or acute kidney failure following an upper respiratory tract infection or pharyngitis from Streptococcus spp.

      5. IgA Nephropathy Glomerulonephritis: This is a condition associated with IgA deposition within the glomerulus, presenting with haematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection. It is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults.

      Understanding the Different Types of Glomerulonephritis

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      • Renal
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  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She has been diagnosed some years ago with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and has suffered from a previous deep vein thrombosis. On assessment, temperature is 36.7oC, heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure 128/80 mmHg and she is still passing urine.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 17.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 325 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urine proteinuria +++
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral renal vein thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Bilateral Flank Pain, Renal Failure, and Proteinuria

      Bilateral flank pain, renal failure, and marked proteinuria can be caused by various conditions. One possible diagnosis is bilateral renal vein thrombosis, especially if the patient has a history of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and previous deep vein thrombosis. Other causes of renal vein thrombosis include extrinsic compression of the renal vein by a tumour or a retroperitoneal mass, invasion of the renal vein or inferior vena cava by a tumour, or nephrotic syndrome that increases coagulability. Abdominal ultrasound and angiography can help diagnose renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is the main treatment.

      Bilateral ureteric obstruction can cause anuria, while bilateral pyelonephritis can cause sepsis and leukocytes and nitrites in the urine. Medullary sponge kidney, a congenital disorder that causes cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in one or both kidneys, may present with haematuria or nephrocalcinosis but does not affect renal function. Bilateral renal artery stenosis can cause uncontrollable hypertension and reduced renal function but not pain. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old man is admitted with severe shortness of breath during the early...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is admitted with severe shortness of breath during the early hours of the morning. Past history of note includes difficult-to-manage hypertension, for which he now takes amlodipine 10 mg, indapamide 1.5 mg and doxazosin 8 mg. He failed a trial of ramipril 1 year earlier due to a rise in his creatinine of 40% at the 1-week post-initiation stage. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 185/100 mmHg and a pulse of 100 bpm regular and is in frank pulmonary oedema. When you review his old notes, you find this is the second episode during the past 6 months. Echocardiography has shown a preserved ejection fraction. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals no abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hypertension with rising creatinine and pulmonary oedema

      When a patient presents with difficult-to-control hypertension and rising creatinine, accompanied by episodes of pulmonary oedema without signs of myocardial infarction, the differential diagnosis should include renovascular disease. Abdominal ultrasound may reveal kidneys of different sizes due to poor arterial supply to one side, but angiography or magnetic resonance angiograms are needed for confirmation. Vascular intervention, mainly via angioplasty, may improve the condition, but patients may have other arterial stenoses and be at risk of other vascular events.

      Renal vein thrombosis is another possible cause of rising creatinine, especially in nephrotic syndrome, but it tends to have an insidious onset. Phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor that secretes catecholamines, can present with hypertension, palpitations, and flushing, but it is unlikely to cause a rise in creatinine after starting an ACE inhibitor. Myocardial infarction is ruled out by a normal ECG and preserved left ventricular ejection fraction. Nephritic syndrome, which is associated with hypertension and oedema, is also unlikely to cause a rise in creatinine after an ACE inhibitor trial.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 18 - A 69-year-old man, with CCF is admitted with SOB and a productive cough....

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man, with CCF is admitted with SOB and a productive cough. Clinical findings, and a chest X-ray suggest a diagnosis of both pulmonary oedema and pneumonia. He is put on high flow oxygen and treated with furosemide, GTN spray and morphine, and started on antibiotics.
      His breathlessness improves, and a repeat chest X-ray shows decreased pulmonary oedema. An ABG shows the following:
      pH: 7.01 (normal 7.35–7.45)
      p(CO2): 8 kPa (normal 4.5–6.0 kPa)
      p(O2): 11 kPa (normal 10–14 kPa)
      HCO3–: 18 mmol (normal 24–30 mmol/l)
      base excess: 1.2 mmol/l (normal −2 to +2.0 mmol/l)
      sodium: 142 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
      potassium: 5.9 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      glucose: 7.5 mmol/l (normal 5–5.5 mmol/l)
      lactate: 3.1 mmol/l (normal 2.2–5 mmol/l).
      Based on the patient, which of the following does he have that is an indication for acute dialysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Indications for Acute Dialysis: Assessing the Patient’s Condition

      When considering whether a patient requires acute dialysis, several factors must be taken into account. Severe metabolic acidosis with a pH below 7.2 is a clear indication for dialysis. Similarly, severe refractory hyperkalaemia with levels above 7 mmol/l may require dialysis, although standard measures to correct potassium levels should be attempted first. However, if the patient’s potassium levels are only mildly elevated, dialysis may not be necessary.

      A raised lactate level is not an indication for acute dialysis. Refractory pulmonary oedema, which has not responded to initial treatment with diuretics, may require dialysis. However, if the patient’s pulmonary oedema has responded to treatment, dialysis may not be necessary.

      In summary, the decision to initiate acute dialysis depends on a careful assessment of the patient’s condition, taking into account factors such as metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, lactate levels, and pulmonary oedema.

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      • Renal
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of his right fingers. This worsens when he types for more than an hour and slightly improves when he stops typing. He suffers from diabetes mellitus and end-stage kidney disease and has been on regular haemodialysis via brachiocephalic fistula on his right antecubital fossa. On examination, his right radial artery is palpable and he has reduced sensation in all his right fingers, predominantly affecting the fingertips. The numbness does not worsen with tapping over the wrist nor with forced flexion of his wrists. His capillary refill time over his right fingers is prolonged to three seconds.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fistula steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Fistula Steal Syndrome, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, and Diabetic Neuropathy are Possible Causes of Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Arteriovenous fistula is a common procedure for patients undergoing hemodialysis. However, up to 20% of patients may develop complications such as fistula steal syndrome, which occurs when the segment of artery distal to the fistula is narrowed, leading to reduced arterial blood flow to the limb extremities. This can cause numbness and worsening of symptoms on usage of the hands.

      Other possible causes of numbness in this patient include carpal tunnel syndrome, which is a common complication among patients on long-term renal replacement therapy due to protein deposition in the carpal tunnel, and diabetic neuropathy, which is a common complication of chronic diabetes mellitus. However, the loss of sensation in peripheral neuropathy in diabetic patients is symmetrical in nature, commonly following a glove and stocking pattern.

      Radial nerve palsy and ulnar styloid fracture are less likely causes of numbness in this patient, as they typically present with muscle weakness and a history of trauma, respectively. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of numbness in patients with arteriovenous fistula.

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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal renal function tests for the past two months. His GFR reading has been consistently 35 ml/min. What stage of CKD is this patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This patient does not meet the criteria for CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages

      Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys and their ability to filter waste from the blood. To diagnose CKD, a patient must have a GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of less than 60 ml/min for at least three months. This is the primary criteria for CKD diagnosis.

      There are five stages of CKD, each with different GFR values and symptoms. Stage 1 CKD presents with a GFR greater than 90 ml/min and some signs of kidney damage. Stage 3a CKD presents with a GFR of 45-59 ml/min, while stage 3b CKD patients have a GFR of 30-44 ml/min. However, both stage 3a and 3b require the GFR to be present for at least three months.

      There is no stage 4a CKD. Instead, stage 4 CKD patients have a GFR of 15-29 ml/min. It is important to understand the different stages of CKD to properly diagnose and treat patients with this condition.

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  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules

      Explanation:

      Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases

      Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.

      Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.

      Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.

      Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.

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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old man visits his GP clinic with a chief complaint of headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man visits his GP clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the physical examination, no abnormalities are detected, but his blood pressure is found to be 178/90 mmHg. The doctor suspects a renal origin for the hypertension and wants to perform an initial screening test for renovascular causes. What is the most appropriate investigation for this purpose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal duplex ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Renal Hypertension

      Renal hypertension, or high blood pressure caused by kidney disease, can be diagnosed through various diagnostic tests. The appropriate initial screening investigation is an abdominal duplex ultrasound, which can detect renal vascular or anatomical pathologies such as renal artery stenosis or polycystic kidney disease. If abnormalities are found, more advanced testing such as a CTA, magnetic resonance angiography, or nuclear medicine testing may be necessary. However, an ultrasound is the best initial screening investigation for renal hypertension.

      A CTA is a follow-up test that may be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension. It is an advanced, specialist test that would not be appropriate as an initial screening investigation. On the other hand, a magnetic resonance angiography is an advanced, gold-standard test that can be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension.

      HbA1c is a blood test that tests your average blood glucose levels over the last 2–3 months. It can indicate if diabetes may have contributed to the hypertension, but will not clarify whether there is a renal cause. Lastly, a urine albumin: creatinine ratio tests for the presence of protein in the urine, which is a reflection of kidney disease, but does not give us any indication of the cause.

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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old teacher presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old teacher presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. She has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. She does not smoke but drinks up to 20 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends. Observations are as follows:
      Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm and regular.
      On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
      Blood tests reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Urea 8.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 190 µmol/l
      (bloods carried out one year
      previously showed a creatinine
      of 80) 50–120 µmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 133 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be acute or chronic, and it is important to differentiate between the two. Acute renal failure may present with symptoms such as acute lethargy, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may present with symptoms such as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, and reduced appetite. A history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension is also a risk factor for chronic kidney disease.

      Oliguria is a clinical hallmark of renal failure and can be one of the early signs of acute renal injury. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, while peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Nocturia or nocturnal polyuria is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease, while in acute injury, urine output tends to be reduced rather than increased. Small kidneys are seen in chronic renal failure, while the kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.

      Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

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  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His vital signs are heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 170/110 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.8 °C. Urinalysis shows protein and red cell casts. Serum testing reveals antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane. A renal biopsy is conducted.
      What is the probable finding in the renal biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linear immunofluorescence

      Explanation:

      Different Renal Pathologies and their Histological Features

      Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggest hypersensitivity angiitis (Goodpasture’s syndrome) as the underlying cause. In hypersensitivity angiitis, crescents are seen on light microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane.

      Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis is characterized by ‘wire looping’ of capillaries. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) shows splitting of the basement membrane and is associated with deafness. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, typically seen in children, shows a ‘lumpy bumpy’ appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane.

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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Renal Clinic for review. She has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Renal Clinic for review. She has suffered from two recent urinary tract infections, and asymptomatic haematuria has been noted on urine dipstick testing on two separate occasions. She reports costovertebral angle tenderness on a few occasions in the past year. On examination, there is no residual tenderness today. Her blood pressure is 145/92 mmHg.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 256 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 145 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Abdominal plain X-ray Multiple pre-calyceal calcifications
      affecting both kidneys, with a
      ‘bunch of grapes’ appearance
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medullary sponge kidney

      Explanation:

      Understanding Medullary Sponge Kidney: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Medullary sponge kidney is a condition that is often asymptomatic and has a benign course. However, some patients may experience haematuria, urinary tract infections, or costovertebral angle pain due to renal stone formation. The diagnosis can be confirmed through abdominal X-ray, which shows characteristic findings consistent with medullary sponge kidney.

      Recurrent urinary tract infections would not be associated with the X-ray findings, and neither would autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, which is a serious condition that leads to renal failure. Renal tuberculosis is unlikely to present with the X-ray findings, and reflux nephropathy, which is often diagnosed in childhood, would not lead to the same X-ray results.

      Patients with medullary sponge kidney who are asymptomatic can be reassured about the benign nature of the condition. Those with recurrent urinary tract infections or stone formation should be advised to increase their oral fluid intake. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of medullary sponge kidney is important for proper management and treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by lens dislocation. After conducting additional tests, the diagnosis of Alport syndrome is made. What type of collagen is typically affected by a molecular defect in this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type IV

      Explanation:

      Types and Effects of Collagen Defects on Human Health

      Collagen is an essential protein that provides structural support to various tissues in the human body. Defects in different types of collagen can lead to various health conditions. Type IV collagen is crucial for the integrity of the basement membrane, and mutations in its genes can cause Alport syndrome, resulting in haematuria, hearing loss, and visual disturbances. Type III collagen defects cause Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, characterized by joint hypermobility, severe bruising, and blood vessel defects. Type I collagen defects lead to osteogenesis imperfecta, characterized by brittle bones, abnormal teeth, and weak tendons. Kniest dysplasia is caused by defects in type II collagen, leading to short stature, poor joint mobility, and eventual blindness. Kindler syndrome is characterized by the absence of epidermal anchoring fibrils due to defects in type VII collagen, resulting in skin fragility. Understanding the effects of collagen defects on human health is crucial for diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.

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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus and recently diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus and recently diagnosed with CKD stage G3a (GFR 45 ml/min/1.73 m2) is seen by her GP. The GP notes that the patient has a BP of 152/90 mmHg, which is persistently elevated on two further readings taken on separate occasions by the practice nurse. The patient has no past history of hypertension. What is the most appropriate management for the patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Management of Hypertension in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) requires careful management of hypertension to slow the progression of renal disease. The recommended first-line treatment for hypertension in CKD is angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEis), which should maintain systolic BP < 140 mmHg and diastolic BP < 90 mmHg. Before starting ACEi treatment, serum potassium concentrations and estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) should be measured and monitored regularly. While ACEis and angiotensin receptor antagonists (ARBs) may be used as first-line treatments, they should not be used concurrently due to the risk of hyperkalaemia and hypotension. Potassium-sparing diuretics, such as amiloride, should also be avoided in renal impairment due to the risk of hyperkalaemia. In addition to medication, dietary modification and exercise advice can also help manage hypertension in CKD patients. If hypertension is not controlled with an ACEi or ARB alone, thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide may be added as second-line therapy. Overall, careful management of hypertension is crucial in CKD patients to slow the progression of renal disease and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 28 - A 63-year-old man presented with fever, body ache and pedal oedema for three...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presented with fever, body ache and pedal oedema for three months. He was taking oral diclofenac frequently for the aches. He had no other drug history and had not travelled recently.
      On examination, there was sternal tenderness. His blood report revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 134 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Urea 13 mmol/l 2.5–6.0 mmol/l
      Calcium 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most likely cause of renal failure in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Light chain deposition

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Renal Failure in Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a rare but possible diagnosis in young adults, with a higher incidence in black populations and men. Renal failure is a common complication of this disease, with various possible causes. While NSAID use, hypercalcaemia, hyperuricaemia, and infiltration of the kidney by myeloma cells are all potential factors, the most common cause of renal failure in multiple myeloma is light chain deposition. This can lead to tubular toxicity and subsequent renal damage. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of renal failure in multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and treatment of this disease.

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  • Question 29 - A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
      Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis: Common Culprits and Management Options

      Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by fever, rash, and abnormalities on urinalysis. It can be caused by various drugs, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), beta-lactam antibiotics, allopurinol, and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). In this case, the patient’s raised eosinophil count suggests drug-induced acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      Prednisolone, a steroid commonly used to manage this condition, is safe to continue. However, NSAIDs like diclofenac should be stopped as they can inhibit prostaglandins that maintain the glomerular filtration rate. Allopurinol may also need to be withdrawn to determine if it is contributing to the symptoms. Beta-lactam antibiotics like amoxicillin are another common cause and may need to be stopped. PPIs like omeprazole are a relatively rare but known trigger and should be withdrawn promptly. It is important to remember that steroids should not be suddenly stopped in most patients.

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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old African-Caribbean woman with sickle-cell anaemia presents with acute kidney injury. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old African-Caribbean woman with sickle-cell anaemia presents with acute kidney injury. Her only medication is hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea).
      What is the most probable reason for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal papillary necrosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Kidney Injury

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) can be caused by various factors. One of the causes is renal papillary necrosis, which is commonly associated with sickle-cell anaemia. This occurs when sickled red blood cells cause infarction and necrosis of renal papillae. Other causes of renal papillary necrosis include diabetes mellitus, acute pyelonephritis, and chronic paracetamol use.

      Another cause of AKI is hypoperfusion of renal tubules from hypotension. This happens when there is a decrease in blood pressure due to shock or dehydration, leading to the hypoperfusion of renal tubules and acute tubular necrosis.

      Drug-induced interstitial nephritis is also a cause of AKI. This occurs when there is an allergic reaction to certain drugs such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antibiotics, and loop diuretics. Eosinophils in the urine are associated with this type of AKI.

      Pyelonephritis from Salmonella species is not a cause of AKI in patients with sickle-cell disease. However, diffuse cortical necrosis is a rare cause of AKI associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation, especially in obstetric emergencies such as abruptio placentae.

      In conclusion, AKI can be caused by various factors, and it is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal (6/15) 40%
Passmed