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Question 1
Correct
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A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia
Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.
According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.
In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit from the Coronary Care Ward. He has suffered from an acute myocardial infarction two days earlier. On examination, he is profoundly unwell with a blood pressure of 85/60 mmHg and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. He has crackles throughout his lung fields, with markedly decreased oxygen saturations; he has no audible cardiac murmurs. He is intubated and ventilated, and catheterised.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Troponin T 5.8 ng/ml <0.1 ng/ml
Urine output 30 ml in the past 3 h
ECG – consistent with a myocardial infarction 48 h earlier
Chest X-ray – gross pulmonary oedema
Which of the following fits best with the clinical picture?Your Answer: Nitrate therapy is likely to be the initial management of choice
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cardiogenic Shock Following Acute Myocardial Infarction
Cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. One potential treatment option is the use of an intra-aortic balloon pump, which can provide ventricular support without compromising blood pressure. High-dose dopamine may also be used to preserve renal function, but intermediate and high doses can have negative effects on renal blood flow. The chance of death in this situation is high, but with appropriate treatment, it can be reduced to less than 10%. Nesiritide, a synthetic natriuretic peptide, is not recommended as it can worsen renal function and increase mortality. Nitrate therapy should also be avoided as it can further reduce renal perfusion and worsen the patient’s condition. Overall, careful consideration of treatment options is necessary to improve outcomes for patients with cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman comes to you for a follow-up appointment after a recent fall. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, bilateral knee replacements, chronic hypotension, and heart failure, which limits her mobility. Her weight is 118 kg. During her last visit, her ECG showed atrial fibrillation (AF) with a heart rate of 180 bpm, and she was started on bisoprolol. She underwent a 48-hour ECG monitoring, which revealed non-paroxysmal AF. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Increase the dose of bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Start her on digoxin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation in a Patient with Heart Failure
When treating a patient with atrial fibrillation (AF) and heart failure, the aim should be rate control. While bisoprolol is a good choice for medication, it may not be suitable for a patient with chronic low blood pressure. In this case, digoxin would be the treatment of choice. Anticoagulation with either a novel oral anticoagulant or warfarin is also necessary. Electrical cardioversion is not appropriate for this patient. Increasing the dose of bisoprolol may be reasonable, but considering the patient’s clinical presentation and past medical history, it may not be the best option. Amlodipine will not have an effect on rate control in AF, and calcium-channel blockers should not be used in heart failure. Amiodarone should not be first-line treatment in this patient due to her heart failure. Overall, the best treatment option for AF in a patient with heart failure should be carefully considered based on the individual’s medical history and current condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with a heart attack. After four days, he experiences another episode of chest pain with non-specific ST-T wave changes on the ECG. Which cardiac enzyme would be the most suitable for determining if this second episode was another heart attack?
Your Answer: Troponin T
Correct Answer: CK-MB
Explanation:Evaluating Chest Pain after an MI
When a patient experiences chest pain within ten days of a previous myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to evaluate the situation carefully. Troponin T levels remain elevated for ten days following an MI, which can make it difficult to determine if a second episode of chest pain is related to the previous event. To make a diagnosis, doctors will need to evaluate the patient’s creatine kinase (CK)-myoglobin (MB) levels. These markers rise over three days and can help form a diagnostic profile that can help determine if the chest pain is related to a new MI or another condition. By carefully evaluating these markers, doctors can provide the best possible care for patients who are experiencing chest pain after an MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics procedure. He is having a large basal cell carcinoma removed from his nose. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having had three stents placed 2 years ago. He is otherwise healthy and still able to walk to the shops. His preoperative electrocardiogram (ECG) showed sinus rhythm. During the procedure, his heart rate suddenly increases to 175 bpm with a narrow complex, and you cannot see P waves on the monitor. You are having difficulty obtaining a blood pressure reading but are able to palpate a radial pulse with a systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. The surgeons have been using lidocaine with adrenaline around the surgical site. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: Amiodarone 300 mg stat
Correct Answer: 100% O2, synchronised cardioversion, 150-J biphasic shock
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Narrow-Complex Tachycardia and Low Blood Pressure
When a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia and low blood pressure, it is likely that they have gone into fast atrial fibrillation. In this case, the first step in resuscitation should be a synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion with a 150-J biphasic shock. Administering 100% oxygen, a 500 ml Hartmann bolus, and 0.5 mg metaraminol may help increase the patient’s blood pressure, but it does not address the underlying cause of their haemodynamic instability.
Amiodarone 300 mg stat is recommended for patients with narrow-complex tachycardia and haemodynamic instability. However, administering 10 mmol magnesium sulphate is not the first-line treatment for tachycardia unless the patient has torsades de pointes.
Lastly, administering Intralipid® as per guideline for local anaesthetic toxicity is unlikely to be the main source of the patient’s hypotension and does not address their narrow-complex tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the synchronised cardioversion and amiodarone administration in this patient’s treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that began 2 hours ago. He reports that he first noticed the pain while lying down. The pain is rated at 7/10 in intensity and worsens with deep inspiration but improves when he leans forward. The patient has a medical history of long-standing diabetes mellitus and had a myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago, for which he underwent coronary artery bypass grafting. The surgery was uncomplicated, and he recovered without any issues. He smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes per day and does not consume alcohol. Upon auscultation of the chest, a friction rub is heard. Serum inflammatory markers are elevated, while serial troponins remain stable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dressler syndrome
Explanation:Complications of Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction can lead to various complications, including Dressler syndrome, papillary muscle rupture, ventricular aneurysm, reinfarction, and pericardial tamponade. Dressler syndrome is a delayed complication that occurs weeks after the initial infarction and is caused by autoantibodies against cardiac antigens released from necrotic myocytes. Symptoms include mild fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a friction rub. Papillary muscle rupture occurs early after a myocardial infarction and presents with acute congestive heart failure and a new murmur of mitral regurgitation. Ventricular aneurysm is characterized by paradoxical wall motion of the left ventricle and can lead to stasis and embolism. Reinfarction is less likely in a patient with atypical symptoms and no rising troponin. Pericardial tamponade is a rare complication of Dressler syndrome and would present with raised JVP and muffled heart sounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which statement about congenital heart disease is accurate?
Your Answer: Failure to thrive is often found associated with Fallot's tetralogy at under 3 months of age
Correct Answer: In Down's syndrome with an endocardial cushion defect, irreversible pulmonary hypertension occurs earlier than in children with normal chromosomes
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and their Characteristics
An endocardial cushion defect, also known as an AVSD, is the most prevalent cardiac malformation in individuals with Down Syndrome. This defect can lead to irreversible pulmonary hypertension, which is known as Eisenmenger’s syndrome. It is unclear why children with Down Syndrome tend to have more severe cardiac disease than unaffected children with the same abnormality.
ASDs, or atrial septal defects, may close on their own, and the likelihood of spontaneous closure is related to the size of the defect. If the defect is between 5-8 mm, there is an 80% chance of closure, but if it is larger than 8 mm, the chance of closure is minimal.
Tetralogy of Fallot, a cyanotic congenital heart disease, typically presents after three months of age. The murmur of VSD, or ventricular septal defect, becomes more pronounced after one month of life. Overall, the characteristics of these common congenital heart defects is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman attends a new patient health check at the General Practice surgery she has recently joined. She mentions she occasionally gets episodes of palpitations and light-headedness and has done so for several years. Her pulse is currently regular, with a rate of 70 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg. A full blood count is sent, which comes back as normal. The general practitioner requests an electrocardiogram (ECG), which shows a widened QRS complex with a slurred upstroke and a shortened PR interval.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
Explanation:Common Cardiac Conditions and Their ECG Findings
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects young people and is characterized by episodes of syncope and palpitations. It is caused by an accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles that bypasses the normal atrioventricular node. The ECG shows a slurred upstroke to the QRS complex, known as a delta wave, which reflects ventricular pre-excitation. Re-entry circuits can form, leading to tachyarrhythmias and an increased risk of ventricular fibrillation.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an inherited condition that presents in young adulthood and is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in the young. Symptoms include syncope, dyspnea, palpitations, and abnormal ECG findings, which may include conduction abnormalities, arrhythmias, left ventricular hypertrophy, and ST or T wave changes.
First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval and may be caused by medication, electrolyte imbalances, or post-myocardial infarction. It may also be a normal variant in young, healthy individuals.
Ebstein’s anomaly typically presents in childhood and young adulthood with fatigue, palpitations, cyanosis, and breathlessness on exertion. The ECG shows right bundle branch block and signs of atrial enlargement, such as tall, broad P waves.
Mobitz type II atrioventricular block is a type of second-degree heart block that is characterized by a stable PR interval with some non-conducted beats. It often progresses to complete heart block. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) block, on the other hand, is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, followed by a non-conducted beat and a reset of the PR interval back to a shorter value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath. The doctor notices that the patient’s jugular veins distend when she inspires, even while sitting upright.
Which of the following processes could explain this observation?Your Answer: The patient has constrictive pericarditis
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship between Neck Veins and Various Medical Conditions
The appearance of neck veins can provide valuable information about a patient’s health. Here are some examples of how different medical conditions can affect the appearance of neck veins:
1. Constrictive pericarditis: This condition restricts the heart’s ability to expand, leading to higher pressures within the right heart. This can cause jugular venous distension, which is more pronounced during inspiration (Kussmaul’s sign).
2. Dehydration: A decrease in intravascular blood volume can cause flattened neck veins.
3. Venous insufficiency: Incompetent venous valves can lead to venous stasis and pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This can cause syncope due to decreased venous return to the heart.
4. Budd-Chiari syndrome and hepatic vein thrombosis: These conditions involve blood clots in the hepatic vein or inferior vena cava, which prevent blood from returning to the right heart from the abdomen and lower extremities. This decreases the pressure in the right heart and allows blood to drain more easily from the jugular and neck veins, resulting in flattened neck veins.
Understanding the relationship between neck veins and various medical conditions can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset palpitation and chest pain that began 1 hour ago. The palpitation is constant and is not alleviated or aggravated by anything. She is worried that something serious is happening to her. She recently experienced conflict at home with her husband and left home the previous day to stay with her sister. She denies any medication or recreational drug use. Past medical history is unremarkable. Vital signs are within normal limits, except for a heart rate of 180 bpm. Electrocardiography shows narrow QRS complexes that are regularly spaced. There are no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage results in recovery of normal sinus rhythm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Tachycardia
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is a sudden-onset tachycardia with a heart rate of 180 bpm, regularly spaced narrow QRS complexes, and no visible P waves preceding the QRS complexes. Carotid sinus massage or adenosine administration can diagnose PSVT, which is commonly caused by atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia.
Sinus tachycardia is characterized by normal P waves preceding each QRS complex. Atrial flutter is less common than atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia and generally does not respond to carotid massage. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by irregularly spaced QRS complexes and does not respond to carotid massage. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia is associated with wide QRS complexes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Correct
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An 82-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath, tiredness, intermittent chest pain and leg swelling for the last 6 months. His past medical history includes hypertension, gout and a previous myocardial infarction 5 years ago. His current medications are as follows:
diltiazem 60 mg orally (po) twice daily (bd)
spironolactone 100 mg po once daily (od)
allopurinol 100 mg po od
paracetamol 1 g po four times daily (qds) as required (prn)
lisinopril 20 mg po od.
Given this man’s likely diagnosis, which of the above medications should be stopped?Your Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Medications for Heart Failure: Uses and Contraindications
Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can treat angina and hypertension, but it should be stopped in patients with chronic heart disease and heart failure due to its negative inotropic effects.
Spironolactone can alleviate leg swelling and is one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure, along with ACE inhibitors and β-blockers.
Allopurinol is safe to use in heart failure patients as it is used for the prevention of gout and has no detrimental effect on the heart.
Paracetamol does not affect the heart and is safe to use in heart failure patients.
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and angina, and stopping it can worsen heart failure. It is also one of the three drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure. The mechanism by which ACE inhibitors reduce mortality is not fully understood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old female with Down's syndrome presents with a systolic murmur on clinical examination. What is the most prevalent cardiac anomaly observed in individuals with Down's syndrome that could account for this murmur?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Endocardial Cushion Defects
Endocardial cushion defects, also referred to as atrioventricular (AV) canal or septal defects, are a group of abnormalities that affect the atrial septum, ventricular septum, and one or both of the AV valves. These defects occur during fetal development when the endocardial cushions, which are responsible for separating the heart chambers and forming the valves, fail to develop properly. As a result, there may be holes or gaps in the septum, or the AV valves may not close properly, leading to a mix of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart. This can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, poor growth, and heart failure. Treatment for endocardial cushion defects typically involves surgery to repair the defects and improve heart function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A foundation year 1 (FY1) doctor on the cardiology wards is teaching a group of first year medical students. She asks the students to work out the heart rate of a patient by interpreting his ECG taken during an episode of tachycardia.
What is the duration, in seconds, of one small square on an ECG?Your Answer: 0.2 seconds
Correct Answer: 0.04 seconds
Explanation:Understanding ECG Time Measurements
When reading an electrocardiogram (ECG), it is important to understand the time measurements represented on the grid paper. The horizontal axis of the ECG represents time, with each small square measuring 1 mm in length and representing 40 milliseconds (0.04 seconds). A large square on the ECG grid has a length of 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds. Five large squares covering a length of 25 mm on the grid represent 1 second of time. It is important to note that each small square has a length of 1 mm and equates to 40 milliseconds, not 4 seconds. Understanding these time measurements is crucial for accurately interpreting an ECG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 33-year-old known intravenous drug user presents to your GP clinic with complaints of fatigue, night sweats and joint pain. During the examination, you observe a new early-diastolic murmur. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Causes of Infective Endocarditis and their Characteristics
Infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. The most common causative organism of acute infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, especially in patients with risk factors such as prosthetic valves or intravenous drug use. Symptoms and signs consistent with infective endocarditis include fever, heart murmur, and arthritis, as well as pathognomonic signs like splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Roth spots, Janeway lesions, and petechiae.
Group B streptococci is less common than Staphylococcus aureus but has a high mortality rate of 70%. Streptococcus viridans is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis, but it does cause 50-60% of subacute cases. Group D streptococci is the third most common cause of infective endocarditis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not the most common cause of infective endocarditis and usually requires surgery for cure.
In summary, knowing the characteristics of the different causative organisms of infective endocarditis can help in the diagnosis and treatment of this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath on exertion, and reports that she sleeps on three pillows at night to avoid shortness of breath. Past medical history of note includes two recent transient ischaemic attacks which have resulted in transient speech disturbance and minor right arm weakness. Other non-specific symptoms include fever and gradual weight loss over the past few months. On auscultation of the heart you notice a loud first heart sound, and a plopping sound in early diastole. General examination also reveals that she is clubbed.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 6.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 101 g/dl
(normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 85 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Chest X-ray Unusual intra-cardiac calcification
within the left atrium
Which of the following fits best with the likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left atrial myxoma
Explanation:Cardiac Conditions: Differentiating Left Atrial Myxoma from Other Pathologies
Left atrial myxoma is a cardiac condition characterized by heart sounds, systemic embolization, and intracardiac calcification seen on X-ray. Echocardiography is used to confirm the diagnosis, and surgery is usually curative. However, other cardiac pathologies can present with similar symptoms, including rheumatic heart disease, mitral stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and infective endocarditis. It is important to differentiate between these conditions to provide appropriate treatment. This article discusses the key features of each pathology to aid in diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain, has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0, and the only physical finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The patient has no notable medical history.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medical cardioversion (amiodarone or flecainide)
Explanation:Management of Atrial Fibrillation: Treatment Options and Considerations
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following are the treatment options and considerations for managing AF:
Investigations for Reversible Causes
Before initiating any treatment, the patient should be investigated for reversible causes of AF, such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests (TFTs, FBC, U and Es, LFTs, and coagulation screen) and a chest X-ray should be performed.Medical Cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who present within 48 hours of the onset of AF. Amiodarone or flecainide can be used for this purpose.DC Cardioversion
DC cardioversion is indicated for haemodynamically unstable patients, including those with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. It is also appropriate if medical cardioversion fails.Anticoagulation Therapy with Warfarin
Patients who remain in persistent AF for over 48 hours should have their CHA2DS2 VASc score calculated. If the score is equal to or greater than 1 for men or equal to or greater than 2 for women, anticoagulation therapy with warfarin should be initiated.Radiofrequency Ablation
Radiofrequency ablation is not a suitable treatment for acute AF.24-Hour Three Lead ECG Tape
Sending the patient home with a 24-hour three lead ECG tape and reviewing them in one week is not necessary as the diagnosis of AF has already been established.In summary, the management of AF involves investigating for reversible causes, considering medical or DC cardioversion, initiating anticoagulation therapy with warfarin if necessary, and avoiding radiofrequency ablation for acute AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visited the dermatology clinic in the summer with a rash on his forearms, shins, and face. Which medication is most likely to be linked with this photosensitive rash?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Adverse Effects of Cardiology Drugs
Photosensitivity is a frequently observed negative reaction to certain cardiology drugs, such as amiodarone and thiazide diuretics. This means that patients taking these medications may experience an increased sensitivity to sunlight, resulting in skin rashes or other skin-related issues. Additionally, ACE inhibitors and A2RBs, which are commonly prescribed for cardiovascular conditions, have been known to cause rashes that may also be photosensitive. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and to take necessary precautions, such as wearing protective clothing and using sunscreen, when exposed to sunlight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, particularly during times of stress or physical activity. She has no significant medical history. During her neurological exam, no abnormalities are found. However, a systolic murmur is heard along the length of her left sternal edge and spine. Her chest is clear and her blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg in her left arm and 104/68 mmHg in her left leg. An ECG reveals sinus rhythm with evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta and its Interventions
Coarctation of the aorta is a condition where the aorta narrows, usually distal to the left subclavian artery. This can cause an asymptomatic difference in upper and lower body blood pressures and can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy. The severity of the restriction varies, with severe cases presenting early with cardiac failure, while less severe cases can go undiagnosed into later childhood.
Interventions for coarctation of the aorta include stenting, excision and graft placement, and using the left subclavian artery to bypass the coarctation. An atrial septal defect and hypertrophic occlusive cardiomyopathy would not cause a blood pressure difference between the upper and lower body. Stress headaches and a flow murmur are not appropriate diagnoses for a child with hypertension, which should be thoroughly investigated for an underlying cause.
In contrast, transposition of the great arteries is a major cyanotic cardiac abnormality that presents in infancy. It is important to diagnose and treat coarctation of the aorta to prevent complications such as left ventricular hypertrophy and cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syncope
Explanation:Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:
– Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
– Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
– Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
– Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
– Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with a known harsh ejection systolic murmur on cardiac examination collapses and passes away during a sporting event. His father and uncle also died suddenly in their forties. The reason for death is identified as an obstruction of the ventricular outflow tract caused by an abnormality in the ventricular septum.
What is the accurate diagnosis for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Types of Cardiomyopathy and Congenital Heart Defects
Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart diseases that affect the structure and function of the heart muscle. There are different types of cardiomyopathy, each with its own causes and symptoms. Additionally, there are congenital heart defects that can affect the heart’s structure and function from birth. Here are some of the most common types:
1. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: This is an inherited condition that causes the heart muscle to thicken, making it harder for the heart to pump blood. It can lead to sudden death in young athletes.
2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy: This is a rare form of cardiomyopathy that is caused by diseases that restrict the heart’s ability to fill with blood during diastole.
3. Dilated cardiomyopathy: This is the most common type of cardiomyopathy, which causes the heart chambers to enlarge and weaken, leading to heart failure.
4. Mitral stenosis: This is a narrowing of the mitral valve, which can impede blood flow between the left atrium and ventricle.
In addition to these types of cardiomyopathy, there are also congenital heart defects, such as ventricular septal defect, which is the most common congenital heart defect. This condition creates a direct connection between the right and left ventricles, affecting the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively.
Understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and congenital heart defects is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fatigue, it is important to seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had been hospitalized four weeks ago for acute coronary syndrome and was discharged on bisoprolol, simvastatin, aspirin, and ramipril. During the examination, a narrow complex tachycardia is observed. What is the absolute contraindication in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil and Beta Blockers: A Dangerous Combination
Verapamil is a type of medication that blocks calcium channels in the heart, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and a slower heart rate. However, it also has negative effects on the heart’s ability to contract, making it a highly negatively inotropic drug. Additionally, it may impair the conduction of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles of the heart.
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), verapamil should not be given to patients who are already taking beta blockers. This is because the combination of these two drugs can lead to dangerously low blood pressure and even asystole, a condition where the heart stops beating altogether.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to carefully consider a patient’s medication history before prescribing verapamil. If a patient is already taking beta blockers, alternative treatments should be considered to avoid the potentially life-threatening consequences of combining these two drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with palpitations, chest pain, and shortness of breath that radiates to her left arm. These symptoms began six weeks ago after she witnessed her father's death from a heart attack. Over the past decade, she has undergone various investigations for abdominal pain, headaches, joint pains, and dyspareunia, but no significant cause has been identified for these symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder
Explanation:Somatisation Disorder as the Most Likely Diagnosis
Somatisation disorder is the most probable diagnosis for the given scenario, although it lacks sufficient criteria for a complete diagnosis. This disorder is characterised by recurring pains, gastrointestinal, sexual, and pseudo-neurologic symptoms that persist for years. To meet the diagnostic criteria, the patient’s physical complaints must not be intentionally induced and must result in medical attention or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Typically, the first symptoms appear during adolescence, and the full criteria are met by the age of 30.
Among the other disorders, factitious disorder is the least likely explanation. The other three disorders are possible explanations, but they are not as likely as somatisation disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man, with a family history of ischaemic heart disease, has been diagnosed with angina. His total cholesterol level is 6.5 mmol/l. He has been prescribed a statin and given dietary advice. What dietary modification is most likely to lower his cholesterol level?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats
Explanation:Lowering Cholesterol Levels: Dietary Changes to Consider
To lower cholesterol levels, it is important to make dietary changes. One effective change is to replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats. Saturated fats increase cholesterol levels, while unsaturated fats lower them. It is recommended to reduce the percentage of daily energy intake from fat, with a focus on reducing saturated fats. Increasing intake of foods such as pulses, legumes, root vegetables, and unprocessed cereals can also help lower cholesterol. Using a margarine containing an added stanol ester can increase plant stanol intake, which can also reduce cholesterol. However, reducing intake of dairy products and meat alone may not be as effective as replacing them with beneficial unsaturated fats. It is important to avoid replacing polyunsaturated fats with saturated fats, as this can raise cholesterol levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man experienced acute kidney injury caused by rhabdomyolysis after completing his first marathon. He was started on haemodialysis due to uraemic pericarditis. What symptom or sign would indicate the presence of cardiac tamponade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Understanding Pericarditis and Related Symptoms
Pericarditis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. One of the signs of pericarditis is pulsus paradoxus, which is a drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg during inspiration. This occurs when the pericardial effusion normalizes the wall pressures across all the chambers, causing the septum to bulge into the left ventricle, reducing stroke volume and blood pressure. Pleuritic chest pain is not a common symptom of pericarditis, and confusion is not related to pericarditis or incipient tamponade. A pericardial friction rub is an audible medical sign used in the diagnosis of pericarditis, while a pericardial knock is a pulse synchronous sound that can be heard in constrictive pericarditis. Understanding these symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and management of pericarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91 mmHg on a routine medical check. Two months later, his BP was 137/89 mmHg. He leads a physically active life, despite being a heavy smoker. He is not diabetic and his cholesterol levels are low. There is no past medical history of note.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice and reassess every year
Explanation:Hypertension Management and Lifestyle Advice
Managing hypertension requires careful consideration of various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. The 2011 NICE guidelines recommend further investigation and assessment for those with a BP of 140/90 mmHg or higher and for those at high risk. Once diagnosed, lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are recommended, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.
For patients with cardiovascular risk factors, lifestyle advice and education on reducing cardiovascular risk are crucial. This includes support for smoking cessation, as smoking is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Patients with high risk, such as the elderly or heavy smokers, should be monitored annually.
While pharmacological treatment may be necessary, thiazide diuretics are no longer used first-line for hypertension management. For patients over 55, calcium channel blockers are recommended as first-line treatment. ACE inhibitors would not be used first-line in patients over 55.
In summary, managing hypertension requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. Lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are crucial for patients with hypertension, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with shortness of breath on exercise comes to the clinic some 6 months after the birth of her second child. The recent pregnancy and post-partum period were uneventful. Her general practitioner has diagnosed her with asthma and prescribed a salbutamol inhaler. On examination, she looks unwell and is slightly short of breath at rest. Her blood pressure is 150/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 24. There is mild bilateral pitting ankle oedema. Auscultation of the chest reveals no wheeze.
Investigations
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Right axis deviation,
incomplete right bundle branch block
Pulmonary artery systolic pressure 33 mmHg
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Postpartum Dyspnea: A Review
Postpartum dyspnea can be a concerning symptom for new mothers. In this case, the patient presents with dyspnea and fatigue several weeks after giving birth. The following differentials should be considered:
1. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension: This condition can present with right ventricular strain on ECG and elevated pulmonary artery systolic pressure. It is not uncommon for symptoms to develop after childbirth.
2. Dilated Cardiomyopathy: Patients with dilated cardiomyopathy may present with left bundle branch block and right axis deviation. Symptoms can develop weeks to months after giving birth.
3. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: While a possible differential, the absence of pleuritic pain and risk factors such as a raised BMI make this less likely.
4. Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM): HOCM typically presents with exertional syncope or pre-syncope and ECG changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy or asymmetrical septal hypertrophy.
5. Hypertensive Heart Disease: This condition is characterized by elevated blood pressure during pregnancy, which is not reported in this case. The patient’s symptoms are also not typical of hypertensive heart disease.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation and consideration of these differentials can aid in the diagnosis and management of postpartum dyspnea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During the physical exam, the patient exhibits a collapsing pulse. Upon auscultation, a 2/5 early diastolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal edge, which is more pronounced during expiration.
What is the most probable clinical sign that will be observed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corrigan’s sign
Explanation:Cardiac Signs and Their Associated Conditions
Corrigan’s Sign: This sign is characterized by an abrupt distension and collapse of the carotid arteries, indicating aortic incompetence. It is often seen in patients with a collapsing pulse and an early diastolic murmur, which are suggestive of aortic regurgitation. A wide pulse pressure may also be found.
Malar Flush: Mitral stenosis is associated with malar flush, a mid-diastolic murmur, loudest at the apex when the patient is in the left lateral position, and a tapping apex. A small-volume pulse is also typical.
Tapping Apex: A tapping apex is a classical sign of mitral stenosis.
Pulsatile Hepatomegaly: Severe tricuspid regurgitation can cause reverse blood flow to the liver during systole, resulting in pulsatile hepatomegaly.
Clubbing: Clubbing is more commonly seen in lung pathology and is unlikely to present in aortic regurgitation. It is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of palpitations. Upon examination, her pulse rate is found to be 180 bpm and she appears warm and well perfused. Her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on air. Chest auscultation reveals no signs of cardiac failure, but an ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia. Despite attempts at carotid massage and Valsalva manoeuvre, the rhythm disturbance persists. What is the appropriate initial management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV adenosine
Explanation:Management of Narrow Complex Supraventricular Tachycardia
When a patient presents with narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia, the initial management would be to administer IV adenosine, provided there are no contraindications such as asthma. This medication creates a transient conduction delay, which may terminate the tachycardia or slow down the heart rate enough to identify the underlying rhythm. This information is crucial in determining the optimal antiarrhythmic therapy for the patient.
However, if the patient experiences chest pain, hypotension, SBP <90 mmHg, or evidence of cardiac failure, then DC cardioversion would be necessary. It is important to note that if the patient is not haemodynamically compromised, IV adenosine is the preferred initial management for narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes in with a sudden onset of severe central chest pain that has been going on for an hour. He has no significant medical history. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 90 bpm and blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg. An electrocardiogram reveals 5 mm of ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads (V2–V4). He was given aspirin (300 mg) and diamorphine (5 mg) in the ambulance. What is the definitive treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to save the myocardium. The two main treatment options are primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and fibrinolysis. Primary PCI is the preferred option for patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset and can undergo the procedure within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given.
In addition to PCI or fibrinolysis, patients with acute MI should receive dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and a second anti-platelet drug, such as clopidogrel or ticagrelor, for up to 12 months. Patients undergoing PCI should also receive unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin, such as enoxaparin.
While glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors like tirofiban may be used to reduce the risk of immediate vascular occlusion in intermediate- and high-risk patients undergoing PCI, they are not the definitive treatment. Similarly, fibrinolysis with tissue plasminogen activator should only be given if primary PCI cannot be delivered within the recommended timeframe.
Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction to improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man passed away from a massive middle cerebral artery stroke. He had no previous medical issues. Upon autopsy, it was discovered that his heart weighed 400 g and had normal valves and coronary arteries. The atria and ventricles were not enlarged. The right ventricular walls were normal, while the left ventricular wall was uniformly hypertrophied to 20-mm thickness. What is the probable reason for these autopsy results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Differentiating Cardiac Conditions: Causes and Risks
Cardiac conditions can have varying causes and risks, making it important to differentiate between them. Essential hypertension, for example, is characterized by uniform left ventricular hypertrophy and is a major risk factor for stroke. On the other hand, atrial fibrillation is a common cause of stroke but does not cause left ventricular hypertrophy and is rarer with normal atrial size. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is more common in men and often has a familial tendency, typically causes asymmetric hypertrophy of the septum and apex and can lead to arrhythmogenic or unexplained sudden cardiac death. Dilated cardiomyopathies, such as idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, often have no clear precipitant but cause a dilated left ventricular size, increasing the risk for a mural thrombus and an embolic risk. Finally, tuberculous pericarditis is difficult to diagnose due to non-specific features such as cough, dyspnoea, sweats, and weight loss, with typical constrictive pericarditis findings being very late features with fluid overload and severe dyspnoea. Understanding the causes and risks associated with these cardiac conditions can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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