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  • Question 1 - A homeless alcoholic woman was brought to the Emergency Department by the police...

    Correct

    • A homeless alcoholic woman was brought to the Emergency Department by the police when she was found disoriented in the street. The Emergency Department recognises her as she has been brought in numerous times before. She appears malnourished and smells of alcohol. On examination, she is confused and ataxic. On eye examination, she has normal pupillary responses and a horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze.
      Which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is likely responsible for the patient’s condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamins in Alcoholism: A Brief Overview

      Alcoholism can lead to various vitamin deficiencies, which can cause serious health problems. Thiamine deficiency, also known as vitamin B1 deficiency, is common in alcoholics and can cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a medical emergency that requires urgent treatment with intravenous or intramuscular thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff’s psychosis. Prophylactic treatment with vitamin replacement regimes is important to prevent the development of these conditions. Vitamin A deficiency can cause photophobia, dry skin, and growth retardation, but it is not associated with alcohol abuse. Pellagra, characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, is caused by vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration, megaloblastic anemia, and is commonly seen in patients with pernicious anemia, malabsorption, and gastrectomy. Vitamin K deficiency may present in patients with alcoholic cirrhosis, but it will not cause the neurological findings observed in thiamine deficiency. Overall, it is important for alcohol-dependent patients to receive proper vitamin supplementation to prevent serious health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of having bowel cancer. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of having bowel cancer. She has been experiencing bloating and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 months, as well as unintentional weight loss. Her cousin was recently diagnosed with colorectal cancer, which has prompted her to seek medical attention.
      What is a red flag symptom for colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: Having a cousin with diagnosed bowel cancer

      Correct Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Red Flag Symptoms for Suspected Cancer Diagnosis

      When it comes to suspected cancer diagnosis, certain symptoms should be considered as red flags. Unintentional weight loss is one such symptom, which should be taken seriously, especially in older women. Bloating, while a general symptom, may also require further investigation if it is persistent and accompanied by abdominal distension. A family history of bowel cancer is relevant in first-degree relatives, but a diagnosis in a cousin may not be significant. Abdominal pain is a non-specific symptom, but if accompanied by other signs like weight loss and altered bowel habits, it may be a red flag. Finally, persistent abdominal distension in women over 50 should be investigated further to rule out ovarian malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple gallstones is presenting with jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple gallstones is presenting with jaundice due to a common bile duct obstruction caused by a large stone. What biochemical abnormalities are expected to be observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Decreased bilirubin in the urine

      Correct Answer: Decreased stercobilin in the stool

      Explanation:

      Effects of Biliary Tree Obstruction on Bilirubin Metabolism

      Biliary tree obstruction can have various effects on bilirubin metabolism. One of the consequences is a decrease in stercobilin in the stool, which can lead to clay-colored stools. Additionally, there is an increase in urobilinogen in the urine due to less bilirubin in the intestine. However, there is a decrease in urobilinogen in the urine due to reduced excretion. The plasma bilirubin level is increased, leading to jaundice. Finally, there is an increase in plasma conjugated bilirubin, which is water-soluble and can be excreted by the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old diabetic woman presents with malaise to her general practitioner (GP). Her...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old diabetic woman presents with malaise to her general practitioner (GP). Her GP takes liver function tests (LFTs): bilirubin 41 μmol/l, AST 46 iu/l, ALT 56 iu/l, GGT 241 iu/l, ALP 198 iu/l. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there are no palpable masses or organomegaly. What is the next best investigation?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of the abdomen

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Obstructive Jaundice

      Obstructive jaundice can be caused by various conditions, including gallstones, pancreatic cancer, and autoimmune liver diseases like PSC or PBC. An obstructive/cholestatic picture is indicated by raised ALP and GGT levels compared to AST or ALT. The first-line investigation for obstruction is an ultrasound of the abdomen, which is cheap, simple, non-invasive, and readily available. It can detect intra- or extrahepatic duct dilation, liver size, shape, consistency, gallstones, and neoplasia in the pancreas. An autoantibody screen may help narrow down potential diagnoses, but an ultrasound provides more information. A CT scan may be requested after ultrasound to provide a more detailed anatomical picture. ERCP is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for biliary obstruction, but it has complications and risks associated with sedation. The PABA test is used to diagnose pancreatic insufficiency, which can cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, or diabetes mellitus.

      Investigating Obstructive Jaundice

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a few months history of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a few months history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. Further questioning reveals increasing episodes of facial flushing and occasional wheeze. Clinical examination reveals irregular, craggy hepatomegaly. Abdominal CT is performed which revealed nonspecific thickening of a terminal small bowel loop, a large calcified lesion in the small bowel mesentery and innumerable lesions in the liver.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Whipple’s disease

      Correct Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carcinoid Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis

      Carcinoid syndrome is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes serotonin and is commonly found in the terminal ileum. While the primary tumor is often asymptomatic, metastasis can lead to symptoms such as diarrhea, facial flushing, and bronchospasm. Abdominal pain may also be present due to liver and mesenteric metastases. Diagnosis is made through biopsy or finding elevated levels of 5-HIAA in urine. Treatment options include surgery, chemotherapy, and somatostatin analogues like octreotide.

      Whipple’s disease presents with diarrhea, weight loss, and migratory arthritis, typically affecting the duodenum. Yersinia ileitis and tuberculosis both affect the terminal ileum and cause diarrhea and thickening of small bowel loops on CT, but do not match the symptoms and imaging findings described in the case of carcinoid syndrome. Normal menopause is also not a likely diagnosis based on the patient’s history and imaging results. A thorough differential diagnosis is important in accurately identifying and treating carcinoid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. He is treated with appropriate eradication therapy and advised to follow up with his general practitioner for testing of eradication.
      What would be the most suitable method for testing eradication in this patient?

      Your Answer: Helicobacter immunoassay on a stool sample

      Correct Answer: The 13C urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Methods for Detecting and Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection

      There are several methods available for detecting and confirming eradication of H. pylori infection. Serologic testing for antibodies to H. pylori in the blood or saliva is a cheap and simple initial detection method with high sensitivity and specificity. However, it is not useful for follow-up as patients may continue to have antibodies for several months after eradication therapy. Stool sample analysis may also be used for initial detection, but the 13C urea breath test is currently the only recommended method for confirming eradication following treatment. Histological examination of tissue biopsy samples is an invasive procedure and not recommended for eradication testing. The CLO test, which is carried out on biopsied tissue at endoscopy, can provide immediate results but is also an invasive procedure and not appropriate for confirming eradication. Overall, the 13C urea breath test is the most reliable method for confirming eradication of H. pylori infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on the roadside in this state and brought to the Emergency Department. He had a strong smell of alcohol and was also found to be icteric. Ascites and gynaecomastia were clinically present. The following morning during examination, he was lying still in bed without interest in his surroundings. He was able to report his name and occupation promptly but continued to insist that it was midnight. He was cooperative during physical examination, but once the attending doctor pressed his abdomen, he swore loudly, despite being known as a generally gentle person. What is the grading of hepatic encephalopathy for this patient?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the West Haven Criteria for Hepatic Encephalopathy

      The West Haven Criteria is a scoring system used to assess the severity of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition where the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood, leading to brain dysfunction. The criteria range from 0 to 4, with higher scores indicating more severe symptoms.

      A score of 0 indicates normal mental status with minimal changes in memory, concentration, intellectual function, and coordination. This is also known as minimal hepatic encephalopathy.

      A score of 1 indicates mild confusion, euphoria or depression, decreased attention, slowing of mental tasks, irritability, and sleep pattern disorders such as an inverted sleep cycle.

      A score of 2 indicates drowsiness, lethargy, gross deficits in mental tasks, personality changes, inappropriate behavior, and intermittent disorientation.

      A score of 3 presents with somnolence but rousability, inability to perform mental tasks, disorientation to time and place, marked confusion, amnesia, occasional fits of rage, and speech that is present but incomprehensible.

      A score of 4 indicates coma with or without response to painful stimuli.

      Understanding the West Haven Criteria is important in diagnosing and managing hepatic encephalopathy, as it helps healthcare professionals determine the severity of the condition and develop appropriate treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old student presents to the University Health Service with jaundice. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to the University Health Service with jaundice. He had been to a party three nights earlier and since then has been laid up in bed with flu-like symptoms. On examination, he has mild jaundice, but otherwise the examination is normal.
      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 62 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 21 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Acute ethanol poisoning

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gilbert’s Syndrome and Its Differential Diagnosis

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the conjugation of bilirubin due to a defect in the bilirubin-uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucuronyl transferase enzyme. This results in an isolated rise in bilirubin levels during times of stress, fatigue, or viral illness. A 48-hour fast can confirm the diagnosis if it is unclear. The condition is benign and does not require specific treatment.

      Crigler-Najjar syndrome is another condition that affects UDP glucuronyl transferase, but it presents with jaundice and typically results in death during the neonatal period.

      Cholecystitis causes right upper quadrant abdominal pain and fever but does not typically result in jaundice. Acute ethanol poisoning can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, but the mild jaundice and overall well-being of the patient are more consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Viral hepatitis can also cause jaundice, but the clinical picture is more in line with Gilbert’s syndrome. Understanding the differential diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (2/8) 25%
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