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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old individual who has been struggling with opioid addiction is experiencing symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old individual who has been struggling with opioid addiction is experiencing symptoms of opioid dependence. What electroencephalographic alterations are commonly observed in cases of opioid dependence?

      Your Answer: Diffuse slowing of delta and theta waves

      Correct Answer: Decreased alpha activity

      Explanation:

      Opioid dependence is characterized by a decrease in alpha activity on electroencephalography (EEG). Other drugs have distinct EEG changes, such as increased beta activity with benzodiazepines, decreased alpha activity and increased theta activity with alcohol, and increased beta activity with barbiturates. Marijuana use is associated with increased alpha activity in the frontal area of the brain and overall slow alpha activity. During opioid overdose, slow waves may be observed on EEG, while barbiturate withdrawal may result in generalized paroxysmal activity and spike discharges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?

      Your Answer: Displacement

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Projection is classified as an underdeveloped defense mechanism, as it is considered immature. Freud proposed the idea that defenses evolve along a spectrum of personality growth. As an illustration, as time passes and the connections between the frontal lobe and the limbic system continue to myelinate, the defense mechanism commonly seen in adolescence, acting out (such as impulsive and momentarily soothing outbursts), may give rise to reaction formation and potentially even altruism in the future.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which condition is most likely to be associated with diffuse delta and theta...

    Correct

    • Which condition is most likely to be associated with diffuse delta and theta waves on an EEG?

      Your Answer: Metabolic encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Delta waves are typically observed during stages III and IV of deep sleep and their presence outside of these stages can indicate diffuse slowing and encephalopathy.

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for? ...

    Correct

    • What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for?

      Your Answer: RR interval

      Explanation:

      The Bazett formula adjusts the QT interval for heart rate by taking the square root of the R-R interval and dividing the QT interval by it.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which cognitive function is primarily evaluated by the task of copying intersecting pentagons...

    Correct

    • Which cognitive function is primarily evaluated by the task of copying intersecting pentagons in the MMSE?

      Your Answer: Constructional apraxia

      Explanation:

      The primary purpose of intersecting pentagons is to evaluate constructional apraxia, with attention being a secondary factor.

      Apraxia: Understanding the Inability to Carry Out Learned Voluntary Movements

      Apraxia is a neurological condition that affects a person’s ability to carry out learned voluntary movements. It is important to note that this condition assumes that everything works and the person is not paralyzed. There are different types of apraxia, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics.

      Limb kinetic apraxia is a type of apraxia that affects a person’s ability to make fine of delicate movements. This can include tasks such as buttoning a shirt of tying shoelaces.

      Ideomotor apraxia, on the other hand, is an inability to carry out learned tasks when given the necessary objects. For example, a person with ideomotor apraxia may try to write with a hairbrush instead of using it to brush their hair.

      Constructional apraxia affects a person’s ability to copy a picture of combine parts of something to form a whole. This can include tasks such as building a puzzle of drawing a picture.

      Ideational apraxia is an inability to follow a sequence of actions in the correct order. For example, a person with ideational apraxia may struggle to take a match out of a box and strike it with their left hand.

      Finally, oculomotor apraxia affects a person’s ability to control eye movements. This can make it difficult for them to track moving objects of read smoothly.

      Overall, apraxia can have a significant impact on a person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks. However, with the right support and treatment, many people with apraxia are able to improve their abilities and maintain their independence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which attachment theorist differentiated between deprivation and privation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which attachment theorist differentiated between deprivation and privation?

      Your Answer: Ainsworth

      Correct Answer: Spitz

      Explanation:

      René Spitz’s Study on Anaclitic Depression in Children

      René Spitz conducted a study on children who were deprived of their primary caregiver and found that they experienced a type of depression known as anaclitic depression. This type of depression is characterized by a lack of interest in the environment, a decrease in physical activity, and a failure to thrive. Spitz’s study highlights the importance of a primary caregiver in a child’s development and the negative effects of deprivation on their emotional and physical well-being. The study emphasizes the need for children to form secure attachments with their caregivers to promote healthy development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      15.3
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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a potassium reading of 3.1 mmol/L. As there is no apparent cause, you schedule an appointment to conduct a thorough assessment. During the history-taking, you discover that he experiences strong cravings to consume large amounts of food and frequently engages in binge eating. He then takes laxatives but denies inducing vomiting. These episodes occur approximately three times per week, and his body mass index is 19.5 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa

      Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement. In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely. A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

      Paragraph spacing:

      Bulimia nervosa is the likely diagnosis for the patient, given her recurrent binges and use of laxatives to compensate for them. The DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa require that these features occur more than twice weekly for three months. Weight loss is not a diagnostic requirement.

      In both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, self-worth is judged largely of exclusively in terms of shape and weight, and obtaining a reliable dietary history from the patient is unlikely.

      A key feature of bulimia nervosa is a feeling of loss of control during binge eating episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which researcher proved that the capacity of short-term memory is restricted to seven...

    Incorrect

    • Which researcher proved that the capacity of short-term memory is restricted to seven chunks of data?

      Your Answer: Atkinson and Shiffrin

      Correct Answer: Ebbinghaus

      Explanation:

      In 1913, Ebbinghaus found that short-term memory had a limit of seven (+/- two) ‘chunks’ of information, which was later supported by George Miller in 1956 and is now known as Miller’s law. Atkinson and Shiffrin proposed a two-part memory store, one for current information and one for long-term storage. Baddely and Hitch suggested replacing short-term memory with working memory, which includes central executive, articulatory (phonological) loop, and visuospatial scratch pad functions. According to Lloyd, less than one hundredth of the information sensed by humans reaches the short-term memory store. Solso proposed passive decay theory to explain the forgetting of long-term memory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20 month old child would be expected to be in which of...

    Correct

    • A 20 month old child would be expected to be in which of the following stages of psychosexual development?

      Your Answer: Anal

      Explanation:

      Psychosexual Development

      The psychosexual theory of development, developed by Freud, outlines a number of stages that individuals go through in their development. These stages are quite complex, but tend to come up in exams. The stages include the oral stage, which occurs from birth to 18 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through sucking, swallowing, and biting. The anal stage occurs from 18 to 36 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through bowel and bladder elimination and retention. The phallic stage occurs from 3 to 5 years, where boys pass through the Oedipal complex and girls the Electra complex. Girls are also said to develop penis envy in this stage. The latency stage occurs from 5 to puberty, where the sexual drive remains latent. Finally, the genital stage occurs from puberty to adulthood, where a person achieves independence from their parents and forms intimate relationships with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What test can be used to detect constructional apraxia? ...

    Correct

    • What test can be used to detect constructional apraxia?

      Your Answer: Clock drawing test

      Explanation:

      Individuals with constructional apraxia are unable to replicate drawings of arrange objects to create patterns of designs.

      Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction

      The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.

      The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.

      The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is a typical adverse effect associated with the use of carbamazepine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a typical adverse effect associated with the use of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Diplopia

      Explanation:

      Diplopia is a frequently occurring side-effect, while the other options are infrequent of extremely infrequent side-effects of carbamazepine.

      Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects

      Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.

      Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.

      In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Can excessive alcohol consumption lead to a decrease in white blood cell count?...

    Correct

    • Can excessive alcohol consumption lead to a decrease in white blood cell count?

      Your Answer: WBC

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Dependence Blood Profile

      Alcohol dependence can have a significant impact on an individual’s blood profile. Several markers tend to be elevated in individuals with alcohol dependence, including GGT, AST, MCV, and ALT. Among these markers, GGT is considered the most reliable indicator of recent alcohol use. This means that elevated levels of GGT in the blood can suggest that an individual has consumed alcohol recently.

      It is important to note that these blood markers may not be elevated in all individuals with alcohol dependence, and other factors can also contribute to changes in blood profile. However, monitoring these markers can be useful in assessing an individual’s alcohol use and identifying potential health risks associated with alcohol dependence. Healthcare professionals can use this information to develop appropriate treatment plans and support individuals in managing their alcohol use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What factor increases the risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What factor increases the risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer: Having Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      The use of dopaminergic drugs in individuals with Parkinson’s disease increases their susceptibility to NMS. NMS is more likely to develop when there is a modification in the dosage of dopaminergic and antipsychotic medications. While it is possible, NMS does not typically arise without the administration of dopamine-affecting drugs.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42 year old, overweight woman presents with recurring episodes of one-sided vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old, overweight woman presents with recurring episodes of one-sided vision loss accompanied by pain over the last 24 months. She is curious if her use of fluoxetine, which you prescribed for her depression, could be a contributing factor. What is your primary suspicion regarding her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Endophthalmitis

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced by the woman are most indicative of optic neuritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve where it connects to the eye. This typically results in temporary loss of vision in one eye, accompanied by pain during eye movement. Optic neuritis is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. It is unlikely that the woman is experiencing an arterial occlusion, as this would cause permanent and painless vision loss. A pituitary adenoma would affect both eyes and result in permanent vision loss. The possibility of a somatoform disorder is unlikely, as the women’s symptoms align with a recognized medical diagnosis. Endophthalmitis is a serious condition that can cause permanent vision loss and requires immediate medical attention.

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      73.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A teenager has stopped smoking and instead started using an e-cigarette. They are...

    Correct

    • A teenager has stopped smoking and instead started using an e-cigarette. They are initially pleased about this change but then are told that e-cigarettes also pose a risk to their health. They continue to smoke e-cigarettes but feel upset about the possible health risks. They then decide to stop smoking and immediately feel better.

      Which of the following is illustrated by this teenager's experience?

      Your Answer: Cognitive dissonance

      Explanation:

      Chunking is a strategy that involves dividing complex tasks into smaller, more manageable chunks of subtasks. This approach can help alleviate unpleasant feelings that arise when faced with a task that seems overwhelming of difficult to complete.

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement about variant CJD is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about variant CJD is accurate?

      Your Answer: Biphasic and triphasic waves are commonly seen on the EEG

      Correct Answer: It is associated with the pulvinar sign on the MRI

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.

      vCJD:
      – Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
      – Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
      – MRI shows pulvinar sign
      – EEG shows generalized slowing
      – Originates from infected meat products
      – Affects younger people (age 25-30)

      CJD:
      – Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
      – Presents with neurological symptoms
      – MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
      – EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
      – Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
      – Affects older people (age 55-65)

      Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In dementia pugilistica, which structure is commonly found to be abnormal? ...

    Incorrect

    • In dementia pugilistica, which structure is commonly found to be abnormal?

      Your Answer: Arcuate fasciculus

      Correct Answer: Septum pellucidum

      Explanation:

      A fenestrated cavum septum pellucidum is linked to dementia pugilistica.

      Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma

      Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.

      Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.

      Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.

      While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      20.1
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  • Question 18 - What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI? ...

    Correct

    • What is the antidepressant classification of a SARI?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - How do mental health services contribute to social inclusion? ...

    Correct

    • How do mental health services contribute to social inclusion?

      Your Answer: Consult service users and carers about how to provide services

      Explanation:

      1. Social inclusion is a key goal of mental health policy in the UK and Europe.
      2. Achieving social inclusion requires significant social change.
      3. Mental health services can promote social inclusion in certain circumstances.
      4. Consulting with service users and carers is one strategy to promote social inclusion in psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      21.3
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  • Question 20 - What is a true statement about amnesia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about amnesia?

      Your Answer: In anterograde amnesia, long-term memories before the amnesia remain intact

      Explanation:

      Long-term memories prior to anterograde amnesia are unaffected, as the condition only affects the formation of new memories. Unfortunately, amnesia cannot be treated as it involves damage to neurons. Lacunar amnesia refers to the loss of memory for a specific event, with the term lacuna meaning a gap of missing part in Latin. Retrograde amnesia typically involves damage to structures in the medial temporal lobe, such as the hippocampus, rather than the cerebellum. Source amnesia is characterized by the inability to recall the context in which previously learned information was acquired, while still retaining the factual knowledge.

      Understanding Amnesia: Types and Causes

      Amnesia is a memory deficit that can be categorized into two types: anterograde and retrograde. Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to create new memories, while retrograde amnesia refers to the loss of memory for information acquired before the onset of amnesia. The damage to the hippocampus and medial temporal lobe is often associated with amnesia. Source amnesia is the inability to remember where of how previously learned information was acquired. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, while semantic amnesia affects semantic memory and language use. Transient global amnesia is a condition that affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours, with no clear cause identified. Understanding the types and causes of amnesia can help in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 21 - How can the cognitive aspect of social capital be defined? ...

    Correct

    • How can the cognitive aspect of social capital be defined?

      Your Answer: Values

      Explanation:

      Social Capital: An Explanation for Inequalities in Morbidity and Mortality

      The concept of social capital may provide insight into the observed disparities in morbidity and mortality based on occupational social class and material standard of living (McKenzie 2002). Social capital is considered the binding force of society, and it is believed that groups lacking in social capital may be at higher risk for mental illness.

      Social capital is defined as the features of social life – networks, norms, and trust – that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives (Putnam, 1996). It is a characteristic of groups rather than individuals and can be divided into structural and cognitive components. Structural social capital includes roles, rules, behaviors, networks, and institutions that bond individuals in groups, bridge divides between societal groups, of vertically integrate groups with different levels of power and influence in a society, leading to social inclusion. Cognitive social capital refers to the values, attitudes, and beliefs that produce cooperative behavior (Colletta & Cullen, 2000).

      In summary, social capital may offer an explanation for the observed inequalities in morbidity and mortality by occupational social class and material standard of living. It is a property of groups and can be broken down into structural and cognitive components.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      16.9
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  • Question 22 - What is the structure that separates the frontal and parietal lobes above from...

    Incorrect

    • What is the structure that separates the frontal and parietal lobes above from the temporal lobe below?

      Your Answer: The postcentral sulcus

      Correct Answer: The Sylvian fissure

      Explanation:

      Gross Anatomy

      The brain is divided into different lobes and regions by the many fissures of grooves on its surface. It is important to be aware of some anatomical landmarks such as the medial longitudinal fissure, which separates the brain into the right and left hemispheres. Another important landmark is the lateral sulcus of the Sylvian fissure, which divides the frontal and parietal lobes above from the temporal lobe below. Additionally, the central sulcus of the fissure of Rolando separates the frontal from the parietal lobe. Understanding these anatomical landmarks is crucial in identifying and locating different areas of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In an elderly patient with decreased kidney function, which substance is most likely...

    Incorrect

    • In an elderly patient with decreased kidney function, which substance is most likely to build up in their body?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Patients with renal impairment should avoid taking amisulpride and sulpiride. This is because amisulpride is eliminated through the kidneys, and in cases of renal insufficiency, the dosage should be reduced, and intermittent treatment should be considered.

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What traits of conditions can be passed down through autosomal dominant inheritance? ...

    Incorrect

    • What traits of conditions can be passed down through autosomal dominant inheritance?

      Your Answer: Sanfilippo disease

      Correct Answer: Velocardiofacial syndrome

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns and Examples

      Autosomal Dominant:
      Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.

      Autosomal Recessive:
      Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Dominant:
      Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Recessive:
      Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.

      Mitochondrial:
      Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Select the correct order of the phases in the cell cycle: ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct order of the phases in the cell cycle:

      Your Answer: Mitosis, G2, G1, S phase

      Correct Answer: G1, S phase, G2, mitosis

      Explanation:

      Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division

      Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.

      During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.

      In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.

      Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What proportion of individuals who experience suicidal thoughts progress to making a plan...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of individuals who experience suicidal thoughts progress to making a plan and attempting suicide within the initial year of onset?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Correct Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      In a survey conducted by Nock et al.1, which involved interviewing more than 80,000 individuals across 17 countries regarding suicidal behaviors, it was discovered that 60% of individuals who transitioned from suicidal ideation to planning and attempting suicide did so within the first year of experiencing ideation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is a true statement about serotonin syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about serotonin syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypertonia is a characteristic finding

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Can you provide an example of a personality test that is objective? ...

    Incorrect

    • Can you provide an example of a personality test that is objective?

      Your Answer: Sentence completion tests

      Correct Answer: Esyenck personality test

      Explanation:

      Personality Testing

      There are two main types of personality tests: projective and objective. Projective tests aim to assess unconscious material by presenting subjects with ambiguous pictures of phrases to elicit an unconscious response. Examples of projective tests include the Rorschach Inkblot, Thematic Apperception Test, Draw-A-Person test, and sentence completion tests. On the other hand, objective tests have structured and clear questions and aims. Examples of objective tests include the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF), NEO Personality Inventory, and Eysenck Personality Test (EPQ).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined?

      Your Answer: Antagonism

      Correct Answer: Enzyme induction

      Explanation:

      Allosteric modulators bind to different sites on the receptor than the probe molecules (such as agonists of radioligands), and can alter the way they interact. This can lead to modifications in the effectiveness and/of strength of agonists.

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A sequence of three nucleotides is referred to as: ...

    Incorrect

    • A sequence of three nucleotides is referred to as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Codon

      Explanation:

      Codons and Amino Acids

      Codons are made up of three bases and each codon codes for an amino acid. There are 64 different triplet sequences, with three of them indicating the end of the polypeptide chain. The start codon always has the code AUG in mRNA and codes for the amino acid methionine. This leaves 61 codons that code for a total of 20 different amino acids. As a result, most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which can form short polymer chains called peptides of longer chains called polypeptides of proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (2/7) 29%
Classification And Assessment (2/3) 67%
Psychopharmacology (6/7) 86%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
Diagnosis (1/1) 100%
Basic Psychological Processes (0/1) 0%
Psychological Development (1/1) 100%
Social Psychology (3/3) 100%
Stigma And Culture (1/1) 100%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
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