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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes it has been present for around 18 months, but it is getting worse. He also reports experiencing chest discomfort, coughing at night, and waking up with undigested food on his pillow in the morning.
      During the examination, his throat, neck, chest, and abdomen appear normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pharyngeal pouch

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of achalasia, which is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax, leading to a functional stricture. This can cause substernal cramps, regurgitation, and pulmonary aspiration due to the retention of food and saliva in the oesophagus, resulting in a nocturnal cough. Diagnosis is made using a barium swallow, and treatment involves endoscopic balloon dilation or cardiomyotomy. Barrett’s oesophagus, motor neurone disease, oesophageal carcinoma, and pharyngeal pouch are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of painful swelling on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of painful swelling on the side of his anus that has been present for 10 days. Upon perianal examination, there is an inflamed, tender swelling that extends 12 cm lateral to the anus. Due to pain, a digital rectal examination was not performed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perianal abscess

      Correct Answer: Ischiorectal abscess

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Anorectal Conditions: Ischiorectal Abscess, Rectocele, Inflamed Anal Skin Tag, Perianal Abscess, and Pilonidal Abscess

      An ischiorectal abscess is a deeper and larger abscess that is further from the anus. It presents as a deep, tender swelling and may not have external signs until late. When it discharges, it does so through an external opening that is typically more than 5 cm from the anus.

      A rectocele is a prolapse of the wall between the rectum and the vagina and is not usually painful. It is not present in male patients.

      An anal skin tag is a fibro-epithelial polyp that hangs off the skin around the outside of the anus. It may become infected and inflamed, but it would not extend 12 cm from the anus.

      A perianal abscess is a simple anorectal abscess that arises from glandular crypts in the anus or rectum. It presents as a red, tender swelling close to the anus.

      A pilonidal abscess presents as a painful, tender lump in the natal cleft, which may be fluctuant and have a purulent discharge. It may also have accompanying cellulitis. However, the location described here is not consistent with a pilonidal abscess.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics and locations of different anorectal conditions can aid in their differentiation and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following a recent weaning off of high dose steroids. After two weeks, he experiences intense discomfort in his epigastrium and upper right quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Flare in ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      When it comes to the risk of pancreatitis, mesalazine is more likely to cause it than sulfasalazine. Although oral aminosalicylates can cause gastric side-effects such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and colitis exacerbation, acute pancreatitis is a rare but possible complication.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old woman has acute pancreatitis.

    Which one of the following is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has acute pancreatitis.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pancreatitis: Gallstones and Alcohol

      Pancreatitis is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol. Gallstones are the most frequent cause, while alcohol is the second most common. Other causes of pancreatitis are less common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man typically takes his medication without water. He reports experiencing pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man typically takes his medication without water. He reports experiencing pain in his lower sternum when swallowing.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline-Induced Oesophagal Ulcer: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention

      Doxycycline-induced oesophagal ulcer is a condition that affects mostly young people with no history of oesophagal dysfunction. The most common symptoms include heartburn, midsternal pain, and dysphagia. Fortunately, the symptoms usually resolve within a few days of stopping doxycycline. However, in severe cases, complete recovery may take longer than two weeks.

      To minimize the risk of oesophagitis, it is best to take doxycycline with a meal. Alternatively, it can be taken with a large glass of water or other fluid, and the patient should then remain upright for at least 30 minutes. It is also worth noting that doxycycline can be taken with food with minimal effect on absorption.

      It is important to be aware that other drugs can cause oesophagitis, including other tetracyclines, clindamycin, potassium chloride, bisphosphonates, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Therefore, it is crucial to consult a healthcare professional before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 35 year-old woman schedules a consultation to address her suspected food intolerance....

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year-old woman schedules a consultation to address her suspected food intolerance. She suspects she may have a wheat allergy and has noticed that her symptoms of bloating and diarrhea have improved in recent months by following a gluten-free diet. What guidance should the GP provide?

      Your Answer: Continue gluten-free diet

      Correct Answer: Resume eating gluten, bloods for coeliac screen

      Explanation:

      To accurately test for coeliac disease, patients must consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks before undergoing the first-line test, which involves measuring serum total immunoglobulin A (IgA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) levels. Failure to consume gluten prior to the test may result in a false negative result. If a patient refuses to consume gluten, they should be referred to a Gastroenterologist, but it should be noted that even an endoscopy and biopsy may yield a negative result if gluten has been excluded from the diet.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite ongoing lifestyle interventions and trials of orlistat and sibutramine he has failed to lose a significant amount of weight. He is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension but a recent fasting glucose was normal. For this patient, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) that would trigger a referral for consideration of bariatric surgery?

      Your Answer: BMI > 40 kg/m^2

      Correct Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2

      Explanation:

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - You are evaluating a patient who has come back to see you for...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient who has come back to see you for the results of some recent blood tests. Three months ago, she had a liver function test that revealed a bilirubin of 42 µmol/L (normal range 3-20). A repeat liver function test conducted last week has shown the same outcome. The rest of her liver profile is within normal limits.

      She is otherwise healthy and not taking any regular medication. She is not overweight, drinks alcohol only occasionally, and clinical examination is normal with no signs of liver disease. She is asymptomatic. Full blood count, renal function, thyroid function, fasting glucose, and fasting lipids are all within normal limits.

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Request blood tests for reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, haptoglobin and a blood film

      Correct Answer: No further action needed. Reassure the patient as the result is stable and the other tests are normal.

      Explanation:

      Management of Isolated Slightly Raised Bilirubin Level

      When a patient presents with an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is asymptomatic, the next step is to confirm the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If the unconjugated bilirubin is greater than 70%, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome. However, if the bilirubin level is almost twice the upper limit of normal, confirmed on interval testing, further investigation is necessary.

      If the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to monitor the bilirubin level and investigate further if necessary to ensure proper management of the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?

      Your Answer: Perifollicular haemorrhages and hyperkeratosis

      Correct Answer: Paraesthesia and ataxia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin C Deficiency and Scurvy

      Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. A deficiency of ascorbic acid can lead to scurvy, a condition characterized by inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and other symptoms. Cutaneous findings of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.

      It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be associated with thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon in the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. Measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell can confirm the diagnosis of scurvy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has visited the surgery on several occasions over the preceding 12 months complaining of abdominal pain. She was initially treated with PPI, but on her most recent review one of your colleagues felt that she had IBS and gave her an antispasmodic.

      Unfortunately, her pain persists and is continuous. Her appetite is poor since starting the antispasmodic and she is complaining that she is putting on weight because she is having difficulty doing up her skirt. On further questioning, she has been slightly constipated in recent months and passing urine more frequently.

      Her mother and sister died of breast cancer aged 52 and 43 respectively and many family members have had renal calculi.

      On examination, she appears anxious but there is no clinical evidence of anaemia or jaundice. She weighs 66 kg but there are no previous recordings for comparison. Her abdomen is soft and there are no masses. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa and suprapubic area. Rectal examination is normal.

      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Check her full blood count and TTG antibodies, then refer for abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Dipstick her urine and refer for renal ultrasound if positive for blood

      Explanation:

      Detecting Ovarian Cancer: A Challenging Diagnosis

      Detecting ovarian cancer can be a challenging diagnosis as the symptoms are often vague, especially in the early stages of the disease. However, there are certain risk factors and cardinal symptoms that can help in identifying the disease. Women with a family history of breast cancer, carriers of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene, and Polish women are at an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Patients presenting with persistent bloating, abdominal or pelvic pain, and difficulty in eating or fullness after eating small quantities of food should be evaluated for ovarian cancer.

      NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer occurring more than 12 times a month or for more than a month should be offered CA125 testing. If the CA125 is 35 IU/mL or greater, an urgent ultrasound scan of the pelvis should be arranged. Therefore, performing a pelvic examination and arranging testing for CA125 is the most appropriate way forward for patients with symptoms suggestive of ovarian cancer. Early detection and prompt treatment can improve the prognosis of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. His medical history includes a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. His medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in his early adulthood. He currently takes mebeverine 135 mg TDS and loperamide 2 mg PRN for symptom relief. He reports intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and periodic bouts of diarrhea. His latest blood tests, done as part of his diabetic annual review, show a mild microcytic anemia and a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP. He has no new symptoms and follows a normal diet. On examination, there are no focal abnormalities. He is interested in trying a gluten-free diet as his mother found it helpful for her IBS. What advice should be given regarding testing for coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: Prior to testing the patient should ideally follow a normal diet containing gluten for at least six weeks

      Correct Answer: Serological testing can be carried out appropriately at any time regardless of a person's dietary intake of gluten

      Explanation:

      Testing for Coeliac Disease

      Accuracy of testing for coeliac disease is dependent on the person following a gluten-containing diet. For at least six weeks prior to testing, a person should follow a normal diet containing gluten in more than one meal a day. This is the case for both serological and histological testing. If a diagnosis of coeliac disease is suspected and the person is reluctant to include or reintroduce gluten in their diet prior to any testing, then they should be referred to a gastrointestinal specialist.

      Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to indicate whether further investigation is needed. A positive test should prompt referral to a gastrointestinal specialist for intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. When serology is requested, the preferred first choice test is currently IgA transglutaminase (tTGA). If the result is equivocal, IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) testing can be used.

      IgA deficiency can lead to false negative results, so IgA deficiency should be ruled out if serology is negative. IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA serology can be used in those with confirmed IgA deficiency. Human leucocyte antigen (HLA) DQ2/DQ8 testing may be considered by gastrointestinal specialists in specific clinical situations; however, it doesn’t have a role in the initial testing for coeliac disease.

      It should be borne in mind that if serological testing is negative but there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease, then referral to a gastrointestinal specialist should be offered as serological tests are not 100% accurate. A clinical response to gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease. For example, some patients with irritable bowel syndrome may be gluten sensitive but not have coeliac disease. Implications of a positive test should be discussed prior to serological testing being performed, including the nature of the further investigations needed and the implications for other family members should the test be positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-week history of intermittent rectal bleeding. She says she doesn't usually look but has noticed blood within her stools on several occasions over the past few weeks. She is a non-smoker and is normally fit and well, with no significant family history or past medical history. A diagnosis of colonic carcinoma is suspected.
      Which of the following presenting symptoms would most support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Macrocytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Possible Underlying Pathologies: A Case Study

      Abdominal pain, abdominal bloating, alternating diarrhea and constipation, macrocytic anemia, and mucous per rectum are all symptoms that can indicate different underlying pathologies. In the case of a patient under 50 years old presenting with rectal bleeding, abdominal pain may suggest a more serious underlying pathology, such as colorectal cancer. According to NICE guidance, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered in such cases. Abdominal bloating, on the other hand, is more likely to be a symptom of irritable bowel disease. Alternating diarrhea and constipation, as well as mucous per rectum, are indicators of functional bowel disorders, such as irritable bowel syndrome. Finally, macrocytic anemia, while not associated with colorectal cancer, may warrant further investigation if found. Understanding the different symptoms and their possible underlying pathologies is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner after being discharged from the hospital...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner after being discharged from the hospital three days ago. She underwent a cholecystectomy but had to stay longer due to a chest infection that required treatment. She is now experiencing watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramping pain, and mild lower abdominal tenderness.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clostridioides difficile-associated colitis

      Explanation:

      Clostridioides difficile-Associated Colitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options

      Clostridioides difficile-associated colitis is a condition that should be suspected in patients with diarrhoea who have received antibiotics within the previous three months, have recently been in hospital, and/or have an occurrence of diarrhoea 48 hours or more after discharge from the hospital. Although cases can also occur in the community without a history of hospitalisation, the primary risk factor is a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon by exposure to antibiotics. The release of toxins causes mucosal inflammation and damage, leading to diarrhoea. While most patients develop diarrhoea during or shortly after starting antibiotics, some may not become symptomatic for up to ten weeks after antibiotics.

      Therapy for non-severe infection consists of oral vancomycin or fidaxomcyin as a second-line option. Ceasing the causative antibiotic (if possible) will result in resolution in approximately three days in about 20% of patients. However, more severe diseases will require hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - When managing women of any age and non-menstruating men who present with unexplained...

    Incorrect

    • When managing women of any age and non-menstruating men who present with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia, what is the threshold haemoglobin level that should prompt urgent referral?

      Your Answer: 120 g/L for men and 100 g/L for women

      Correct Answer: 120 g/L for men and women

      Explanation:

      Iron Deficiency Anaemia and its Possible Causes

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through a low serum ferritin, red cell microcytosis, and hypochromia. It is often caused by gastrointestinal issues such as colonic cancer, gastric cancer, and coeliac disease. To determine the underlying cause, patients should undergo a PR examination, urine testing, and coeliac screen.

      In some cases, unexplained iron deficiency anaemia can be an early indication of an underlying malignancy. Menorrhagia may also cause iron deficiency in women of childbearing age, but a detailed history should be taken to rule out other possible causes. Any man or non-menstruating woman presenting with anaemia should be referred for urgent investigation. It is important to understand the appropriate referral thresholds and look out for additional red flags that may warrant referral.

      It is important to note that while occult bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia, blood loss may also occur through other means, such as urological cancers. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all possible causes and conduct thorough investigations to determine the underlying issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old male medical student who has been feeling unwell for several days...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male medical student who has been feeling unwell for several days is noticed to have slightly icteric sclerae by his girlfriend and has liver function tests performed. The results of these are normal apart from a serum bilirubin concentration of 44 µmol/l (normal < 21 μmol/L). His urine doesn't contain bilirubin.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Dubin–Johnson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Gilbert syndrome

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Jaundice: A Differential Diagnosis

      Jaundice is a common clinical manifestation of various diseases. In this case, the patient presents with jaundice, and the differential diagnosis includes several inherited disorders of bilirubin metabolism, chronic haemolytic disorders, and infectious diseases.

      Gilbert Syndrome: This is a relatively mild inherited disorder caused by a deficiency of glucuronosyl transferase, resulting in an accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin. The jaundice usually subsides in a few days and may be more obvious during an intercurrent illness.

      Dubin–Johnson Syndrome: This is another inherited disorder of bilirubin metabolism, but in this case, there is a defect in the secretion of bilirubin from the liver. The bilirubin that accumulates in the plasma is conjugated, water-soluble, and excreted in the urine. Onset of jaundice may commonly first occur during puberty or early adulthood and can be precipitated by alcohol, infection, pregnancy, or contraceptive pill use.

      Hereditary Spherocytosis: This is a chronic haemolytic disorder due to a defect in the red cell membrane, most frequently in spectrin, a structural protein. It can present with a wide range of severity, from jaundice at birth to asymptomatic anaemia or jaundice in adults.

      Infectious Mononucleosis: This viral infection can cause hepatitis and jaundice, but elevated transaminase activity would be expected.

      Rotor Syndrome: This is a possible differential diagnosis, but this condition would cause a mixed hyperbilirubinaemia. Therefore, Gilbert’s disease is the more likely diagnosis in this scenario.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of jaundice includes several inherited disorders of bilirubin metabolism, chronic haemolytic disorders, and infectious diseases. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The probable reason for the patient’s condition is Clostridium difficile, which could have been caused by the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics during the operation. According to NICE guidelines, patients undergoing clean surgery with prosthesis or implant placement, clean-contaminated surgery, contaminated surgery, or surgery on a dirty or infected wound should receive antibiotics to prevent surgical site infections. In cases of contaminated or infected wounds, prophylaxis should be accompanied by antibiotic treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 35 year old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)....

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She has previously visited the gastroenterology clinic and all tests, including colonoscopy, were normal. Her main concerns are abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Despite taking antispasmodics, regular movicol, and following a dietician advice, she still experiences symptoms. She has tried other laxatives before, but with little improvement. What would be the most suitable next step?

      Your Answer: Loperamide

      Correct Answer: Linaclotide

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis and management of IBS have been addressed by NICE in their guidance. The first line of pharmacological treatment includes antispasmodics such as Hyoscine or mebeverine, loperamide for diarrhea, and laxatives for constipation. Lactulose should be avoided. If the above treatments have not helped, second-line options include tricyclic antidepressants such as up to 30 mg amitriptyline. Third-line options include serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors. Linaclotide can be considered if the patient has had constipation for at least 12 months and has not benefited from different laxatives. Other management options include dietary advice and psychological treatments. However, acupuncture and reflexology are not recommended for managing IBS.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) detected during routine screening. He is asymptomatic and shows no signs of liver disease upon examination. Further blood tests reveal a positive hepatitis B envelope-antigen (HBeAg) result.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Current active hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different stages of the disease, and various tests can help diagnose and monitor it.

      Active Hepatitis B Infection:
      The presence of HBeAg in the blood indicates ongoing viral replication and is associated with large quantities of HBV DNA. Patients who have not developed anti-HBeAb are highly infectious and at greater risk of progressing to chronic liver disease.

      Chronic Hepatitis B in an Inactive State:
      Patients in the inactive carrier state have cleared HBeAg and have low levels of HBV DNA. However, they will still test positive for surface antigen.

      Cirrhosis of the Liver:
      Hepatitis B patients are at risk of developing cirrhosis, which is diagnosed clinically, on ultrasound, and with liver biopsy.

      Hepatitis E:
      Hepatitis E is a different viral infection spread via the faecal-oral route and is tested for with hepatitis E antibodies.

      Previous Hepatitis B Vaccination:
      Patients who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B will show antibodies to the surface antibody (anti-HBsAb) only. This doesn’t account for deranged LFTs.

      Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried about her experiencing recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and nausea for the past two months. Upon further inquiry, the pain is severe, occurs in the mornings, is intermittent, and can happen during vacations. Her weight is at the 50th percentile, and there are no abnormalities found during the examination. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal migraine

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Migraine: Recurrent Episodes of Midline Abdominal Pain in Children

      Abdominal migraine is a disorder that mainly affects children and is characterized by recurrent episodes of midline abdominal pain. The pain can last from 1-72 hours and is of moderate to severe intensity. During the attacks, patients may experience anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Marked pallor is commonly noted, and some patients may appear flushed. The pain is severe enough to interfere with normal daily activities, and many children describe their mood during the attack as one of intense misery. However, patients are completely symptom-free between attacks.

      Abdominal migraine is an idiopathic disorder, meaning that the cause is unknown. It is unlikely to be school avoidance as the symptoms are episodic and can occur outside of school times.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman receives a bowel cancer screening kit in the mail for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman receives a bowel cancer screening kit in the mail for the first time. She has no symptoms and her medical and family history are unremarkable. How frequently will she be invited for screening over the next decade?

      Your Answer: Every 5 years

      Correct Answer: Every 2 years

      Explanation:

      Individuals between the ages of 60 to 74 years are recommended to undergo bowel cancer screening every 2 years.

      Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test

      Overview:
      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      Colonoscopy:
      Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - You see a child who you are investigating for coeliac disease. Their serology...

    Incorrect

    • You see a child who you are investigating for coeliac disease. Their serology test result is positive.

      What would be the next step in your management?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient to stop eating gluten-containing foods and monitor their response

      Correct Answer: No intervention

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease

      Patients who are suspected of having coeliac disease and have positive serology test results should be referred to a gastroenterologist for further investigation. The gastroenterologist will perform an endoscopy and intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating gluten-containing foods until the biopsy is performed to ensure accurate results.

      While dietary advice may be helpful if coeliac disease is confirmed, it is more appropriate to first seek a referral to a gastroenterologist. There is no need to repeat the serology test if it is positive. For more information on how to interpret coeliac serology results, refer to the link provided below. Proper diagnosis and management of coeliac disease can greatly improve a patient’s quality of life.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man has had intermittent heartburn and acid regurgitation over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has had intermittent heartburn and acid regurgitation over the past 10 years. He has previously had an H2 receptor antagonist and a proton pump inhibitor with good effect. He occasionally has bought preparations from the pharmacy with good effect. His body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2 and he smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His symptoms have been worse recently and are waking him at night.
      Select from the list the single management option that is likely to be most effective in bringing about a QUICK resolution of his symptoms.

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice

      Correct Answer: Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease-Like Symptoms

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is recommended to manage it as uninvestigated dyspepsia, according to NICE guidelines. This is because an endoscopy has not been carried out, and there are no red flag symptoms that require immediate referral for endoscopy.

      The first step in managing GORD-like symptoms is to advise the patient on lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, dietary changes, smoking cessation, and alcohol reduction. These changes may lead to a reduction in symptoms.

      In the short term, a full dose of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for one month is the most effective treatment to bring about a quick resolution of symptoms. If the patient has responded well to PPI in the past, it is likely to be effective again. Testing for H. pylori may also be an option if it has not been done previously.

      After the initial treatment, a low-dose PPI as required may be appropriate for the patient. Other drugs such as H2 receptor antagonists, antacids, and prokinetics can also be used in the management of uninvestigated dyspepsia. However, they are not the first choice according to the guidelines and are less likely to be as effective as a PPI.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling well and having recently undergone foot and optometrist checks. He enjoys drinking alcohol on the weekends, limiting himself to 4-5 standard drinks each Saturday. His HbA1c remains stable at 48 mmol/L while taking metformin. However, his liver function tests reveal the following results:

      Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP: 95 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT: 157 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT: 40 u/L (8 - 60)
      AST: 74 u/L (3 - 40)
      Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Drug induced liver injury

      Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is the most common cause of abnormal liver function tests (LFT) in patients with type 2 diabetes. This condition is prevalent in developed countries and should be assessed through a reassessment of the patient’s LFTs and an ultrasound if necessary. The patient’s weekend drinking habits are not significant enough to suggest alcoholic liver disease as the cause of the LFT derangement. Drug-induced liver injuries (DILI) are not predictable and can present with various LFT changes, including cholestatic and mixed patterns. Gallstone disease is more common in overweight fertile females and presents with a cholestatic pattern of LFT derangement. Viral hepatitis is a possible cause but not the most likely answer in this case. A liver screen may be necessary if the LFT derangement persists without explanation from an ultrasound.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 22-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with profound tiredness and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with profound tiredness and a lack of appetite which have been present for about a week. He has just returned from a gap-year trip to Thailand and noticed he was jaundiced just before coming home. He also experienced a fever, but this subsided once his jaundice appeared. He has no sexual history, doesn't abuse intravenous (IV) drugs and did not receive a blood transfusion or get a tattoo or piercing during his trip.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 950 IU/l < 40 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 150 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 240 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
      Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
      Prothrombin time (PT) 12.0 s 12.0–14.8 s
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Leptospirosis

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A (Hep A)

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and history, the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. The initial fever, anorexia, and malaise followed by jaundice and elevated liver enzymes are typical of Hep A. A confirmation test for anti-Hep A immunoglobulin M can be done. Hep A is not common in the UK but is more prevalent in areas with poor sanitation, especially among travelers. Cytomegalovirus infection can also cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome with fever, splenomegaly, and mild liver enzyme increases, but rises in ALP and bilirubin are less common. Hep B and C are unlikely as there are no risk factors in the patient’s history. Leptospirosis, which is associated with exposure to rat-infected water and conjunctival suffusion, is less likely than Hep A.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her bowel habits and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her bowel habits and a family history of colorectal cancer. She has a known diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and has previously been investigated for changeable bowel symptoms. Her father, who recently underwent surgery for colon cancer, suggested she get her carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels checked. After undergoing tests, she is diagnosed with bowel cancer. What is the most appropriate use of monitoring CEA levels in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For postoperative follow-up

      Explanation:

      The Role of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) in Cancer Management

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein that is primarily produced by cells in the gastrointestinal tract during embryonic development. While its levels are low in adults, CEA is a useful tumour marker for colorectal cancers. In this article, we explore the different ways in which CEA is used in cancer management.

      Postoperative Follow-up
      CEA levels are expected to fall to normal following successful removal of colorectal cancer. A rising CEA level thereafter may indicate possible progression or recurrence of the cancer. However, temporary rises can occur during chemotherapy and radiotherapy, so changes during treatment may not necessarily indicate cancer progression.

      Staging
      CEA levels are not used in staging as there are many variables that can affect the levels. More reliable investigations are used for staging.

      Indicator for Operability
      While a CEA level at diagnosis higher than 100 ng/ml usually indicates metastatic disease, other investigations are used in the initial assessment of a newly diagnosed cancer to determine suitability for operative management.

      Screening Method
      CEA is not sensitive or specific enough to use for diagnosis or screening. Cancers of the pancreas, stomach, breast, lung, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, and ovarian cancer may also elevate CEA. Some non-malignant conditions such as cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and inflammatory bowel disease also cause blood levels to rise.

      Detection of Early Stage
      CEA is not used for the diagnosis of colorectal cancers as it is not sufficiently sensitive or specific. Early tumours may not cause significant blood elevations, nor may some advanced tumours.

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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.

    What...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.

      What is the most suitable subsequent test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Order an urgent endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Next Investigation for Women with Suspected Autoimmune Hepatitis

      The most appropriate next investigation for this woman is to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) to assess if there are any features of autoimmune hepatitis. This includes checking for raised levels of bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and alkaline phosphatase. If any of these levels are elevated, further diagnostic imaging or a liver biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

      Autoimmune hepatitis is often seen in individuals with other autoimmune disorders such as ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is important to conduct these tests to determine the underlying cause of the woman’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 63-year-old woman complains of abdominal discomfort, bloating, and a change in bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of abdominal discomfort, bloating, and a change in bowel habit with looser, more frequent stools. She has been experiencing these symptoms since her husband passed away 3 months ago. Her daughter believes she may have irritable bowel syndrome and is seeking treatment. What is the recommended course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 week referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      This woman has exhibited a concerning symptom of experiencing loose stools for over 6 weeks, which is a red flag indicator. Given her age of over 60 years, it is important to discuss the potential of an underlying cancer and refer her to secondary care for further testing within 2 weeks to rule out the possibility of bowel cancer.

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of rectal bleeding that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of rectal bleeding that has been ongoing for two days. He has experienced eight episodes of diarrhoea in the past 24 hours, with visible blood mixed with stool. He also reports feeling nauseous and having abdominal pain. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes, and is currently taking mesalazine enteric coated 800 mg twice daily, amlodipine 10 mg once daily, and metformin 500mg twice daily.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale and has a temperature of 38ºC. His heart rate is 108/min, and his blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. The abdominal exam reveals generalised tenderness and guarding, but no rebound tenderness.

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent hospital admission

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action for a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis is urgent hospital admission for IV corticosteroids. This is based on the Truelove and Witts’ severity index, which indicates that the patient is experiencing a severe flare-up due to symptoms such as opening their bowels more than 6 times per day and systemic upset (e.g. fever and tachycardia). NICE guidelines recommend immediate hospital admission for assessment and treatment with IV corticosteroids. It should be noted that a short course of oral steroids or rectal mesalazine may be used for mild to moderate flare-ups, while loperamide and dose increases of mesalazine are not appropriate for managing severe flare-ups.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may have...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may have cirrhosis of the liver. He has regularly drunk more than 30 units of alcohol every week for many years. Over the last three months, he has lost 2 kg in weight. He attributes this to a poor appetite.
      On examination, there are no obvious features.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The presence of chronic hepatitis C infection makes a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis more likely

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Liver Cirrhosis in Patients with Chronic Hepatitis C Infection

      Liver cirrhosis is a common complication of chronic hepatitis C infection and can be caused by other factors such as alcohol consumption. Patients with chronic hepatitis C infection who are over 55 years old, male, and consume moderate amounts of alcohol are at higher risk of developing cirrhosis. However, cirrhosis can be asymptomatic until complications arise. An ultrasound scan can detect cirrhosis and its complications, but a liver biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate liver damage, but they are not always conclusive. The absence of signs doesn’t exclude a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis. Further investigation is necessary before considering a liver biopsy.

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  • Question 30 - A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.

    On further questioning his symptoms started about...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.

      On further questioning his symptoms started about two months ago. He has been getting epigastric discomfort and heartburn; he also feels a little bit more breathless than usual and puts this down to being a heavy smoker for the last forty years. He doesn't take any regular medications and has not used any over-the-counter remedies recently. He thinks he's lost some weight.

      On examination, he looks a little pale and has some angular stomatitis.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent gastroscopy

      Explanation:

      Identifying ‘Alarm’ Symptoms in Primary Care Patients with Dyspepsia

      When evaluating patients with dyspepsia in primary care, it is crucial to identify any ‘alarm’ symptoms or ‘red flags’ that may indicate a more serious underlying condition. By taking a targeted history and performing a thorough examination, healthcare providers can determine which patients require urgent referral for further investigation and which can be managed in the community.

      In the case of a male patient over 55-years-old with persistent unexplained dyspepsia, signs of anaemia (such as shortness of breath, pallor, and angular stomatitis), and a history of smoking, these ‘alarm’ features suggest the need for urgent referral for endoscopy to investigate the possibility of upper gastrointestinal (GI) cancer. The June 2015 update recommends a 2-week referral for patients over 55 with weight loss, abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. By identifying and acting on ‘alarm’ symptoms, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potentially serious conditions.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 31 - You assess a 23-year-old woman who has been newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 23-year-old woman who has been newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis on the left side. The gastroenterologists prescribed high-dose oral mesalazine five days ago, but there has been no improvement in her bowel movements, which consist of passing 3-4 loose stools per day with small amounts of blood. She is still in good health, and her abdominal examination is normal. What is the recommended duration of the initial mesalazine treatment before determining its effectiveness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Patients with mild-moderate flares of ulcerative colitis are usually evaluated for treatment response over a period of 4 weeks.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 32 - You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic cancer. The lady was diagnosed with diabetes from a range of tests. In addition, she noticed that her skin started to have a yellow tinge and she complained of itching over her body.

      Which is the best management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an MRI of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer

      With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer, it is important to have a low threshold for investigating any concerning symptoms. In addition, if a patient aged 60 or over presents with weight loss and any of the following symptoms – diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes – a CT scan should be carried out urgently.

      In this case, the patient has also been diagnosed with diabetes and jaundice, which further warrants an urgent referral for suspected cancer. It is important to note that an MRI should not be arranged in primary care, and the decision can be left with the specialist. Additionally, an ultrasound is not the preferred investigation in this instance.

      A routine referral would be inappropriate due to the red flags highlighted in the patient’s history. With such a strong family history, it is crucial to investigate this patient further and take appropriate action.

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  • Question 33 - A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She is concerned as her child is complaining of recurrent episodes of dull abdominal pain and missing significant days off school. Your physical examination is entirely normal.
      What would count most against a diagnosis of functional recurrent abdominal pain in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Above average intellectual ability

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children over the age of five, with approximately 10% experiencing it. It is crucial to determine the nature of the pain, its impact on the child’s daily life, and how the child and their family cope with it. Organic causes, such as gastrointestinal, urological, haematological, and miscellaneous causes, must be ruled out. Non-organic pain is suggested by peri-umbilical pain, and vomiting may be present, but weight loss is rare. Other important questions to ask include the timing of the pain, associated symptoms, family history, and social history. Physical examination is often unhelpful, and investigations are unlikely to provide a diagnosis when non-organic pain is suspected.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 34 - Emma, aged 23 years, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)...

    Incorrect

    • Emma, aged 23 years, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) for the past 2 months, which she believes is due to the stress of her new job. She often feels bloated and has irregular bowel movements. Emma is hesitant to take medications and seeks advice from her GP, Dr. Patel, who recommends the low-FODMAP diet and refers her to a registered dietitian. What are some examples of safe low-FODMAP foods that can be included in Emma's diet to manage her IBS symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmon

      Explanation:

      Monash University in Australia has developed a low-FODMAP diet to manage irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrates found in many foods that are poorly absorbed in the small intestine. They can cause diarrhoea by encouraging water intake into the small intestine or bloating by fermenting in the large bowel. A low-FODMAP diet has been shown to reduce symptoms of IBS such as bloating, abdominal pain, and irregular bowel habits. However, this diet is challenging to follow as it excludes many foods that contain oligo-, di-, mono-saccharides, and polyols, including various vegetables, fruits, and grains. Therefore, it is recommended to seek the advice of a dietician rather than initiating the diet without guidance. High-FODMAP foods to avoid include wheat, most dairy products (except aged cheeses), pulses, beans, onion, garlic, and excess fructose. The diet mainly consists of unprocessed meat/fish and low FODMAP vegetables and grains.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

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  • Question 35 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing indigestion for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing indigestion for the past two months. She is in good health, has never had a similar episode before, and is not taking any regular medication. Notably, she has not experienced any recent weight loss or vomiting, and her abdominal examination is normal. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice + one month course of a full-dose proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      As per the revised NICE guidelines of 2015, there is no need for an immediate endoscopy referral for her. However, if she fails to respond to treatment, a non-urgent referral would be advisable.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.

      For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.

      Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 36 - A 20-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with a 3-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with a 3-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea, passing around 8 stools per day. He denies any recent travel or exposure to unwell individuals.

      During examination, his heart rate is 95 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.8 ºC. His abdomen is soft but mildly tender throughout.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Hospitalization and IV corticosteroids are necessary for the treatment of a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, as seen in this patient with over 6 bloody stools per day and systemic symptoms like tachycardia and fever. Mild to moderate cases can be managed with aminosalicylates and oral steroids. Simple analgesia, increased fluid intake, and oral antibiotics are not effective in managing severe flares of ulcerative colitis.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 37 - A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an anterior resection of a rectal carcinoma. She has recovered well over the last week. She is not taking anticoagulants and is being careful to drink at least one litre of extra water a day.
      What is the most likely early complication she may experience following this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irritant dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Ileostomy: Understanding the Risks

      Ileostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening in the abdomen to allow waste to pass out of the body. While the procedure can be life-changing for patients with certain medical conditions, it is not without its risks. Here are some of the potential complications of ileostomy:

      Irritant Dermatitis: The skin around the stoma can become irritated and inflamed, either due to contact with stoma equipment or leakage of feces. Hypoallergenic products and corticosteroid lotions can help manage this condition.

      Parastomal Hernia: This occurs when a bulge or protrusion develops around the stoma site. While conservative management is often possible, surgery may be necessary in some cases.

      Dehydration: High output from the ileostomy can lead to dehydration, making it important for patients to maintain a good fluid intake.

      Pernicious Anemia: As vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum, patients may develop pernicious anemia over time. Supplements can help manage this condition.

      Severe Stomal Hemorrhage: While some bleeding is common after bag changes, severe bleeding is more likely in patients taking antiplatelet drugs.

      Understanding these potential complications can help patients and healthcare providers monitor for early signs and manage them effectively.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 38 - A 62-year-old man presents to his GP with fatigue, nausea and abdominal distension....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents to his GP with fatigue, nausea and abdominal distension. He admits to consuming 10-15 units of alcohol daily for many years. On examination, he displays spider naevi on his chest wall, jaundice and shifting dullness. He has a body mass index of 34 (obese). Blood tests reveal an AST:ALT ratio of 3:1 and an elevated serum ferritin. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcoholic Cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcoholic Cirrhosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a leading cause of cirrhosis in developed countries, typically resulting from high levels of alcohol intake over an extended period. ALD progresses through fatty liver disease, alcoholic hepatitis, and ultimately cirrhosis, which presents with clinical signs such as jaundice, ascites, easy bruising, fatigue, abdominal pain, and nausea. Unfortunately, ALD is also responsible for 30% of global liver cancer deaths.

      Alcoholic fatty infiltration is a reversible stage of ALD, but if clinical signs and blood results suggest progression to cirrhosis, the damage may be irreversible. Alcoholic active hepatitis is also reversible, but if the patient shows signs of cirrhosis, alcohol is likely the cause.

      While transferrin saturation and serum ferritin levels may be increased in ALD, they do not necessarily indicate concomitant haemochromatosis, especially with a history of alcohol abuse.

      It’s worth noting that most causes of liver disease, including non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, are associated with an AST to ALT ratio of <1. However, alcoholic liver disease often produces an AST:ALT ratio of 2:1 or higher. In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis is crucial for early detection and treatment. Reducing alcohol intake and seeking medical attention can help prevent irreversible liver damage and improve overall health outcomes.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 39 - A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia which had been present for three months, together with weight loss of 2 stone over the same period.

      He had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor but had not benefited from this therapy. More recently he had noticed a difficulty when trying to eat solids and frequently vomited after meals.

      On examination he had a palpable mass in the epigastrium and his full blood count revealed a haemoglobin of 85 g/L (130-180).

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of stomach

      Explanation:

      Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy

      The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom.

      However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to recognize the significance of alarm symptoms and promptly refer patients for appropriate diagnostic testing.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 40 - You are examining the blood results of a 31-year-old woman who visited you...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood results of a 31-year-old woman who visited you last week complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, fatigue, loose stools, mouth ulcers, and episcleritis. You suspected that she might have inflammatory bowel disease due to her positive family history. Her blood tests reveal a microcytic anaemia and an elevated CRP level.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: About two-thirds of people with inflammatory bowel disease have anaemia at diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory bowel disease can have an impact on the fertility of both men and women. For instance, Crohn’s disease can lower fertility rates due to the presence of active disease. Additionally, women who have undergone abdominal surgery or experienced abdominal sepsis are at a higher risk of developing adhesions that can negatively affect the function of their fallopian tubes.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 41 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she has been experiencing for several years. She frequently experiences itchiness and pain. She has a daily bowel movement with soft stool. Upon examination, there is no indication of a rash or fissure. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Haemorrhoids: Options and Considerations

      Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can cause discomfort and itching. Topical treatments are often used to alleviate symptoms, and there are several options available. However, it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Here are some considerations for different topical treatments:

      – Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment: This preparation contains a local anaesthetic and corticosteroid, which can provide short-term relief. It is suitable for occasional use.
      – Hydrocortisone 1%, miconazole nitrate 2% cream: This cream contains an anti-candida agent and is appropriate for intertrigo. However, if the patient doesn’t have a rash or signs of fungal infection, this may not be the best option.
      – Clobetasol propionate cream: This potent topical steroid is used for vulval and anal lichen sclerosus. It is not recommended if the patient doesn’t have a rash.
      – Glyceryl trinitrate ointment: This unlicensed preparation is used for anal fissure, which is characterized by painful bowel movements and rectal bleeding. If the patient doesn’t have these symptoms, this treatment is not appropriate.
      – Lactulose solution: Constipation can contribute to haemorrhoids, and lactulose can help manage this. However, if the patient doesn’t have constipation, this treatment may not be necessary.

      In summary, choosing the right topical treatment for haemorrhoids requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended to determine the best course of action.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 42 - Whilst reviewing a middle-aged patient in a GP practice, you note the following...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst reviewing a middle-aged patient in a GP practice, you note the following blood test results:

      Hb 90 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Mean Cell Volume (MCV) 75 fL (80 - 96)
      Platelets 350 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 14.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 74 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 2.3 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this middle-aged patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal bleed

      Explanation:

      Elevated urea levels may suggest an upper GI bleed rather than a lower GI bleed. Iron deficiency anemia or anemia of chronic disease do not account for the increased urea. Chronic kidney disease would result in a corresponding increase in creatinine, in addition to the elevated urea. The raised urea is caused by the digestion of the substantial protein meal of blood in the upper GI tract, which would not occur in a lower GI bleed.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.

      The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 43 - A 45-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following a haematemesis with a diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following a haematemesis with a diagnosis of NSAID-induced gastric ulcer. She has taken ibuprofen regularly for pain relief and has found it effective, while finding paracetamol has been ineffective. She is taking 10 mg esomeprazole a day. She has a history of osteoarthritis and hypertension.
      What is the most appropriate analgesia to prescribe this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Pain Medication for a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis and a History of Myocardial Infarction

      When selecting a pain medication for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and a history of myocardial infarction, it is important to consider the potential cardiovascular and gastrointestinal risks associated with each option. Tramadol is often the drug of choice due to its lower risk of cardiovascular and gastrointestinal problems, but it may still cause toxicity in some patients. Celecoxib, a cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitor, carries a lower risk of gastrointestinal side-effects but should be avoided in patients with a history of thrombotic events. Diclofenac and misoprostol carry an intermediate risk of gastrointestinal side-effects and increase the risk of thrombotic events. Ibuprofen and naproxen have lower gastrointestinal risks, but their use may be problematic in patients taking antiplatelet medication. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the patient’s individual medical history and risk factors.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 44 - A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced occasional abdominal bloating and changes in stool consistency for many years. However, over the past four weeks, she has noticed a significant increase in symptoms, including daily loose and frequent stools. She denies any rectal bleeding and cannot recall experiencing loose stools for this extended period before.
      Upon examination, she appears well, with a soft and non-tender abdomen and no palpable masses. Rectal examination is normal, and her weight is comparable to her last visit a year ago.
      Which of the following tests would you suggest for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal x ray

      Explanation:

      Investigating Bowel Symptoms in Patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      A patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presenting with acute bowel symptoms is a common scenario. However, if their symptoms have undergone a marked change and become more persistent than usual, it is important to consider the possibility of colorectal cancer. In this context, an abdominal X-ray or ultrasound is not appropriate, and testing for inflammatory markers such as ESR doesn’t provide specific information that would aid referral. Tumour marker testing is also not an appropriate primary care investigation.

      According to NICE guidelines, quantitative faecal immunochemical tests should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or aged under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate investigation and referral for patients with IBS and changing bowel symptoms.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 45 - You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He reports passing three bloody stools per day for the past week, but denies any abdominal pain and has maintained a good appetite. Upon examination, there are no notable findings in the abdomen. What is the most probable explanation for this current episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild exacerbation of ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis flares can occur without any identifiable trigger, but there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and cessation of smoking. Flares are typically categorized as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools a person has per day, the presence of blood in the stools, and the level of systemic disturbance. Mild flares involve fewer than four stools daily with or without blood and no systemic disturbance. Moderate flares involve four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares involve more than six stools a day with blood and evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, or hypoalbuminemia. Patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 46 - A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling full for the past two months. She requests a prescription for Colpermin, as her sister found it helpful for her IBS. Additionally, she reports experiencing urinary frequency for several weeks and suspects a UTI. On examination, her abdomen appears non-specifically bloated, and a urine dip reveals trace protein but no blood, glucose, or leukocytes. She went through menopause at 54, is nulliparous, and has a family history of psoriasis. There are no known allergies. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Consideration of Ovarian Cancer in New Onset IBS after 50

      This patient presenting with new onset IBS after the age of 50 should prompt consideration of ovarian cancer. According to NICE guidelines, symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer. CA 125 is the test of choice if ovarian cancer is being considered.

      Risk factors for ovarian cancer include nulliparity and late menopause. Symptoms that should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer include progressive bloating, early satiety, and urinary frequency. A vaginal examination should be performed if ovarian cancer is suspected since abdominal examination alone can miss an ovarian mass. The family history of psoriasis is not relevant in this case.

      Prescribing Colpermin is not necessarily incorrect, but IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion that should be given once serious and common alternatives have been ruled out. Prescribing an antibiotic is inappropriate because there is no evidence of infection here.

      An abdominopelvic scan would be an alternative to arranging CA 125, but an abdominal scan by itself is usually not sufficient to fully examine the ovaries. If a CA 125 was high, an ultrasound scan would be arranged to assess the ovaries in more detail, and the results of the two would be combined in an RMI score to assess the risk of malignancy.

      In summary, it is important to consider ovarian cancer in cases of new onset IBS after 50, especially if symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency are present. A thorough examination and appropriate tests should be performed to rule out this serious condition.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 47 - A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic with a three-month history of dysphagia...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic with a three-month history of dysphagia for solids. He reports weight loss and loss of appetite. He has a history of indigestion and heartburn for the past five years. He takes Gaviscon and Rennie tablets regularly. He is a heavy smoker and drinks regularly. During an endoscopy, a small tumour is found at the lower end of his oesophagus. What is the most probable cause of the tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barrett's oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Gastro-oesophageal Reflux and its Potential Consequences

      The patient’s medical history indicates a prolonged period of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which can lead to the development of Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition occurs when the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophageal lining is replaced by columnar epithelium, which is a precursor to cancer. To monitor for the presence of metaplasia, surveillance endoscopies are recommended every two to five years, depending on the length of the Barrett’s segment. If dysplasia is detected, more frequent surveillance or treatment may be necessary.

      The onset of dysphagia for solids and weight loss is concerning, as it may indicate the presence of oesophageal carcinoma.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 48 - A 66-year-old woman presents to you for a medication review. She underwent H....

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old woman presents to you for a medication review. She underwent H. pylori eradication treatment a year ago, but her symptoms of epigastric burning returned within a few months. She has been taking omeprazole 20 mg/day since then. She reports that her symptoms are worsening again and asks if further treatment for Helicobacter pylori would be beneficial. She has lost more than 7 lbs in weight. You urgently refer her for an upper GI endoscopy.

      What advice would you give her while waiting for the investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase her omeprazole to 40 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy

      In urgent cases where endoscopy is required, it is recommended to stop acid suppression medication for at least two weeks before the procedure. This is because acid suppression medication can hide serious underlying conditions that need to be addressed. However, there may be situations where stopping the medication is difficult due to symptoms, and clinical judgement must be used.

      For instance, if a patient experiences unintentional weight loss, it is a red flag symptom for upper GI malignancy, and urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. In such cases, the benefits of stopping acid suppression medication should be weighed against the potential risks of continuing it. Ultimately, the decision should be made based on the patient’s individual circumstances and the urgency of the situation. Proper evaluation and management can help ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 49 - A 70-year-old woman has observed abdominal swelling for a few months, along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman has observed abdominal swelling for a few months, along with some abdominal tenderness. She has normochromic, normocytic anaemia, a decreased serum albumin level, and an elevated creatinine level of 180 μmol/l (normal 60–110 μmol/l). Her cancer antigen-125 level is elevated.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Distension and Elevated Creatinine Level

      Abdominal distension and elevated creatinine level can be indicative of various medical conditions. In the following vignette, ovarian carcinoma is the most likely diagnosis due to the presence of ascites, abnormal urea and electrolytes, elevated cancer antigen-125, normochromic, normocytic anaemia, and low albumin level. However, other conditions such as cirrhosis of the liver, diverticulitis, subacute intestinal obstruction, and uterine fibroids should also be considered and ruled out through further diagnostic testing and evaluation.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of pregnancy. After an uneventful first and second trimester to date, she has developed widespread itching over the last three weeks and she now has mild jaundice. Her bilirubin is 80 μmol/l (normal <21 μmol/l), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) at 82 IU/l (normal <40 IU/l), and the alkaline phosphatase is markedly raised.
      Which of the following is the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis

      During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, leading to abnormal liver function tests. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, affecting 0.1-1.5% of pregnancies. It typically presents in the late second or early third trimester with generalized itching, starting on the palms and soles. An elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a more sensitive marker than aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and a fasting serum bile acid concentration of greater than 10 mmol/l is the key diagnostic test. Primary biliary cholangitis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy are less likely diagnoses, while cholelithiasis and hyperemesis gravidarum have different clinical presentations. Early diagnosis and management of liver disorders in pregnancy are crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as prematurity and stillbirth.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 51 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of dysphagia for both...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of dysphagia for both solids and liquids. He is experiencing no associated nausea or abdominal pain. His weight is stable and he is a lifelong non-smoker.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysphagia: Achalasia, Benign Oesophageal Stricture, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Carcinoma of the Oesophagus, and Schatzki’s Rings

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can be caused by various oesophageal disorders. One such disorder is achalasia, which is characterized by dysphagia for both solids and liquids. It occurs in adults aged 25-60 years and is diagnosed by a barium swallow that reveals a dilated oesophagus. Other symptoms include regurgitation of food, chest pain, heartburn, and nocturnal cough. Benign oesophageal stricture is less likely as it only causes dysphagia for solids. Barrett’s oesophagus, a change in cell type of the epithelium in the distal portion of the oesophagus due to prolonged frequent acid exposure, primarily causes heartburn and acid regurgitation. Carcinoma of the oesophagus should be considered, but it usually causes dysphagia of solids and weight loss. Schatzki’s rings, rings of mucosa or muscle in the lower oesophagus, cause intermittent and non-progressive dysphagia for solids, usually after a patient eats a meal in a hurried fashion. Daily dysphagia is not usually a feature.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 52 - You are evaluating a 37-year-old man who presented with an anal fissure caused...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 37-year-old man who presented with an anal fissure caused by constipation and straining. He reports no systemic symptoms and is generally in good health. Despite using lidocaine ointment as prescribed, he continues to experience severe rectal pain during bowel movements and passes bright red blood with every stool. His stools have become softer due to modifications in his diet and regular lactulose use. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe topical GTN ointment for 6-8 weeks and review if still not healed

      Explanation:

      To alleviate pain and promote healing, suggest using an ointment (if there are no contraindications) twice a day for 6-8 weeks. Referral to colorectal surgeons is not necessary at this time since there are no indications of a severe underlying condition. If the GTN treatment is ineffective after 6-8 weeks, referral to the surgeons may be considered. Topical diltiazem may be prescribed under specialist guidance, but hydrocortisone ointment is not a recommended treatment for anal fissures.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the anal canal that can cause pain and rectal bleeding. They can be acute or chronic, depending on how long they have been present. Risk factors for developing anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, other underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, and the use of bulk-forming laxatives or lubricants before defecation. Topical anaesthetics and analgesia can also be used to manage pain.

      For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, but topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after 8 weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered and a referral to secondary care may be necessary.

      Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for anal fissures can help individuals manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 53 - A 27 year old male with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old male with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with rectal symptoms and bloody diarrhoea. Upon examination, he appears comfortable and well hydrated. His vital signs include a regular pulse of 88 beats per minute, a temperature of 37.5ºC, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the left iliac fossa, but no palpable masses or rebound tenderness. Rectal examination reveals tenderness and blood in the rectum. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's mild/moderate proctitis flare?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine

      Explanation:

      When experiencing a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the initial treatment option is the use of topical (rectal) aminosalicylates. It is recommended to start with local treatment for rectal symptoms. Topical aminosalicylates are more effective than steroids, but a combination of both can be used if monotherapy is not effective. If the disease is diffuse or if symptoms do not respond to topical treatments, oral aminosalicylates can be used. In cases of severe disease, oral steroids can be considered.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 54 - A 60-year-old man with liver cirrhosis of unknown origin is being evaluated in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with liver cirrhosis of unknown origin is being evaluated in the clinic. What factor is most likely to indicate a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascites

      Explanation:

      Scoring Systems for Liver Cirrhosis

      Liver cirrhosis is a serious condition that can lead to liver failure and death. To assess the severity of the disease, doctors use scoring systems such as the Child-Pugh classification and the Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD). The Child-Pugh classification takes into account five factors: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites. Each factor is assigned a score of 1 to 3, depending on its severity, and the scores are added up to give a total score. The total score is then used to grade the severity of the disease as A, B, or C.

      The MELD system uses a formula that takes into account a patient’s bilirubin, creatinine, and international normalized ratio (INR) to predict their survival. The formula calculates a score that ranges from 6 to 40, with higher scores indicating a higher risk of mortality. The MELD score is particularly useful for patients who are on a liver transplant waiting list, as it helps to prioritize patients based on their risk of mortality. Overall, both the Child-Pugh classification and the MELD system are important tools for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis and determining the best course of treatment for patients.

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  • Question 55 - A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
    He has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
      He has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and heart failure in the last year. He underwent normal puberty at age 14.

      Which of the following drugs would be most likely to cause gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rabeprazole sodium

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause gynaecomastia

      Research has shown that the risk of developing gynaecomastia is almost insignificant when using other drugs as part of the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. However, there are other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia, including spironolactone, digoxin, methyldopa, gonadotrophins, and cyproterone acetate.

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a condition where a gastrin-secreting pancreatic adenoma is associated with peptic ulcer, and 50-60% of cases are malignant. It is suspected in patients with multiple peptic ulcers that are resistant to drugs and occurs in approximately 0.1% of patients with duodenal ulcer disease.

      A case study into male gynaecomastia has shown that spironolactone induced gynaecomastia by blocking androgen production, blocking androgens from binding to their receptors, and increasing both total and free oestrogen levels. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare professional.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 56 - A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a flare-up of symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a flare-up of symptoms, including diarrhoea which is occasionally bloody, up to four times a day. He has diffuse ulcerative colitis and has been in remission; he takes 1.5 g of mesalazine a day.
      On examination, his blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, while his pulse is 75 bpm. Abdominal examination is normal.
      What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Ulcerative Colitis

      When a patient experiences a moderate exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, there are several treatment options available. The most appropriate choice is a dose of 20-40 mg of oral prednisolone per day, which should be continued until the patient enters remission. If there is an inadequate response after 2-4 weeks, ciclosporin tablets can be added to the regimen to induce remission. However, these should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care. Anti-motility drugs such as co-phenotrope should not be used as they may precipitate paralytic ileus and megacolon in active ulcerative colitis. Topical mesalazine is only effective for distal disease, so it is not appropriate for patients with diffuse disease. Topical corticosteroids in the form of prednisolone retention enemas can be used to induce remission in patients with proctitis, but for diffuse disease, oral corticosteroids are more effective.

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  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a referral to the local gastroenterologist.

      You have not yet received their clinic letter but the patient says that they explained to him that he will be starting treatment soon and wanted to ask you a few questions about the likely success.

      Which of the following factors is associated with a good response to interferon alpha in patients with hepatitis C?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Response to Interferon Alpha in Hepatitis C Treatment

      A high viral load, obesity, old age, cirrhosis, continued alcohol use, immune deficiency, poor adherence to treatment, and significant steatosis on liver biopsy are all factors that can affect the response rate to interferon alpha in hepatitis C treatment. Patients with genotype 1 infection and a high viral load are particularly at risk for a poor response to interferon alpha. On the other hand, patients with genotypes 2 or 3 infection and a short duration of disease have a better chance of responding well to treatment. The recommended duration of therapy also varies depending on the genotype. It is important to address these factors when considering treatment options for hepatitis C patients.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 58 - A 50-year-old man has a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis. He has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis. He has had courses of prednisolone for exacerbations in the past but has never persisted with prophylactic medication. He has not had a hospital review for many years. He has now had a change in bowel habit for six months, with increasing diarrhoea.
      Which of the following is the single most important management step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Subacute Change in Bowel Habit and Ulcerative Colitis

      Patients with ulcerative colitis have an increased risk of developing colonic adenocarcinoma, which starts 8-10 years after the onset of the disease. Surveillance colonoscopy is recommended every 1-2 years to assess for dysplasia. In a patient with a long-standing disease and a new change in bowel habit, there should be a high index of suspicion for malignancy, especially if routine surveillance has been missed.

      An abdominal plain X-ray may be useful in acute presentations of ulcerative colitis, but it is not the best choice for subacute changes in bowel habit. Oral mesalazine may reduce the risk of developing colorectal cancer, but it doesn’t address the red flags in this case.

      Oral prednisolone may be prescribed to see if there is any resolution of symptoms, but the priority is an urgent colonoscopy to rule out a new diagnosis of colorectal cancer.

      Stool microscopy and culture are unlikely to be helpful in this case, as there is no acute-onset diarrhea or recent foreign travel.

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  • Question 59 - A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease

      Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.

      The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.

      Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.

      In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.

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  • Question 60 - A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without any associated bleeding. She has also experienced weight loss and has abdominal pain with malaise and fever. During the examination, she has oral ulcers, sore red eyes and tender nodules on her shins. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa and a vague right iliac fossa mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms and Other Complications

      Crohn’s Disease, Appendicular Abscess, Ileocaecal Tuberculosis, Ovarian Cyst, and Ulcerative Colitis are possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with gastrointestinal symptoms and other complications. In women over 60 years of age, Crohn’s disease may even be the most likely diagnosis. This condition can cause episcleritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, vasculitis, gallstones, kidney stones, or abnormal liver function tests. The predominantly right-sided symptoms suggest terminal ileitis, which is more common in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis. Fever can occur in Crohn’s disease due to the inflammatory process, ranging from high fever during acute flare-ups to persistent low-grade fever. Appendicular abscess is a complication of acute appendicitis, causing a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa and fever. Ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant and complications of obstruction, perforation, or malabsorption, especially in the presence of stricture. A large ovarian cyst may be palpable on abdominal examination, but it is unlikely to cause oral ulcers, sore eyes, or erythema nodosum. Ulcerative colitis, which has similar clinical features to Crohn’s disease, is usually diagnosed from the biopsy result following a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. However, rectal bleeding is more common in ulcerative colitis, while fever is more common in Crohn’s disease. A right lower quadrant mass may be seen in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis unless complicated by bowel cancer.

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  • Question 61 - A 50-year-old male undergoes an endoscopy after being referred by his GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male undergoes an endoscopy after being referred by his GP with recurrent indigestion.

      The endoscopy reveals a small duodenal ulcer and Helicobacter pylori is demonstrated to be present. He has not been given eradication treatment before and is allergic to penicillin.

      You consider a seven day, twice daily course of eradication therapy.

      How would you treat this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Esomeprazole 10 mg, Metronidazole, Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter Infection and Treatment

      Helicobacter infection is common in patients with duodenal and peptic ulceration. The recommended therapy includes acid suppression and eradication of Helicobacter. Triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole, along with two antibiotics (amoxicillin/clarithromycin plus metronidazole), has been found to be highly effective.

      It is important to note that patients who are allergic to penicillin require a different treatment regimen. The lowest cost treatment option should be chosen, taking into account previous exposure to clarithromycin or metronidazole. In cases where the patient is allergic to penicillin and has had previous exposure to clarithromycin, bismuth and tetracycline should be added to the treatment regimen.

      The recommended PPI doses for Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy are esomeprazole 20 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg, omeprazole 20-40 mg, pantoprazole 40 mg, and rabeprazole 20 mg. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment of Helicobacter infection.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 62 - A 40-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of recurrent central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of recurrent central abdominal pain that she has been experiencing for a long time. The pain usually subsides when she has a bowel movement. She has an irregular bowel pattern, with instances of both constipation and diarrhea. She has never observed any blood in her feces, and her weight has remained constant.
      Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome: Symptoms and Red Flags

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a group of symptoms that affect the intestinal motility, causing central or lower abdominal pain, bloating, alternating constipation and diarrhea, rectal mucous, and tenesmus. However, it is important to note that IBS doesn’t cause rectal bleeding or unintentional weight loss.

      While a high-fiber diet may not necessarily relieve symptoms of IBS, nocturnal diarrhea may indicate an underlying organic disease and should prompt further investigation. It is crucial to recognize these red flag symptoms and seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause.

      Understanding the symptoms and red flags of IBS can help individuals manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.

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  • Question 63 - An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history of alternating constipation and diarrhea, along with gradual weight loss. During the examination, he looks cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He doesn't have jaundice, and his liver function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver metastases

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of nodular hepatomegaly

      Nodular hepatomegaly, or an enlarged liver with palpable nodules, can have various causes. Among them, liver metastases and cirrhosis are common, while hepatocellular carcinoma, lymphoma, and myelofibrosis are less frequent but still possible differential diagnoses.

      Liver metastases often originate from the bowel or breast and may not affect liver function until they involve over half of the liver or obstruct the biliary tract. Cirrhosis, on the other hand, results from chronic liver disease and typically raises the serum alanine aminotransferase level, but this patient’s liver function tests are normal.

      Hepatocellular carcinoma, a type of liver cancer, shares some features with liver metastases but is less common and may be associated with hepatitis B or C. Lymphoma, a cancer of the lymphatic system, is even rarer than hepatocellular carcinoma as a cause of nodular hepatomegaly, but it may involve other sites besides the liver.

      Myelofibrosis is a bone marrow disorder that can lead to fibrosis in the liver and spleen, among other organs. It may not cause symptoms in the early stages but can manifest as leukoerythroblastic anaemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats later on. While myelofibrosis is not a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, especially if other features suggest a myeloproliferative neoplasm.

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  • Question 64 - A 58-year-old woman presents with fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a hiatus hernia diagnosed on upper gastrointestinal endoscopy 3 months ago and takes omeprazole. She has had no respiratory symptoms, no change in bowel habit, no dysphagia or indigestion. On examination she is pale and tachycardic with a pulse rate of 100/min. Abdominal examination is normal. Blood tests reveal the following results:
      Haemoglobin 72 g/l
      White cell count 5.5 x109/l
      Platelets 536 x109/l
      ESR 36 mm/h
      (hypochromic microcytic red blood cells)
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right-sided colonic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of Iron Deficiency Anaemia and the Importance of Gastrointestinal Tract Investigation

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. In older patients, it is important to investigate the gastrointestinal tract as a potential source of bleeding. Right-sided colonic carcinomas often do not cause any changes in bowel habit, leading to late diagnosis or incidental discovery during investigations for anaemia. On the other hand, rectal carcinomas usually result in a change in bowel habit. Oesophageal carcinoma can cause dysphagia and should have been detected during recent endoscopy. Hiatus hernia is unlikely to cause severe anaemia, especially if the patient is taking omeprazole. Poor diet is also an unlikely explanation for new-onset iron deficiency anaemia in older patients. Therefore, routine assessment of iron deficiency anaemia should include investigation of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract, with particular attention to visualising the caecum.

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  • Question 65 - A 50-year-old man presents with long-standing bowel symptoms that go back several years....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with long-standing bowel symptoms that go back several years. He recently joined the practice and reports experiencing bouts of abdominal pain and diarrhea that can last up to a few weeks at a time. His previous GP diagnosed him with irritable bowel syndrome. He also has a history of ankylosing spondylitis, which was diagnosed in his early 20s, and recurrent mouth ulcers. He takes ibuprofen as needed to manage spinal pain from his ankylosing spondylitis.

      He is now presenting because he has had abdominal pain and profuse diarrhea for the past two weeks. He is having bowel movements 3-4 times a day, which is similar to previous attacks, but he is more concerned this time because he has noticed fresh blood mixed in with his stools. He has not traveled abroad and has had no contact with sick individuals. He denies any weight loss. He saw the Out of Hours GP service a few days ago, and they submitted a stool sample for testing, which showed no evidence of an infectious cause.

      On examination, he is hydrated and afebrile. His blood pressure is 138/90 mmHg, his pulse rate is 88 bpm, and he is not systemically unwell. His abdomen is tender around the umbilicus and across the lower abdomen. He has no guarding or acute surgical findings, and there are no masses or organomegaly. Due to the rectal blood loss, you perform a rectal examination, which reveals several perianal skin tags but nothing focal in the rectum.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In view of the ongoing loose stools and rectal bleeding refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist as a suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Possible Crohn’s Disease Diagnosis

      This patient’s symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, which has been previously misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. The recent discovery of blood in his stools is not consistent with IBS and indicates an alternative cause. Additionally, the presence of ankylosing spondylitis, mouth ulcers, and skin tags are all associated with Crohn’s disease.

      To confirm the diagnosis, the patient should undergo faecal calprotectin and blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, albumin, CRP, and ESR. These tests can be performed in primary care. However, the patient should also be referred to a lower GI specialist for further evaluation and confirmation of the diagnosis.

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  • Question 66 - A 65-year-old man with coronary artery disease visits his General Practitioner after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with coronary artery disease visits his General Practitioner after an abdominal ultrasound reveals an easily felt epigastric pulsation. The ultrasound shows a normal calibre abdominal aorta without aneurysm, but incidentally finds gallstones. The patient has never experienced biliary colic or jaundice and has a normal body mass index with no history of abdominal surgery.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis

      Asymptomatic cholelithiasis, or gallstones without any symptoms, doesn’t require therapeutic intervention. In fact, up to 70% of patients with gallstones are asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis. The risk of prophylactic cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder, is greater than the benefit likely to be gained by removal. However, in a partially calcified ‘porcelain’ gallbladder, removal may be recommended to prevent pancreatitis or cholangitis.

      Open cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure with a longer recovery time and higher risk of complications, is often reserved for patients where laparoscopy is a higher risk. Endoscopic removal of stones is not suitable for asymptomatic cholelithiasis as it doesn’t remove the gallbladder or stones within it.

      If the patient becomes symptomatic, laparoscopic cholecystectomy would be the treatment of choice. However, for asymptomatic patients, the risks of a procedure outweigh the potential benefits of preventing future complications. Lithotripsy, a procedure that breaks up gallstones, is not routinely recommended for the treatment of any gallstones due to the risk of complications.

      Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis

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  • Question 67 - A 65-year-old woman presents for follow up after being prescribed trimethoprim for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents for follow up after being prescribed trimethoprim for a suspected urinary tract infection by an out-of-hours doctor two weeks ago. She reports experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the past six months, which have become increasingly severe and often wake her from sleep. She denies vomiting or diarrhea but notes increased frequency of urination. She has a poor appetite and has lost no weight. On examination, there is no clinical evidence of anemia or jaundice, and PR examination is normal. Which investigation is most likely to reveal the cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Ovarian Cancer: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Tumour Markers

      Patients with ovarian cancer often present with vague abdominal symptoms that may have been wrongly attributed to other conditions such as urinary tract infection or irritable bowel syndrome. The key to establishing a diagnosis is to first think of ovarian cancer as a possibility and then, as always, to obtain a thorough history.

      It helps to think of risk factors as well, because we know that certain factors are associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. These include obesity, late menopause, nulliparity, diabetes, and endometriosis. In terms of symptoms, patients may experience vague abdominal pains, early satiety, and urinary frequency/urgency.

      Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts. CA125 is a tumour marker associated with ovarian cancer and is a valuable test in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer with regard to initial primary care investigations. NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing.

      In summary, a high index of suspicion is needed when considering ovarian cancer as a possibility. It is important to take into account risk factors and symptoms, and to consider the use of tumour markers such as CA125 in certain clinical contexts. By being aware of these factors, healthcare professionals can help to ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of ovarian cancer.

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  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping abdominal pain of several months’ duration. She underwent a hysterectomy and radiotherapy 2 years ago for endometrial carcinoma.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic radiation enteropathy

      Explanation:

      Chronic Radiation Enteropathy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Chronic radiation enteropathy is a progressive disease that can occur months or even years after radiation therapy. It is characterized by transmural bowel damage, obliterative endarteritis, and altered intestinal transit, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea (which may be blood-stained), malabsorption, and dysmotility. Patients with a history of pelvic or abdominal radiation therapy are at risk for developing chronic radiation enteropathy, which can lead to intestinal obstruction, fistula formation, or perforation. Corrective surgery is associated with high morbidity and mortality, and long-term symptoms are common.

      Diagnosis of chronic radiation enteropathy is based on the persistence of symptoms for three or more months following irradiation. Differential diagnosis includes irritable bowel syndrome, lymphoma, pseudomembranous colitis, and ulcerative colitis. However, the history of pelvic radiation is a key factor in distinguishing chronic radiation enteropathy from other conditions. While irritable bowel syndrome may cause diarrhea, blood in the stool is not a typical symptom. Lymphoma and ulcerative colitis may also present with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain, but the history of radiation therapy makes chronic radiation enteropathy more likely. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by infection with Clostridium difficile and is not typically associated with bloody stools.

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  • Question 69 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      He was recently hospitalized for pneumonia and received IV antibiotics. While in the hospital, he developed watery diarrhoea, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. After a stool sample, he was prescribed a 10-day course of oral vancomycin and discharged home. However, his diarrhoea has not improved.

      Upon examination, he appears alert, his vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is non-tender.

      What would be the next course of treatment to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If initial treatment with vancomycin is ineffective against Clostridium difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening.

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, it is likely that he has contracted Clostridium difficile infection due to his recent antibiotic use and possible use of proton-pump inhibitors. Therefore, oral fidaxomicin would be the appropriate second-line treatment option.

      Continuing with vancomycin would not be the best course of action, as fidaxomicin is recommended as the next step if vancomycin is ineffective.

      Using loperamide for symptom relief is not recommended in cases of suspected Clostridium difficile infection, as it may slow down the clearance of toxins produced by the bacteria.

      Piperacillin-tazobactam is not a suitable treatment option for Clostridium difficile infection, as it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can increase the risk of developing the infection.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 70 - You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old woman with coeliac disease.

      Which of the following is indicated as part of her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of the pneumococcal vaccine

      Explanation:

      To prevent overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism, Coeliac UK advises that individuals with coeliac disease receive a pneumococcal infection vaccine and a booster every five years. Pertussis vaccines beyond those in the vaccination schedule are unnecessary. According to NICE CKS guidelines, annual blood tests for FBC, ferritin, thyroid function tests, liver function tests, B12, and folate are recommended. Calprotectin is utilized to assess gut inflammation, often as part of the diagnostic process for inflammatory bowel disease. Faecal occult blood testing is typically conducted if there are concerns about bowel cancer.

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.

      Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 71 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes and generalized itching for the past 5 days. She denies any fever, myalgia, or abdominal pain. She reports that her urine has become darker and her stools have become paler. She has been in good health otherwise.

      The patient had visited the clinic 3 weeks ago for a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 months.

      On examination, the patient appears jaundiced in both her skin and sclera. She has no rash but has multiple scratches on her arms due to itching. There is no palpable hepatosplenomegaly, and she has no abdominal tenderness.

      Laboratory tests reveal:

      - Bilirubin 110 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT 120 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with cholestatic jaundice, likely caused by the oral contraceptive pill. This results in intrahepatic jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis would cause hepatocellular jaundice, while Gilbert’s syndrome is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Choledocholithiasis could also cause obstructive cholestasis. It is appropriate to stop the pill and consider alternative contraception methods, and additional imaging may be necessary if jaundice doesn’t resolve.

      Drug-induced liver disease can be categorized into three types: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there can be some overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of liver changes. Certain drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture, such as paracetamol, sodium valproate, and statins. On the other hand, drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill, flucloxacillin, and anabolic steroids tend to cause cholestasis with or without hepatitis. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone are known to cause liver cirrhosis. It is important to note that there are rare reported causes of drug-induced liver disease, such as nifedipine.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 72 - A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is still experiencing constipation and abdominal discomfort despite trying various laxatives. According to NICE guidelines, linaclotide should be considered as a new medication for patients with IBS with constipation who have not responded to different laxatives. What is the primary mechanism of action of linaclotide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases amount of fluid in the intestinal lumen

      Explanation:

      Anxiety-reducing (alleviates symptoms of distress)

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 73 - A 65-year-old gentleman presents with complaints of 'chest pains'. Upon further discussion, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman presents with complaints of 'chest pains'. Upon further discussion, he reports experiencing postprandial retrosternal burning for the past six months. The symptom has been persistent and occurring daily over that time. He has been using an over-the-counter alginate antacid at least once a day for the last four months, but it has not provided significant relief. A colleague prescribed a 3-month course of PPIs, which he has completed without any cessation of his symptoms.

      The patient is typically healthy with no significant medical history. He has been a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day since the age of 18 and drinks alcohol occasionally. He reports no dysphagia or odynophagia and his weight is stable. He has experienced occasional vomiting when symptomatic but no persistent vomiting. He denies any haematemesis and his bowel habit is stable with no rectal bleeding or black stools.

      Upon examination, he has some angular stomatitis and mild glossitis. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise he takes the alginate preparation after meals TDS and also at night

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Upper GI Endoscopy and GORD Treatment

      According to the latest NICE guidance NG12 (updated in October 2015), patients with certain symptoms should be referred for upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy. Urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy should be offered to those with dysphagia or aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy should be considered for those with haematemesis, treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, raised platelet count with certain symptoms, or nausea/vomiting with certain symptoms.

      For mild gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) symptoms occurring less than once a week, antacids can be used as needed. For more frequent symptoms, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Initial treatment is a high dose PPI for four weeks, taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. If symptoms persist after one month, offer another month at full dose. Doubling the dose of PPI can be considered for severe symptoms. If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsider the diagnosis and consider specialist referral. A H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients with a partial response to PPI treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 74 - A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of jaundice and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of jaundice and weight loss. He reports having pale coloured stool and dark urine. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or fever. He has no significant medical or family history.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pancreatic adenocarcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the key symptoms of this condition is painless jaundice, which is often accompanied by weight loss. This is due to the obstructive jaundice that occurs when the tumor is located at the head of the pancreas. Other symptoms may include pale stools and dark urine.

      It is important to note that patients may present with these symptoms before experiencing abdominal pain. This is why it is crucial to refer any patient aged 40 years and over with jaundice for suspected pancreatic cancer, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance.

      When considering a differential diagnosis, gallstone obstruction and cholecystitis can be ruled out due to the absence of severe abdominal pain. Chronic pancreatitis is also unlikely due to the lack of abdominal pain and the rarity of jaundice as a symptom. Hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but abdominal pain occurs in only 40% of patients.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Any patient with jaundice should be referred for suspected pancreatic cancer, regardless of other symptoms.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 75 - Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 76 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence that have been ongoing for 3 years. She has also noticed a significant weight loss, dropping from 65 kg to 57kg in the past few months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming gluten-containing foods. Upon examination, her BMI is 18.5 kg/m2. An oesopho-gastro-duodenoscopy is performed, and she is diagnosed with coeliac disease through jejunal biopsy. What is the most appropriate procedure to perform at the time of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease Patients: Which Ones are Indicated?

      Coeliac disease is a condition that can increase the risk of osteoporosis due to the malabsorption of calcium. In patients who are at a higher risk of osteoporosis, a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be conducted. This includes patients who have persistent symptoms on a gluten-free diet lasting for at least one year, poor adherence to a gluten-free diet, weight loss of more than 10%, BMI less than 20 kg/m2, or age over 70 years.

      In addition to DEXA scans, other diagnostic tests may be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. Flexible colonoscopy is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients unless specific bowel symptoms or pathology are suspected. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is not indicated for coeliac disease patients unless there is suspected pathology in solid organs such as the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, or kidney. Barium enema is not frequently used and is not specifically indicated for coeliac disease patients. Chest X-ray (CXR) is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients, but may be considered in patients with unexplained weight loss, chronic cough, haemoptysis, or shortness of breath.

      In summary, DEXA scans are indicated for coeliac disease patients at a higher risk of osteoporosis, while other diagnostic tests should be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

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  • Question 77 - You are reviewing a 60-year-old patient who has returned to see you for...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 60-year-old patient who has returned to see you for the results of some recent blood tests.

      Two months previously she had a liver function test that showed a bilirubin of 39 µmol/L (normal range 3-20 µmol/L). A repeat liver function test performed last week has shown the same result. The remainder of her liver profile is within normal limits.

      She is otherwise well and not on any regular medication. She is not overweight, drinks alcohol only occasionally and clinical examination is normal with no stigmata of liver disease. She is asymptomatic.

      Full blood count, renal function, thyroid function, fasting glucose and fasting lipids are all within normal limits.

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request a GGT blood test

      Explanation:

      Management of Isolated Slightly Raised Bilirubin Levels

      When a patient presents with an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is asymptomatic, the next step is to confirm the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If the unconjugated bilirubin is greater than 70%, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome. In this case, if the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to note that the bilirubin level is almost twice the upper limit of normal, which was confirmed on interval testing. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s bilirubin levels and investigate further if necessary.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 78 - A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has persisted since her last pregnancy two years ago. She has been using laxatives for the past few months. She reports no abdominal pain or diarrhoea and has not noticed any triggers or alleviating factors. Her weight is stable and she has not observed any blood in her stools. She is in good health otherwise.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic constipation

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Chronic Constipation: A Differential Diagnosis

      Chronic constipation is a common condition affecting approximately 14% of the global population. While most cases do not require investigation, it is important to consider potential underlying causes in certain patients. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:

      1. Idiopathic constipation: This is the most common cause of chronic constipation, especially in young patients. A high-fiber diet and physical activity can help alleviate symptoms.

      2. Diverticular disease: This condition is characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea, but it usually presents later in life and chronic constipation is a risk factor.

      3. Colon cancer: While chronic constipation can be a symptom of colon cancer, other factors such as weight loss and rectal bleeding are usually present. This diagnosis is unlikely in younger patients.

      4. Hypothyroidism: Constipation can be a symptom of an underactive thyroid, but other symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue are usually present.

      5. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS can cause constipation and/or diarrhea, but it is usually associated with abdominal pain and bloating.

      In summary, chronic constipation can have various underlying causes, and a careful history and physical examination can help determine the appropriate diagnostic approach.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 79 - A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal pain. He has had this issue before and has treated it with over-the-counter remedies. He sometimes experiences food sticking. He smokes 20 cigarettes daily. During the examination, there is some epigastric tenderness, but only upon deep palpation. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease with Red-Flag Symptom

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a common condition that can be managed with lifestyle advice and medication. However, when red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia are present, urgent investigation is necessary to rule out oesophageal cancer.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends urgent direct-access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within two weeks for people with dysphagia. Long-term reflux disease may lead to Barrett’s oesophagus, which requires surveillance endoscopy every two years.

      Lifestyle advice is a key element in managing GORD, including weight loss, alcohol and smoking cessation, small regular meals, avoiding food and hot drinks before bedtime, and raising the head of the bed at night. Antacids are available over the counter but are not sufficient for red-flag symptoms. H2-antagonists are not the first-line treatment for reflux disease, and proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are more effective in relieving heartburn.

      For a new episode of reflux disease, a full dose of PPI is given for a month, and the dose is stepped down or a low-dose PPI is used for recurrent symptoms as required. PPIs are highly effective in symptom relief, but urgent endoscopy is necessary for red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia.

      In summary, the management of GORD involves lifestyle advice and medication, but red-flag symptoms require urgent investigation to rule out oesophageal cancer.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 80 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis after an acute admission...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis after an acute admission to the hospital with bleeding per rectum, fever and abdominal pain. At the time of diagnosis, she was initiated on mesalazine. Her bowel symptoms are now much improved and she is awaiting routine follow-up in the clinic.
      Which of the following side effects should patients be specifically informed of and cautioned about when commencing mesalazine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancytopenia

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Aminosalicylates: What to Watch Out For

      Aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine and sulfasalazine, are drugs used to treat bowel inflammation. While they are generally safe, there are some potential adverse effects to be aware of. Common side effects include headache, nausea, rash, and abdominal pain. Patients may also become more sensitive to sunlight.

      However, aminosalicylates can also rarely cause more serious issues such as blood disorders like agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia. Patients should be advised to report any unexplained bleeding, bruising, sore throat, fever, or malaise, and a full blood count should be performed if these symptoms occur. Nephrotoxicity is another potential adverse effect of mesalazine.

      It’s important to note that mesalazine is not associated with skin pigmentation, corneal deposits, gum hypertrophy, or Parkinsonian features, which are side effects of other drugs. If patients experience any concerning symptoms while taking aminosalicylates, they should speak with their healthcare provider immediately.

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  • Question 81 - A client is administered ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced vomiting. What is the most probable...

    Incorrect

    • A client is administered ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced vomiting. What is the most probable adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Understanding 5-HT3 Antagonists

      5-HT3 antagonists are a type of medication used to treat nausea, particularly in patients undergoing chemotherapy. These drugs work by targeting the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla oblongata, which is responsible for triggering nausea and vomiting. Examples of 5-HT3 antagonists include ondansetron and palonosetron, with the latter being a second-generation drug that has the advantage of having a reduced effect on the QT interval.

      While 5-HT3 antagonists are generally well-tolerated, they can have some adverse effects. One of the most significant concerns is the potential for a prolonged QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications. Additionally, constipation is a common side effect of these medications. Overall, 5-HT3 antagonists are an important tool in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea, but their use should be carefully monitored to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

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  • Question 82 - A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis

      Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.

      Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 83 - You see a 60-year-old man with gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms. He has a previous...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 60-year-old man with gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms. He has a previous diagnosis of Barrett's oesophagus. The old notes show he was previously under regular follow up with the local gastroenterology department but he has not been seen for over three years.

      Over the last four months his gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms have become significantly worse. He experiences daily retrosternal burning after meals which is severe and he has been vomiting at least once a week. His swallow is reportedly normal. There is no history of haematemesis or melaena. You weigh him and he has not lost any significant weight.

      On examination his abdomen is soft, non-tender and with no palpable masses. He takes omeprazole 20 mg once daily which he has done for many years. Since his symptoms have deteriorated he has increased this himself up to 20 mg twice daily. This has not provided any significant symptomatic benefit.

      You refer him urgently for an upper GI endoscopy.

      What advice would you give to the patient while waiting for the endoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add in domperidone to the current dose of omeprazole to try and improve symptom control whilst further investigation is awaited

      Explanation:

      Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy

      Acid suppression medication should be discontinued for at least two weeks before undergoing endoscopy. This is crucial because acid suppression medication can conceal serious underlying conditions. It is also essential to consider the patient’s medical history, especially if there is an unexplained deterioration of dyspepsia. This is particularly important for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus, known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis or intestinal metaplasia, or those who have undergone peptic ulcer surgery more than two decades ago. By taking these precautions, doctors can ensure that endoscopy results are accurate and reliable.

      Spacing:

      Acid suppression medication should be discontinued for at least two weeks before undergoing endoscopy. This is crucial because acid suppression medication can conceal serious underlying conditions.

      It is also essential to consider the patient’s medical history, especially if there is an unexplained deterioration of dyspepsia. This is particularly important for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus, known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis or intestinal metaplasia, or those who have undergone peptic ulcer surgery more than two decades ago.

      By taking these precautions, doctors can ensure that endoscopy results are accurate and reliable.

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  • Question 84 - A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man complains of frequent palpitations. These usually occur when he eats and subside abruptly after he finishes eating. They are not accompanied by chest pain, but, on occasion, he also feels lightheaded. He has no reflux symptoms or dyspepsia. He is otherwise well and on presentation his blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, his pulse is in sinus rhythm, and examination of his heart and abdomen are normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hour portable electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Investigation for Palpitations and Dizziness: A Cardiac Investigation

      When a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac cause is often suspected. While the association with food may be a red herring, the combination of symptoms suggests a need for further investigation. An ECG or examination of the pulse may not reveal an underlying cause unless the patient is experiencing symptoms at that exact moment. Therefore, a 24 hour portable ECG is often recommended to assess the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

      A chest X-ray is unlikely to be helpful in the absence of chest pain or respiratory symptoms. Similarly, an endoscopy may be indicated for dyspeptic symptoms, but the history of palpitations and dizziness suggests a cardiac cause. H. pylori testing is only relevant for dyspeptic symptoms, and thyroid function tests are important for anyone experiencing palpitations, as hyperthyroidism can be a cause.

      In summary, when a patient presents with palpitations and dizziness, a cardiac investigation is the most appropriate first step. A 24 hour portable ECG can provide valuable information about the cardiac rhythm over a longer period of time.

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  • Question 85 - A 25-year-old woman developed nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps 4 hours after consuming...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman developed nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps 4 hours after consuming a salad and a hamburger at a nearby restaurant. She subsequently experienced watery diarrhea a few hours later. Which single organism is most likely responsible for her illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Food Poisoning and Their Symptoms

      Food poisoning can be caused by various bacteria and toxins that contaminate food. Here are some common types of food poisoning and their symptoms:

      1. Staphylococcal food poisoning: This type of food poisoning is caused by preformed enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms include profuse vomiting and watery diarrhea, which can occur 1-6 hours after eating contaminated food.

      2. Yersinia infection: This type of food poisoning is usually associated with improperly cooked meat. Symptoms may appear 3-10 days after ingestion of contaminated food.

      3. Listeria monocytogenes infection: This type of food poisoning can develop from 2 to 70 days after eating contaminated food. Symptoms include mild flu-like symptoms with diarrhea and vomiting, but the elderly, pregnant women, newborns, and immunosuppressed individuals are at risk of more serious consequences.

      4. Vibrio vulnificus-associated food poisoning: This type of food poisoning is caused by contaminated seafood, particularly oysters or undercooked shellfish. Symptoms usually appear 1-7 days after ingestion.

      5. Clostridium perfringens infection: This type of food poisoning is caused by spores that can grow into new cells if cooked food is not promptly served or refrigerated. Symptoms include diarrhea and abdominal pain, but not fever or vomiting. Outbreaks are often linked to institutions or events with catered food.

      It is important to handle and cook food properly to prevent food poisoning. If you experience symptoms of food poisoning, seek medical attention immediately.

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  • Question 86 - A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started on a gluten-free diet.
      Select from the list the single most correct statement about her management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomysial antibodies disappear if the diet is maintained

      Explanation:

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. The resulting damage to the intestinal mucosa can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhoea. However, starting a gluten-free diet can lead to rapid improvement.

      The diet involves avoiding all foods containing wheat, barley, or rye, such as bread, cake, and pies. Oats can be consumed in moderate quantities if they are free from other contaminating cereals, as they do not damage the intestinal mucosa in most coeliac patients. Rice, maize, potatoes, soya, jam, syrup, sugar, and treacle are all allowed. Gluten-free flour, bread, biscuits, and pasta can be prescribed on the NHS, and Coeliac UK provides a list of prescribable products.

      To monitor the response to the diet, serial tTGA or EMA antibodies can be used. If these antibodies continue to be present in the blood, it suggests dietary lapses.

      Supplements of calcium, vitamin D, iron, and folic acid are only necessary if dietary intake is inadequate, which is often the case, particularly in elderly patients. Most patients with coeliac disease have some degree of hyposplenism, which warrants immunisation against influenza, pneumococcus, and H. influenza type B. However, lifelong prophylactic antibiotics are not needed.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 87 - A 63-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, and weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, and weight loss. He reports feeling fatigued and experiencing itching on his back. A recent abdominal x-ray showed no abnormalities. What would be considered the gold standard for managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms

      An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for individuals aged 60 and above who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound, unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia.

      While a gastroenterology opinion may be necessary, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s symptoms are considered red flags and require a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not warranted. This approach ensures timely and appropriate management for elderly patients with potential pancreatic cancer.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 88 - Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, drinking around 35-40 units per week. Samantha denies experiencing any abdominal pain, and her abdominal examination doesn't reveal any pain, but a palpable gallbladder is detected. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:

      - Albumin: 30 g/L
      - Alk Phos: 342 U/L
      - ALT: 95 U/L
      - Bilirubin: 102 mol/L
      - INR: 1.4
      - GGT: 123 U/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer is the most likely cause based on Courvoisier’s sign, which indicates that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones and more likely to be caused by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. Alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, but the absence of pain and an enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a probable cause as it doesn’t typically result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice.

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its nonspecific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with nonspecific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 89 - A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain

      Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:

      1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.

      2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.

      3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).

      4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.

      5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.

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  • Question 90 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss for the past three months. She has been on a gluten-free diet for the last four weeks and feels better. She wants to confirm if she has coeliac disease. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing

      Explanation:

      Before undergoing testing, patients need to consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks. Failure to do so may result in negative results for serological tests and jejunal biopsy, especially if the patient is adhering to a gluten-free diet. To ensure accurate results, patients should consume gluten in multiple meals every day for at least 6 weeks before undergoing further testing.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

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  • Question 91 - A 62-year-old woman presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. She was diagnosed with irritable...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome as a young adult and currently takes hyoscine butylbromide 10-20 mg QDS PRN and loperamide 2 mg PRN for her symptoms. She also has a history of type 1 diabetes diagnosed at the age of 10.

      She has been experiencing intermittent abdominal pains and bloating, as well as periodic bouts of diarrhea for years. Her latest blood tests, which were done as part of her diabetic annual review, show a modest anemia (hemoglobin 105 g/L). Her liver function tests show a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP, which has been the case for the last six to seven years and has not significantly deteriorated. Her thyroid function, bone profile, and ESR are all within normal limits. Her HbA1c is satisfactory at 50 mmol/mol.

      There has been no significant change in her gastrointestinal symptoms recently. She has never had any rectal bleeding or mucous passed per rectum. Her weight is stable. She reports no acute illness but does feel more tired than usual over the last few months. She follows a 'normal' diet. Clinical examination reveals no focal abnormalities. She denies any obvious source of blood loss with no reported gastro-oesophageal reflux, haematemesis, haemoptysis, or haematuria. Urine dipstick testing shows no blood.

      She has no family history of bowel cancer, but her mother and one of her maternal aunts both suffered from irritable bowel syndrome. Follow-up blood tests show low ferritin and folate levels.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this 62-year-old woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure her that no further investigation or treatment is needed as her symptoms are chronic

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Iron Deficiency Anaemia

      Note the low folate levels and anaemia in a type 1 diabetic with chronic gastrointestinal symptoms and liver function test abnormalities. These features suggest coeliac disease, which is often misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. It is recommended by NICE to routinely test for coeliac disease when diagnosing IBS. Family members with IBS should also be investigated for coeliac disease if the diagnosis is confirmed.

      Patients with untreated coeliac disease often have mild liver function test abnormalities and are at increased risk for osteoporosis and hypothyroidism. The low folate levels suggest malabsorption as a possible cause. NICE CKS recommends screening all people with iron deficiency anaemia for coeliac disease using coeliac serology.

      For iron deficiency anaemia without dyspepsia, consider the possibility of gastrointestinal cancer and urgently refer for further investigations. For women who are not menstruating, with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 10 g/100 mL or below, refer urgently within 2 weeks for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations.

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  • Question 92 - A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has suffered with infrequent bouts of abdominal bloating and loose stools on and off for years. These are usually managed with mebeverine and loperamide. The diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome was a clinical one and the only investigation he has had in the past were blood tests.

      Over the last four weeks he has noticed that this has changed and that his bowels have been persistently loose and significantly more frequent than usual. He has no family history of bowel problems.

      On examination he is systemically well with no fever. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. Rectal examination reveals nothing focal. His weight is stable.

      Which of the following investigations should you offer your patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood

      Explanation:

      Investigating Acute Bowel Symptoms in a Patient with Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      When a patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome presents with acute bowel symptoms, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. However, certain investigations may not be appropriate in this context. For example, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not helpful in investigating bowel symptoms. Similarly, CEA tumour marker testing is a specialist investigation and not suitable for primary care. Ca125 is a marker for ovarian cancer and not relevant in this scenario.

      According to NICE guidelines, testing for occult blood in faeces should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or in those under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. Stool mc+s may be requested, but it would not be helpful in risk stratifying the patient for urgent referral for colorectal cancer if an infective aetiology is not suspected. Therefore, it is important to choose appropriate investigations based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

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  • Question 93 - A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents with worsening abdominal distension and ankle swelling. Upon examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic area, but the abdomen is soft with no masses or rebound tenderness. The abdomen appears slightly distended with shifting dullness, and there is pitting edema up to mid-shin level. The patient is stable hemodynamically and shows no signs of jaundice or encephalopathy.

      What medication would be most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is the recommended diuretic for managing ascites, which is suggested by the patient’s history of cirrhosis and increasing abdominal distension. While bendroflumethiazide can be used for hypertension and edema, it is not licensed for ascites. Codeine should be avoided as it can cause constipation, which could increase the risk of encephalopathy. Furosemide is not licensed for ascites, but is used for heart failure and resistant hypertension. Ramipril is primarily used for hypertension, heart failure, chronic kidney disease, and post-myocardial infarction, but is not indicated for ascites management.

      Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.

      However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.

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  • Question 94 - An overweight 35-year-old woman presents with a short history of right upper-quadrant pain,...

    Incorrect

    • An overweight 35-year-old woman presents with a short history of right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. There is no previous history of illness and, apart from the jaundice, she has no signs of chronic liver disease.
      Initial investigations are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 105 fl 80–100fl
      Bilirubin 162 µmol/l 5-26 µmol/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 145 U/l 5–34 U/l
      Alanine transaminase (ALT) 40 U/l < 55 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 126 U/l 30–130 U/l
      Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) 200 U/l 7–33 U/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Acute Right Upper-Quadrant Pain, Fever, and Jaundice: A Differential Diagnosis

      When a patient presents with acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, several conditions may be responsible. A differential diagnosis can help narrow down the possible causes based on the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results. Here are some potential conditions to consider:

      Alcoholic Hepatitis
      If the patient has a raised ALT or AST, alcoholic hepatitis may be the cause. An AST:ALT ratio >2 is typical of alcoholic liver disease or cirrhosis, and a macrocytosis and raised GGT further support this diagnosis.

      Autoimmune Hepatitis
      A short history of right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice may suggest autoimmune hepatitis. However, a raised AST:ALT ratio makes alcoholic liver disease more likely.

      Carcinoma of the Head of the Pancreas
      Painless obstructive jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools are typical of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. As the tumor grows, it may cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back. However, this condition should not present with a fever.

      Cholecystitis
      Cholecystitis can cause similar symptoms, but LFTs would show a different pattern, typically with a raised ALP and GGT and raised bilirubin if the patient is jaundiced. A normal ALP makes cholecystitis less likely.

      Hepatitis A Infection
      Hepatitis A infection can also cause acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. However, significantly raised ALT and AST levels are typical of this condition because the virus replicates within hepatocytes.

      In summary, a differential diagnosis can help identify the possible causes of acute right upper-quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. Laboratory results, such as AST:ALT ratio, macrocytosis, and GGT levels, can provide additional clues to narrow down the diagnosis.

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  • Question 95 - A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of altered bowel habits. He reports experiencing constipation for the past 3 months, followed by occasional episodes of loose stools. He denies any associated pain, rectal bleeding, or unexplained weight loss. The patient is in good health, has a regular diet, and takes no medications. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal immunochemical testing (FIT)

      Explanation:

      For patients who show new symptoms of colorectal cancer but do not meet the 2-week referral criteria, it is recommended to undergo the FIT test. In this case, as the patient is under 60 years old, an urgent referral is not necessary. However, if the change in bowel habit persists, it is important to consider a referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist. It is not appropriate to request a faecal calprotectin test as it is mainly used for suspected IBD cases. A full blood count is necessary, but it should not be the only test performed. The most crucial step in management is to request a FIT test, which can trigger a 2-week wait if the result is positive. While providing reassurance to the patient is important, it should not be done without any investigation as it may lead to missing a potential colorectal cancer.

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

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  • Question 96 - Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.

      Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

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  • Question 97 - A 35-year-old woman with hepatitis C visits your clinic as she is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with hepatitis C visits your clinic as she is considering starting a family. She has no other medical issues. She inquires about the likelihood of her baby contracting hepatitis C.

      What is the probability of the virus being passed from mother to child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75-100%

      Explanation:

      Transmission Rates of Hepatitis B and C from Mother to Child

      The transmission rate of hepatitis B virus from mother to child can be as high as 90%, while the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus is only about 6%. This is because the neonatal immune system is not yet mature enough to fight off the hepatitis B virus, but it is able to fight off the hepatitis C virus to some extent. However, if the mother is also HIV positive, the transmission rate of hepatitis C virus can be higher. It is important to take time to understand this information before making any decisions.

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  • Question 98 - A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a recent exacerbation that required oral corticosteroids for remission. He reports feeling well with no abdominal symptoms, but has had four exacerbations in the past year that required treatment with oral corticosteroids. His current medications include paracetamol and mesalazine. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdominal exam is unremarkable. His recent blood test results show no significant abnormalities. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended next step in managing his ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral thiopurines (azathioprine or mercaptopurine)

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

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  • Question 99 - A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He has recently been released from the hospital after experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed caused by oesophageal varices. He informs you that he has quit drinking and inquires about the likelihood of experiencing another bleeding episode.
      What is the accurate statement regarding the risk of future bleeding from oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of re-bleeding is greater than 60% within a year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variceal Haemorrhage: Causes, Complications, and Prognosis

      Variceal haemorrhage is a common complication of portal hypertension, with almost 90% of cirrhosis patients developing varices and 30% experiencing bleeding. The mortality rate for the first episode is high, ranging from 30-50%. The severity of liver disease and associated systemic disorders worsen the prognosis, increasing the likelihood of a bleed. Patients who have had one episode of bleeding have a high chance of recurrence within a year, with one-third of further episodes being fatal. While abstaining from alcohol can slow the progression of liver disease, it cannot reverse portal hypertension. Understanding the causes, complications, and prognosis of variceal haemorrhage is crucial for effective management and prevention.

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  • Question 100 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of intermittent central...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of intermittent central abdominal pain and bloating, which is often relieved when she opens her bowels. She also experiences loose stools and occasional urgency to pass a stool. These symptoms have been occurring on and off for about six months, and she has not experienced any weight loss or bleeding. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. The patient has recently been promoted to a more responsible position at work. What is the most appropriate intervention to relieve this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mebeverine

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Medications for Irritable Bowel Syndrome: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), including abdominal pain relieved by defecation and the absence of red-flag symptoms. The likely cause of her flare-up is increased stress following a job promotion. Antispasmodics such as mebeverine are appropriate for symptomatic relief of abdominal pain in IBS, while omeprazole is not indicated for this patient. Domperidone is not necessary for the relief of nausea and vomiting, and lactulose is not recommended due to potential bloating. Linaclotide is not appropriate for this patient as her symptoms have only been present for six months and there is no evidence that other laxatives have failed. Overall, mebeverine and lifestyle changes are the recommended interventions for this patient with IBS.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 101 - A 40-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and frequent bowel movements. Upon testing, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and frequent bowel movements. Upon testing, it is found that she has positive anti-endomysial antibodies. Which of the following food items should she avoid, except for one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maize

      Explanation:

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.

      Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.

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  • Question 102 - A 57-year-old male presents with generalised fatigue and upper abdominal discomfort with some...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents with generalised fatigue and upper abdominal discomfort with some weight loss over the last six months.

      He has otherwise been well but admits to consuming 10 units of alcohol per day.

      On examination you note 2 cm hepatomegaly.

      Liver function tests show an:
      ALT 100 IU/L (5-35)
      AST 210 IU/L (1-31)
      Alkaline Phosphatase 250 IU/L (45-105)
      MCV 110 fL (80-96)

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcoholic Hepatitis

      Alcoholic hepatitis is a condition that occurs due to prolonged and heavy consumption of alcohol, leading to progressive liver inflammation. The symptoms of this condition include a subacute onset of fever, hepatomegaly, leukocytosis, and marked impairment of liver function. The liver exhibits characteristic centrilobular ballooning necrosis of hepatocytes, neutrophilic infiltration, large mitochondria, and Mallory hyaline inclusions. In addition, steatosis (fatty liver) and cirrhosis are common in patients with alcoholic hepatitis.Proper management and cessation of alcohol consumption can help improve the prognosis of patients with alcoholic hepatitis.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 103 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have significantly worsened over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:

      Hb 10.9 g/dl
      Platelets 199 * 109/l
      WBC 7.2 * 109/l
      Ferritin 15 ng/ml
      Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
      Folate 2.1 nmol/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      The key indicators in this case suggest that the patient may have coeliac disease, as evidenced by her anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate. While her description of diarrhoea is typical, some patients may have more visibly fatty stools.

      It is unlikely that the patient has irritable bowel syndrome, as her blood test results would not be consistent with this diagnosis. While menorrhagia may explain her anaemia and low ferritin levels, it would not account for the low folate.

      Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, and exams typically provide more clues to suggest a diagnosis of Crohn’s (such as mouth ulcers).

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 104 - Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he...

    Incorrect

    • Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he was aged five having been referred to the paediatricians with failure to thrive and anaemia.

      He is very aware of foods that may cause problems, but wants to know if there are any drinks that should be avoided when he goes out clubbing with friends.

      Which one of the following drinks can he safely ingest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whiskey

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Gluten-Free Alcohol

      Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foodstuffs that contain gluten. This means that anything made with wheat, barley, and oats (in some cases) should be avoided. When it comes to alcohol, beers, lagers, stouts, and real ales, whether alcoholic or not, must be avoided due to their gluten content. However, there are now several gluten-free beers and lagers available in the market.

      On the other hand, wine, champagne, port, sherry, ciders, liqueurs, and spirits, including whiskey, are all gluten-free. Although whiskey is initially made from barley, the distilling process involved in its production removes the gluten, making it safe for coeliacs to consume. It is essential for individuals with coeliac disease to be mindful of their alcohol intake and to choose gluten-free options to avoid any adverse reactions.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 105 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and seeks advice on managing her condition. What treatment option is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

      When it comes to treating irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there are several options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends tricyclic antidepressants as a second-line treatment if other medications have not been effective. Treatment should start at a low dose and be reviewed regularly. Acupuncture and aloe vera are not recommended by NICE for the treatment of IBS. It is suggested to limit intake of high-fibre foods and increase intake of fresh fruit, but to limit it to three portions per day. It’s important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.

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      • Gastroenterology
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