00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old male visits his eye doctor for evaluation. His brother has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male visits his eye doctor for evaluation. His brother has been diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma, and he is worried that he may also have the same condition as his eyesight is deteriorating. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and prostate cancer.
      What signs or symptoms would indicate a diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypermetropia

      Correct Answer: Myopia

      Explanation:

      Myopia is commonly associated with primary open-angle glaucoma, while hypermetropia is associated with acute angle closure glaucoma. Astigmatism, which is characterized by a rugby ball-shaped cornea, can be linked to either myopia or hypermetropia. Central scotoma, a blurred vision point in the center of the visual field, is often observed in optic nerve glioma, multiple sclerosis, or alcohol-induced ophthalmic disease. Glaucoma, on the other hand, is more likely to cause peripheral or off-center scotoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 78-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents to the oncology clinic for follow-up. Despite multiple rounds of radiotherapy, there has been no improvement in his condition and he is now receiving palliative care. During the visit, he mentions that his daughter has noticed a change in his facial appearance. Upon examination, the physician observes drooping of the right eyelid and a smaller right pupil. What other symptom is indicative of Horner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral loss of sweating of the face

      Explanation:

      The answer is the loss of sweating on the same side of the face as the affected eye. This could indicate Horner’s syndrome, which is often caused by a Pancoast’s tumor. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by a drooping eyelid, a constricted pupil, sunken eyes, and a lack of sweating on one side of the face. Although a tumor that causes damage to the brachial plexus and results in arm nerve function loss may be present, it is not a symptom of Horner’s syndrome.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following statements regarding the management of conjunctivitis is incorrect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the management of conjunctivitis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid is used in preference to chloramphenicol in pregnant women

      Correct Answer: Contact lens may be worn once topical antibiotic treatment has been started

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to wear contact lenses while experiencing conjunctivitis.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painless, firm lump on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painless, firm lump on her right upper eyelid. She mentions that it has been present for approximately two weeks and initially started as a small, tender swelling. There are no indications of infection and her vision remains unaffected.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meibomian cyst

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a painless swelling or lump on their eyelid, most likely a meibomian cyst (chalazion). This is caused by a blocked gland and typically appears as a firm, painless swelling away from the margin of the eyelid. While a hordeolum (stye) can present similarly in the initial stages, it is usually painful and self-limiting. Blepharitis, which causes crusting, redness, swelling, and itching of both eyelids, is not present in this case. An epidermal inclusion cyst is a less likely cause given the short history of only two weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which statement about childhood squints is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about childhood squints is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The corneal light reflection test is a suitable screening test

      Explanation:

      Both paralytic and non-paralytic squints can lead to the development of amblyopia.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also felt a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
      On examination, his visual acuities were 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left was red. The cornea was tested with fluorescein and it showed an uptake in the centre of the cornea, which looked like a dendrite. You examined his face and noticed some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
      What is the first-line treatment for this patient’s eye condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antiviral ointment such as acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for this condition is topical antiviral ointment, such as acyclovir 3% ointment, which should be applied for 10-14 days. Topical artificial tears and topical antibiotic drops or ointment are not indicated for this condition. In fact, the use of topical steroid drops, such as prednisolone, may worsen the ulcer and should be avoided until the corneal ulcer is healed. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to manage herpes simplex keratitis effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. He also reports experiencing eye itchiness. What is the most probable diagnosis to accompany seborrhoeic dermatitis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis, dry eye syndrome, and acne rosacea are conditions that may be linked to blepharitis. However, the treatment for blepharitis remains consistent, with patients advised to clean their eyelids twice daily and use a warm compress with their eyes closed for 5-10 minutes. There is no apparent reason for an elevated risk of the other conditions mentioned.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision in...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of blurred vision in her right eye for the past few months. She reports that straight lines appear crooked or wavy, but only in the center of her right visual field. She has never used glasses or contact lenses. During the examination, a central scotoma is observed in the right eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Vision can be affected by various eye disorders, with macular degeneration causing loss of central field and primary open-angle glaucoma causing loss of peripheral field.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been ongoing for 3 days. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, as well as type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.

      During the examination, his visual acuity is found to be 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. Upon direct fundoscopy, the optic disc margins appear ill-defined and raised in both eyes. Additionally, there are cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypertensive Retinopathy

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. In this case, the patient has grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy according to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification. The fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling with cotton-wool spots, indicating optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension. Despite being on multiple medications to control hypertension, the patient’s blood pressure is difficult to manage.

      While considering the diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy, it is important to rule out other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. An intracranial space-occupying lesion is not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis can present with loss of optic nerve function, but it is more commonly unilateral and does not typically involve cotton-wool spots. Pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy are also unlikely given the patient’s well-controlled type II diabetes.

      In conclusion, the patient’s presentation is most consistent with hypertensive retinopathy. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule them out through further evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision has worsened in the last six months. He has never smoked and is currently using antioxidant supplements. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explain no other medical therapies currently available

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old male comes to you with a complaint of sudden vision loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male comes to you with a complaint of sudden vision loss. He denies any previous symptoms or head injury and reports no pain. Upon conducting a fundoscopy, you observe significant retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old patient is receiving medical treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma and experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is receiving medical treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma and experiences side effects of increased eyelash length, iris, and periocular pigmentation. What medication class is responsible for these effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin analogues

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin analogues can cause hyperaemia, increased eyelash growth, periocular skin pigmentation, and increased iris pigmentation as side effects. On the other hand, beta-blockers have the potential to exacerbate asthma and heart block, unlike the other options mentioned.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.

      Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.

      Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.

      Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.

      Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden onset of painful redness in her left eye. The left eye has significantly reduced visual acuity compared to the right eye. During a slit-lamp examination, you observe the presence of pus in the anterior chamber.
      What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid eye drops and cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid eye drops and cycloplegic eye drops. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of eye pain, redness, and decreased vision, along with sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the affected pupil may appear small and there may be pus in the front part of the eye. In case of suspected infective anterior uveitis, consultation with an ophthalmologist is necessary. Dorzolamide is a medication used to reduce aqueous production in primary open-angle glaucoma, while IV acetazolamide is indicated for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analogue that increases uveoscleral outflow and is also used in primary open-angle glaucoma. It is important to provide prompt treatment for anterior uveitis to prevent permanent vision loss.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old nursing student is experiencing intense pain in their left eye after...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old nursing student is experiencing intense pain in their left eye after returning from a clinical placement in South America. When asked, they admitted to swimming with their contact lens in freshwater. Upon examination, their left eye appeared slightly red, but no other significant clinical signs were observed. What is the probable organism responsible for their symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthamoeba

      Explanation:

      Acanthamoebic keratitis is characterized by severe pain that is disproportionate to the clinical presentation, and is often associated with a history of recent freshwater swimming while wearing contact lenses. Other symptoms may include pseudodendritic ulcers, epithelial defects, anterior uveitis, and perforation in advanced cases. Cat scratch disease caused by Bartonella henselae typically presents with neuroretinitis and a macular star, as well as systemic symptoms and lymphadenopathy. Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi may result in a follicular conjunctivitis or panuveitis, and is often accompanied by a target rash and systemic symptoms. While HSV can cause keratitis, it typically presents with a dendritic ulcer.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinoscopy

      Explanation:

      Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses

      When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.

      Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A mother brings her 4-year-old son to her General Practitioner. She has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old son to her General Practitioner. She has noticed that when her son gets tired, his left eye appears to deviate to the left. The child is referred to an ophthalmologist for further tests.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test to assess strabismus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cover test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Strabismus: Tests and Procedures

      Strabismus, commonly known as a squint, is a condition where the visual axis is misaligned, causing one eye to deviate from the object being viewed. The cover test is a useful tool in assessing strabismus, where one eye is covered while the other is observed for a shift in fixation. If this is positive, it is a manifest squint. Another test is the cover/uncover test, where one eye is covered and then uncovered to observe for movement of that eye, indicating a latent squint.

      The Ishihara test is used to assess colour vision and is not an initial test for evaluating strabismus. An MRI brain may be requested if an underlying neurological cause is suspected, but it is not an initial test. Retinal photography is not a first-line test for children presenting with possible strabismus, but the red reflex should be tested to exclude leukocoria, which may suggest a serious cause for the squint such as retinoblastoma. Tonometry is used to measure intraocular pressure and diagnose glaucoma, but it is not used in the assessment of strabismus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness, and pain in her left eye. She reports experiencing some discomfort and redness earlier in the day, which worsened over the next two hours. She has no history of trauma or other visual problems. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis, left eye cataract surgery three days ago, and no significant family history.

      Upon examination, the left eye appears hyperemic with hypopyon, and eye movements are painful. Visual acuity is severely impaired, while the right eye appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endophthalmitis

      Explanation:

      Post-operative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication that can occur after cataract surgery and requires immediate treatment.

      If a patient experiences sudden pain, redness, and vision loss shortly after eye surgery, it may indicate post-operative endophthalmitis. This infection affects the aqueous and vitreous humor of the eye and is a rare complication of any eye surgery.

      While anterior uveitis can also cause a painful red eye, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history of cataract surgery. Additionally, there is no mention of an irregularly-shaped pupil or any systemic disease associated with anterior uveitis.

      A corneal ulcer is another possibility, but it typically presents with a sensation of a foreign body in the eye and discharge. It is also more common in contact lens wearers who have been exposed to water.

      Retinal detachment is less likely because it usually causes visual disturbances such as floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain descending over the peripheral visual field. Although ocular surgery is a risk factor for retinal detachment, it would not cause the intense redness and hypopyon seen in post-operative endophthalmitis.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A parent brings her daughter in for surgery suspecting a squint. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings her daughter in for surgery suspecting a squint. She believes her left eye is 'turned inwards'. You conduct a cover test to gather more information. What result would indicate a left esotropia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: On covering the left eye the right eye moves laterally to take up fixation

      Explanation:

      Squints can be categorized based on the direction in which the eye deviates. If the eye turns towards the nose, it is called esotropia. If it turns towards the temporal side, it is called exotropia. If it turns upwards, it is called hypertropia, and if it turns downwards, it is called hypotropia. For instance, when the left eye is covered, the right eye may move laterally from its esotropic position towards the center to focus on an object.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man presents to the eye clinic with a 12-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the eye clinic with a 12-hour history of flashers and floaters in his left eye. The patient denies any other vision problems and is in good health, except for a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bilateral cataracts. He lives alone, does not smoke, and wears glasses. On examination of the left eye using a slit lamp, a small tear is observed in the inferior part of the retina, with the surrounding area appearing crinkled. What is the primary risk factor associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myopia

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment can be caused by various risk factors, including diabetes mellitus, ageing, previous eye surgery, eye trauma, and myopia. In this case, a 73-year-old man presented with flashers and floaters in his right eye, which were indicative of retinal detachment. Myopia, which is characterized by an elongated eyeball, can increase the tension on the retina and is therefore a risk factor for this condition. It is important to note that blocked trabecular meshwork, cataract formation, and hyperopia are not associated with retinal detachment.

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of type I diabetes visits her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of type I diabetes visits her GP complaining of a 4-day decrease in visual acuity on her left side. During the examination, she reports that the object used appears to have a different color when using her left eye compared to her right eye. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest optic neuritis as the most likely diagnosis, which can be associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, and syphilis. The patient has experienced a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a few days and has difficulty distinguishing colors, particularly with red appearing washed out, pink, or orange when viewed with the affected eye. The blind spot assessment is significant because it typically involves a red-tipped object, which may further highlight the patient’s red desaturation. Other exam findings may include pain with eye movement, a relative afferent pupillary defect, and a central scotoma. Acute angle-closure glaucoma would not typically cause color desaturation, and type I diabetes is not a risk factor for this condition. While type I diabetes can increase the risk of age-related macular degeneration, patients typically present with a gradual reduction in visual acuity without affecting color vision. Cataracts can also cause faded color vision, but the history would typically span several weeks to months.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old female presents with sudden, painful vision loss in her right eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents with sudden, painful vision loss in her right eye. She has also experienced a dull chest pain, lost 4 kg of weight, and had a low-grade fever for the past three months. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of non-caseating granulomata. The exact cause of this condition is still unknown, but it is commonly observed in young adults and often affects the chest, resulting in a radiographic appearance of bilateral hilar enlargement. To diagnose sarcoidosis, doctors look for compatible clinical, radiological, and histological findings. In some cases, the eyes can also be affected, leading to anterior or posterior uveitis.

      It is important to note that sarcoidosis can be easily mistaken for other medical conditions, such as lymphoma. However, lymphoma is far less likely to occur and is not associated with uveitis or visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 55-year-old woman who is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 55-year-old woman who is experiencing excruciating pain around her right eye. She has tried over-the-counter drops from the chemist, but they have not provided any relief. Although she has no significant medical history, she has been working 12-hour night shifts as a bank nurse. Upon examination, you notice a mild vesicular rash on the conjunctiva, but the eye itself appears normal under direct vision. Her visual acuity is normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir and urgent ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action for suspected herpes zoster ophthalmicus is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist and a 7-10 day course of oral antivirals such as acyclovir. Prescribing high dose oral steroids or topical dexamethasone is not the appropriate treatment for this condition. While direct referral to the emergency department may result in eventual referral to ophthalmology and treatment, it is not the most efficient or effective approach.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old man presents with painful weeping rashes on his right upper eyelid...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with painful weeping rashes on his right upper eyelid and forehead, accompanied by acute punctate keratopathy. He had undergone chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma about a year ago. No other abnormalities are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Increased Risk of Herpes Zoster in Immunocompromised Patients

      Immunosuppressed individuals who have undergone organ transplantation, as well as those with cancer, leukaemia, and AIDS, are more susceptible to developing herpes zoster. This condition, commonly known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which remains dormant in the body after a previous chickenpox infection.

      In cases of herpes zoster ophthalmicus, where the virus affects the eye and surrounding areas, the presence of the Hutchinson sign – a rash on the tip of the nose supplied by the external nasal nerve – indicates a higher risk of developing uveitis, an inflammation of the eye uvea. It is important for immunocompromised patients to be aware of this increased risk and seek prompt medical attention if they experience any symptoms of herpes zoster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. He has no past medical history and is allergic to penicillin.
      On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis.
      Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 bpm
      Respiratory rate 18 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 98% on air
      Temperature 37.9 °C
      What is first-line management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Penicillin-Allergic Patients with Orbital Cellulitis

      When treating a patient with orbital cellulitis who is allergic to penicillin, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. One option is to administer clindamycin and ciprofloxacin intravenously. However, cefuroxime alone is not sufficient and requires the addition of metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav should not be used in penicillin-allergic patients, and Tazocin® is also not recommended. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary for the treatment of orbital cellulitis unless there are signs of an abscess. By considering these options, healthcare providers can effectively treat penicillin-allergic patients with orbital cellulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a foreign...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a foreign body sensation in his left eye. He reports experiencing pain and sensitivity to light on the left side. When asked about eye protection, he states that he wears it 99% of the time. Upon examination, you notice crusty, gold-colored lesions on his face. Using a slit lamp and fluorescein eye stain, you identify a dendritic ulcer in his left eye.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex keratitis

      Explanation:

      A dendritic ulcer seen on fluorescein eye stain is indicative of herpes simplex keratitis, which is the likely diagnosis in this case. While mechanics may be at a higher risk for photokeratitis, it typically does not cause a foreign body sensation. While the other options are possible, the presence of a dendritic ulcer is a key diagnostic feature.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old woman presented with a complaint of gradual loss of vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presented with a complaint of gradual loss of vision in her right eye over the past 3 days. She reported a sensation of a 'curtain' coming from the right inferotemporal side towards the centre, along with flashes of lights at the right inferotemporal side and an increase in the number of floaters in her right eye. Upon examination, her vision in the right eye was measured at 6/18, while her left eye was 6/6. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superonasal retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Different Locations of Retinal Detachment and their Corresponding Symptoms

      Retinal detachment can occur in different locations of the retina, and the symptoms experienced by the patient depend on the location of the detachment. For instance, a superonasal retinal detachment will cause a curtain-like vision from the right inferotemporal side towards the center, along with flashes at the right inferotemporal side. However, it is more common for retinal detachment to start at the upper temporal quadrant of the retina.

      On the other hand, an inferonasal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superotemporal side, while an inferior retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superior side. Similarly, an inferotemporal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superonasal side, and a superotemporal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the inferonasal side.

      Therefore, understanding the location of the retinal detachment is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition. Patients experiencing any of these symptoms should seek immediate medical attention to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - As part of a learning exercise, an elderly person drew a small black...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a learning exercise, an elderly person drew a small black square and a black circle, 4 inches horizontally apart, on a piece of white paper. The elderly person then held the paper at arm’s length and closed their left eye, while focusing on the black square, which was to the left of the black circle, with their right eye. They moved the paper slowly towards them until the black circle disappeared.
      Which of the following anatomical structures is responsible for the disappearance of the black circle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic disc

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Eye: Optic Disc, Macula Lutea, Fovea Centralis, Dilator Pupillae, and Sphincter Pupillae

      The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. Within the eye, there are several important structures that play a role in vision. Here are five key components of the eye and their functions:

      1. Optic Disc: This is the area where the optic nerve exits the retina. It lacks photoreceptor cells, creating a blind spot in our visual field. The optic disc is lighter in color than the surrounding retina and is the point from which branches of the central retinal artery spread out to supply the retina.

      2. Macula Lutea: This small, yellow-colored area is located next to the optic disc. It has a higher visual sensitivity than other areas of the retina.

      3. Fovea Centralis: This is the central depression of the macula lutea and contains the largest number of densely compact cone photoreceptors. It has the highest visual sensitivity of any area of the retina.

      4. Dilator Pupillae: This structure is found in the iris and is innervated by sympathetic fibers. It dilates the pupillary opening.

      5. Sphincter Pupillae: Also found in the iris, this structure is innervated by parasympathetics and constricts the pupillary opening.

      Understanding the anatomy of the eye and how these structures work together is essential for maintaining good vision and identifying potential problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old man visited his GP complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visited his GP complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in his right eye that occurred 2 hours ago. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes requiring insulin, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Upon further inquiry, he mentioned experiencing brief flashes of light before a dense shadow that began in the periphery and moved towards the center. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition that can cause a sudden and painless loss of vision. It is characterized by a dense shadow that starts in the peripheral vision and gradually moves towards the center, along with increased floaters and flashes of light.

      Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is a condition where the blood flow to the retina of one eye is blocked, resulting in sudden loss of vision in that eye. This is usually caused by an embolus and does not typically present with floaters, flashing lights, or dense shadows.

      Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion can cause sudden vision loss in one eye, but it is often described as blurry or distorted vision rather than the symptoms seen in retinal detachment.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache that is most intense in the morning. Despite taking paracetamol, the symptoms have persisted for several weeks. She also experiences vomiting in the mornings and has noticed blurry vision. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive, and there are no abnormalities in her systemic examination. What would you anticipate observing during fundoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blurring of optic disc margin

      Explanation:

      Papilloedema is characterized by a blurry appearance of the optic disc margin during fundoscopy.

      The patient in question is experiencing elevated intracranial pressure, the cause of which is uncertain. Their symptoms, including a morning headache, vision impairment, and vomiting, are indicative of papilloedema. As such, it is expected that their fundoscopy would reveal signs of this condition, such as a blurred optic disc margin.

      Other potential indicators of papilloedema include a loss of optic cup and venous pulsation. However, increased arterial reflex is more commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy, while retinal pigmentation is a hallmark of retinitis pigmentosa.

      Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.

      Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (1/3) 33%
Passmed