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  • Question 1 - A mother brings in her 8-year-old boy to see you who has Down...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 8-year-old boy to see you who has Down syndrome.
      Recently she has noticed he is lethargic with a tendency to bleeding gums. On examination he looks a bit pale but not unduly so. His diet is poor, including a lot of fast food.
      Which of the following conditions would you be most concerned about in terms of his symptoms and increased risk?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune anaemia

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Down Syndrome and Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Although it may be tempting to overlook certain conditions, it is important to note that individuals with Down syndrome have a higher likelihood of developing acute lymphoblastic leukaemia compared to the general population. This correlation is well-established and should not be ignored. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of this increased risk and to monitor individuals with Down syndrome accordingly. By doing so, early detection and treatment can be initiated, potentially improving outcomes for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She is currently carrying a twin pregnancy without any complications and her pregnancy is progressing smoothly. She has no other medical issues. The patient is planning to travel to Bangladesh to visit her family and seeks advice on the matter.

      What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide to the patient?

      Your Answer: Most airlines will not allow travel after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies, and she will require a note from her doctor or midwife when she is over 28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women can generally fly safely if their pregnancy is progressing well, but it is important to check with the airline and insurance company before traveling. However, most airlines have restrictions on travel after 37 weeks of pregnancy or after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies. Additionally, women over 28 weeks pregnant may need a letter from their doctor or midwife confirming their due date and good health. It is also recommended to bring along pregnancy notes when traveling.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling constantly fatigued. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she reports having stiff joints, there is no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:

      Hb 12.5 g/dl
      Platelets 135 * 109/l
      WBC 3.5 * 109/l

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l

      Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
      TSH 1.30 mu/l
      CRP 8 mg/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: A Multisystem Autoimmune Disorder

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It typically develops in early adulthood and is more common in women and individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, as well as a discoid rash that is scaly, erythematous, and well-demarcated in sun-exposed areas. Other skin symptoms may include photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia.

      Musculoskeletal symptoms of SLE may include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis, while cardiovascular symptoms may include pericarditis and myocarditis. Respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis, and renal symptoms may include proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, psychosis, and seizures. Overall, SLE is a complex and challenging condition that requires careful management and ongoing support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at home this morning. According to his mother, he has vomited twice and is now feeling very tired. During the examination, the child is cooperative and doesn't resist. His temperature is 38.1 degrees Celsius, and a non-blanching rash is visible on both thighs. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this child?

      Your Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin sodium 1.2g

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin sodium 600mg

      Explanation:

      For a child aged 1-9 years, the recommended single dose of benzylpenicillin sodium prior to hospitalisation is 600mg, provided that it doesn’t cause any delay in transferring the child to the hospital. Any other dosage would be inappropriate for children in this age group.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      143.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Your practice offers minor surgery including vasectomies. One of your elderly patients arranges...

    Correct

    • Your practice offers minor surgery including vasectomies. One of your elderly patients arranges to come for an initial consultation, during which he tells you he is nervous about the procedure. You answer his questions and he signs a consent form. He also says while signing: Look, whatever happens on the day, just get on with it, and don't stop!

      A couple of weeks later, he comes in for the procedure, and lies on the operating table, looking nervous. You inject the anaesthetic without difficulty, but just as you make the first incision, he calls out: No, I can't go through with it! However, he remains lying on the operating table.

      What do you do?

      Your Answer: Stop the procedure and check with him if he really wants you to stop

      Explanation:

      Understanding Consent in Medical Procedures

      Consent is a dynamic and reversible state in medical procedures. A patient may give their consent to a procedure at one moment and retract it the next. A signed consent form only serves as evidence that the patient agreed to the procedure at the time of signing. Implied consent can also be given through a patient’s actions, such as lying down on an operating table. However, the absence of action doesn’t necessarily imply continued consent.

      It is important to note that a patient cannot consent to relinquishing their right to self-determination. Even if a patient says just get on with it, it is not a valid consent to proceed. If a patient consents to a sedative, it can be administered, but only after the patient has given explicit consent. It is crucial to respect a patient’s autonomy and ensure that they are fully informed and consenting before proceeding with any medical procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      176.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment eight weeks after an anterior MI. He reports no further episodes of chest pain or shortness of breath, but he is experiencing significant fatigue. On cardiovascular examination, there are no signs of cardiac failure.
      The patient discloses feeling down for the past month, struggling with sleep, and having a poor appetite. He is anxious about the future and avoiding social interactions with colleagues and friends. He expresses a lack of motivation and purpose in life. He has a history of two severe depressive episodes and a mild episode about a year ago, which responded well to a low dose of amitriptyline.
      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Suggest he starts taking sertraline, and review him within the next two weeks

      Correct Answer: Stop his beta blocker medication, as this is probably what is making him so tired

      Explanation:

      Treating Post-MI Depression

      Patients who have suffered a heart attack are at an increased risk of developing depression. It is crucial to identify and treat post-MI depression promptly. In this case, the patient is experiencing persistent low mood, anhedonia, sleep disturbance, and loss of appetite, indicating the need for immediate treatment. While assessing his symptoms using the PHQ-9 depression questionnaire is appropriate, delaying treatment is not advisable.

      It is essential to continue the patient’s beta-blocker treatment as it is appropriate post-MI therapy. While it is reasonable to explain that post-MI depression is not uncommon, active treatment should be initiated immediately if the patient agrees. Amitriptyline should not be used as it increases the risk of arrhythmias, and the patient is already at a higher risk following his MI. Sertraline is a well-tolerated and effective treatment for post-MI depression and should be considered. Proper identification and treatment of post-MI depression can significantly improve the patient’s quality of life and overall prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      152.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program....

    Correct

    • A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program. She had a normal delivery at 40 weeks and was discharged home with her parents. The hearing screening was abnormal and a follow-up test is required to confirm.

      What is the follow-up test needed in this case?

      Your Answer: Auditory brainstem response test

      Explanation:

      If a baby is found to have an abnormal hearing test at birth, they will be offered an auditory brainstem response test as a follow-up. This test involves placing electrodes on the scalp to measure auditory evoked potentials after sounds are played, and can indicate reduced hearing ability if there is no response.

      It is not appropriate to use a distraction test on a newborn, as they are not yet developed enough for this type of testing. This test is typically used for toddlers aged 6-9 months, and requires two staff members to assess the loudness required for the baby to react to sounds produced out of their field of view.

      Newborn otoacoustic emission testing is the initial screening assessment for hearing loss, but further investigations are needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test involves generating a click sound through an earpiece and measuring for the presence of a soft echo that indicates a healthy cochlea.

      Pure tone audiometry is not an appropriate second-line hearing investigation for newborns, as it requires the input of the participant when they hear specific sounds and is typically used in school-aged children.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      93.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man is worried about passing on his genetic condition to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is worried about passing on his genetic condition to his unborn son. Which genetic disorder is most likely to be inherited by a male child?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Genetic Inheritance Patterns of Common Conditions

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia is an autosomal-dominant condition, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing on the condition to both sons and daughters. A person with the condition has one mutant gene and one normal gene or two mutant genes on a pair of autosomal chromosomes.

      Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal-recessive condition, which means that a man with cystic fibrosis could have an affected son if his partner is a carrier. However, men with cystic fibrosis are almost always infertile due to congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens.

      Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an X-linked condition, which means that none of the sons of an affected man will be affected or be carriers, whereas all his daughters will be carriers and at risk of having affected sons. Affected people usually die in their twenties or thirties.

      Haemophilia A is also an X-linked condition, where sons will be unaffected and daughters will be carriers.

      Phenylketonuria is autosomal recessive, so the man could have an affected son if his wife is a carrier. However, it is much less common than familial hypercholesterolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man has a range of symptoms.

    He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has a range of symptoms.

      He has a history of heroin addiction and you suspect that he is currently experiencing withdrawal from heroin.

      Which of the following symptoms would be unusual for heroin withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Rhinorrhea

      Correct Answer: Yawning

      Explanation:

      Heroin Withdrawal Symptoms

      People experiencing heroin withdrawal often experience insomnia instead of feeling sleepy. However, all the other symptoms are typical. Heroin withdrawal can cause a range of physical and psychological symptoms, including muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anxiety, depression, and intense drug cravings. These symptoms can be extremely uncomfortable and can last for several days or even weeks. It is important for individuals going through heroin withdrawal to seek medical attention and support to manage their symptoms and increase their chances of successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are asked to see a 64-year-old woman known to have breast cancer.
    Her...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 64-year-old woman known to have breast cancer.
      Her family has become worried as yesterday she seemed to be behaving 'oddly'. They tell you that her behaviour has become inappropriate and that she has been walking around the house naked and been swearing a lot in conversation. Prior to yesterday she was her 'usual self'.
      The family also report that she seems to be passing urine and opening her bowels as per usual and that she has been eating and drinking fine.
      Examination reveals that the patient is alert and uncomplaining. Temperature is 37.1°C, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 86 regular. Systems examination doesn't reveal anything acute aside from the patient swearing frequently and talking about inappropriate topics of conversation. Urine dipstick testing reveals 'trace' of blood and protein.
      Which if the following investigations will confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Correct Answer: Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Considerations for a Patient with Metastatic Cancer and Acute Change in Mental Status

      A variety of factors need to be considered when a patient with metastatic cancer presents with an acute change in mental status. In this scenario, potential causes such as infection, hypercalcaemia, and brain metastases should be ruled out. It is also important to review the patient’s drug history to rule out any iatrogenic causes.

      In this case, the patient’s observations, including temperature, pulse rate, and blood pressure, are normal, and there are no signs of infection. The urine dipstick test doesn’t reveal any significant abnormalities. The symptoms are also not consistent with hypercalcaemia.

      However, the patient’s acute change in mental status with disinhibition requires urgent referral to the hospital and a CT head scan to look for frontal lobe metastases. A full ‘confusion’ screen would also be carried out to further investigate the underlying cause.

      In summary, when a patient with metastatic cancer presents with an acute change in mental status, a thorough evaluation of potential causes is necessary to ensure appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      67555.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the most valuable tool for assessing a patient with suspected occupational...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most valuable tool for assessing a patient with suspected occupational asthma?

      Your Answer: Methacholine challenge test to determine the presence of bronchial hyperreactivity

      Correct Answer: Documentation of a known sensitising agent at the patient's workplace

      Explanation:

      Understanding Occupational Asthma

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by conditions and factors present in a particular work environment. It is characterized by variable air flow limitation and/or airway hyper-responsiveness. This type of asthma accounts for about 10% of adult asthma cases.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, there are several investigations that are proven to be effective. These include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. If there is a consistent fall in peak flow values and increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work, then occupational asthma is confirmed.

      It is important to understand occupational asthma and its causes to prevent and manage this condition effectively. Proper diagnosis and management can help individuals continue to work safely and maintain their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      227.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fracture risk

      Explanation:

      The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a holiday company. He developed a moderately severe depressive illness 12 months ago, presenting with poor memory, poor concentration and suicidal thoughts. He has been off work since then.

      He has responded well to a selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and feels that the medication doesn't impair him in any way. He feels ready to return to work.

      What is the recommended duration of stability on medication for a patient with moderate depression before driving with a Group 2 licence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Driving with Anxiety and Depression: DVLA Guidelines

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with anxiety and depressive illnesses who wish to drive. If the illness is more than just mild, meaning it includes significant memory or concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts, the DVLA must be informed. However, if the person is well and stable for a period of six months, driving may be permitted. It is important to note that medication must not cause side effects that interfere with alertness or concentration. If the anxiety or depression is long-standing and maintained symptom-free on doses of psychotropic medication that do not impair, driving is usually permitted. In some cases, the DVLA may require psychiatric reports. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 14 - A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of...

    Incorrect

    • A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of low back pain related to physical activity. During sports activities at school, she sometimes has to take a break but can usually continue after a few minutes of rest. There are no red flag symptoms, and her neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal.

      During the examination, you observe a curvature of her spine and diagnose scoliosis. You plan to refer her to the local pediatric orthopedic department. What diagnostic investigation would confirm her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No investigation necessary

      Explanation:

      Scoliosis can be diagnosed through clinical examination alone and doesn’t require further imaging or investigations. While X-rays and MRIs can assist in managing the condition, they are not essential for diagnosis. Therefore, no investigations are necessary.

      CT scans are not recommended for young people as they expose them to high levels of radiation.

      MRI is not the best imaging tool for examining bones, but it may be necessary for young people experiencing back pain if nerve or spinal cord issues are suspected.

      While an X-ray of the entire spine can provide valuable information, it exposes the patient to significant levels of radiation. A targeted X-ray of the lumbosacral spine may be more appropriate, but it is still not necessary for diagnosis.

      Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, with sacro-ilitis being visible in plain films. Scheuermann’s disease is an epiphysitis of the vertebral joints that predominantly affects adolescents, with symptoms including back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis consists of curvature of the spine in the coronal plane, with structural scoliosis affecting more than one vertebral body and being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, with myelomeningocele being the most severe type. Spondylolysis is a congenital or acquired deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body, while spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body.

      Overview of Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column

      The vertebral column is susceptible to various diseases that can affect its structure and function. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, while Scheuermann’s disease predominantly affects adolescents and causes back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis is a curvature of the spine that can be structural or non-structural, with idiopathic being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, and spondylolysis is a deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body. Spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body. Understanding these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 15 - A 49-year-old man presents to you with concerns about a sudden hearing loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to you with concerns about a sudden hearing loss in his left ear. He was watching TV with his wife the previous night when he went to the bathroom. Upon returning, he noticed that he could no longer hear speech or music from his left ear and instead, he could only hear a loud hissing sound.

      Upon examination, both ears, ear canals, and tympanic membranes appear normal. Combined Weber's and Rinne's tests reveal that he has a sensorineural hearing loss on the left side.

      What is the most probable cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Sudden sensorineural hearing loss in the UK is mostly idiopathic, with potential underlying causes being URTI-related viral infections and microvascular obstruction to the blood flow in the cochlea. However, there are also much rarer causes such as acoustic neuroma or other intracranial tumors, trauma, blasts and loud noise, barotrauma from SCUBA diving and flights, meningitis, herpes zoster, syphilis, immunological disease, AIDS, MS, Meniere’s disease, Lyme disease, and stroke. It is important not to assume that a man married to another man has a disease related to this, even in exam questions.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 16 - A 45 year-old man complains of constant fatigue. Despite his tanned appearance, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year-old man complains of constant fatigue. Despite his tanned appearance, he denies having been on vacation. During examination, pigmentation is noted on the palmar creases and buccal mucosa.

      What underlying condition could be responsible for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. The symptoms may start slowly and include fatigue. One common sign is hyperpigmentation, which affects areas such as skin creases, the inside of the cheeks, and scars. This happens because the hormone ACTH, which is made by the pituitary gland to stimulate the adrenals, has a similar precursor molecule to MSH, a hormone that affects skin color. As a result, increased ACTH levels can cause higher MSH levels and skin darkening. In cases of kidney failure, the skin may appear yellowish or pale due to anemia.

      Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

      Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.

      It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He reports experiencing wheezing and coughing while on the job. The possibility of occupational asthma is being considered. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden hearing loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden hearing loss in his right ear. He reports that this occurred over the course of a few hours yesterday and has not improved since. He denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history or prior ear issues. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities in the ear canal or tympanic membrane. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for an audiological assessment

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Sudden or Rapidly Worsening Hearing Loss in Adults

      Adults who experience sudden onset or rapidly worsening hearing loss in one or both ears, which cannot be explained by external or middle ear causes, require referral to an ENT or audiovestibular medicine service. The speed at which this referral needs to occur is outlined in NICE guidance. If the loss occurred suddenly within the past 30 days, immediate referral to be seen within 24 hours is necessary. For sudden hearing loss that occurred more than 30 days ago, urgent referral to be seen within 2 weeks is appropriate. Rapid hearing loss over a period of 4 to 90 days also requires urgent referral. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management of hearing loss in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 19 - A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis screening. He reports no prior medical history and has never received a BCG vaccination. Although his chest x-ray appears normal, his Mantoux test and interferon gamma test are both positive. An HIV test is negative, leading to a suspected diagnosis of latent tuberculosis. What treatment option is most likely to be offered to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.

      Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old man has pain on the underside of his right heel that...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man has pain on the underside of his right heel that is worse when he takes his first few steps of the day. He is locally tender just in front of the calcaneum on the medial side of the foot. Attempting to stand on his toes reproduces the pain.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plantar fasciitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Plantar Fasciitis from Other Foot Conditions

      Plantar fasciitis is a common foot condition that causes pain and inflammation in the connective tissue on the sole of the foot. It is often caused by overuse of the arch tendon or plantar fascia. The pain is typically felt near the heel, where stress is greatest and the fascia is thinnest. While an X-ray is not necessary for diagnosis, it may be used to rule out other conditions. Treatment options include rest, pain relief, arch supports, physiotherapy, and corticosteroid injections. Most people experience improvement within a year. It is important to distinguish plantar fasciitis from other foot conditions, such as Achilles tendinitis, Morton’s neuroma, stress fractures of the calcaneum, and tarsal tunnel syndrome, which have different symptoms and require different treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back pain, fevers, and weight loss. He has also noticed a weakened urinary stream and increased frequency of urination over the past six months. On examination, including digital rectal examination, there are no significant findings. The GP recommends that he see the practice phlebotomist to check his prostate serum antigen level. What is the most probable factor that could lead to a false positive result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A confirmed UTI, successfully treated two weeks ago

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting PSA Measurement

      Prostate serum antigen (PSA) measurement is a crucial screening tool for detecting prostate cancer. However, recent urinary tract infections can increase PSA levels, which may remain elevated for up to a month. There are several other factors that can influence PSA levels, including recent prostate biopsy, vigorous exercise within the last 48 hours, and ejaculation within the last 48 hours. It is recommended that men avoid PSA testing under these circumstances. On the other hand, there is no evidence to suggest that an intercurrent illness, such as an upper respiratory tract infection, affects PSA levels. Proper understanding of these factors can help ensure accurate PSA measurement and reliable prostate cancer detection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 22 - A young woman with haemophilia conceives with her husband and attends requesting information....

    Incorrect

    • A young woman with haemophilia conceives with her husband and attends requesting information. Her husband has no family history of the disease (i.e. he is genetically normal in this context).
      She asks about the chances of her offspring being affected by haemophilia.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A son will not be affected

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemophilia Inheritance

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. This means that the gene responsible for haemophilia is located on the X-chromosome. As a result, females who inherit one copy of the gene will be carriers of the disorder, but will not be affected by it as they have a normal X-chromosome that can compensate for the faulty one.

      On the other hand, males who inherit the faulty X-chromosome from their mother will develop haemophilia as they do not have a second X-chromosome to compensate for the faulty one. However, males who inherit a normal X-chromosome from their mother will not develop haemophilia.

      It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of haemophilia as it can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing. By knowing the risk of passing on the disorder to their children, individuals can take steps to prevent or manage the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 23 - You diagnose a middle-aged man with a left-sided sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss that...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a middle-aged man with a left-sided sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss that started 12 hours ago during your joint clinic with a medical student and refer directly to ENT who diagnose an idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss and begin treatment. Your medical student asks what will happen next for the patient.

      What is the most suitable medication for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Patients with sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss who are referred to ENT are typically prescribed high-dose oral corticosteroids as treatment. The recommended dosage, according to ENT UK’s guideline, is oral prednisolone at a maximum of 60mg/day or 1 mg/kg/day for 7 days, followed by a tapering off period over the next week. Dexamethasone, another type of corticosteroid, doesn’t require intravenous or intramuscular administration. Intravenous immunoglobulin is not a recommended treatment for idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss. While oral acyclovir has been considered for treating Bell’s palsy, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is weak.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group variance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      Understanding ANOVA: A Statistical Test for Comparing Multiple Group Means

      ANOVA is a statistical test used to determine if there are significant differences between the means of multiple groups. Unlike the t-test, which only compares two means, ANOVA can compare more than two means. However, ANOVA assumes that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests such as the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test can be used instead.

      The ANOVA test works by comparing the variance of the means. It distinguishes between within-group variance, which is the variance of the sample mean, and between-group variance, which is the variance between the separate sample means. The null hypothesis assumes that the variance of all the means is the same, and that within-group variance is the same as between-group variance. The test is based on the ratio of these two variances, which is known as the F statistic.

      In summary, ANOVA is a useful statistical test for comparing multiple group means. However, it is important to ensure that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests can be used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old nursing home resident, with a long-term catheter in situ, had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old nursing home resident, with a long-term catheter in situ, had a urine sample sent for investigation after staff felt her urine was more cloudy than usual. The MSU grew Escherichia coli. The patient is otherwise well with a normal general examination, normal observations and is at their baseline cognition.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral trimethoprim for three days

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Tract Infection in Adults with Long-Term Indwelling Catheters

      The SIGN guidance provides clear instructions on how to manage urinary tract infection (UTI) in adults with long-term indwelling catheters. It states that all patients with such catheters are bacteriuric, but treatment is not necessary unless they exhibit symptoms such as new costovertebral tenderness, fevers, rigors, or new onset delirium. It is important to note that classical UTI symptoms cannot be relied upon in these patients. Additionally, the guidance advises against sending urine samples for culture based on the appearance or smell of the urine. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage UTI in this patient population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 26 - You have been feeling unwell with weight loss and lethargy over the past...

    Incorrect

    • You have been feeling unwell with weight loss and lethargy over the past few months; a few weeks ago you had a needle stick and are worried you may have HIV. Unfortunately, a subsequent HIV test proves positive.

      Which of the following is true with respect to your obligations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should consult a suitably qualified colleague and take their advice on practice restrictions

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines on Prescribing for Patients with Chronic Illnesses

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has set clear guidelines regarding the prescribing of medication for patients with serious chronic illnesses. According to these guidelines, it is not appropriate for a doctor or a member of their family to prescribe medication for a patient with a serious chronic illness.

      Furthermore, if a doctor has a serious condition that could potentially be passed on to their patients, they must consult with a qualified colleague and follow their recommendations. It is not acceptable for a doctor to rely solely on their own assessment of potential infection risks.

      In summary, the GMC guidelines emphasize the importance of ensuring that patients receive appropriate and safe care, particularly when it comes to prescribing medication for those with chronic illnesses. Doctors must always act in the best interests of their patients and seek advice from qualified colleagues when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man presents with minor bleeding from the gums during tooth brushing,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with minor bleeding from the gums during tooth brushing, as evidenced by blood on the toothbrush and on spitting out during tooth brushing. There is no pain, lymphadenopathy, fever, or other systemic manifestation of disease. On examination of the teeth and gums, reddened, mild-to-moderately swollen gingivae are observed throughout the mouth.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gingivitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gingivitis and Periodontal Disease

      Gingivitis is a common condition characterized by inflammation of the gums, often caused by dental plaque. If left untreated, it can progress to periodontitis, which affects the ligaments and bone supporting the teeth. Risk factors include poor oral hygiene, smoking, and diabetes. Treatment involves managing oral hygiene and using antiseptic mouthwashes, but it’s important to see a dentist for proper care.

      Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis, also known as Vincent’s disease, is a painful form of gingivitis that can cause ulcers and bleeding. It’s caused by bacteria already present in the mouth and can be treated with antibiotics.

      Periodontal disease is a common problem in HIV-infected patients and can present as necrotising ulcerative periodontitis or linear gingival erythema. These conditions can occur even in clean mouths with little plaque or tartar.

      Bleeding gums can also be a symptom of leukaemia and platelet disorders. It’s important to seek medical attention if you experience persistent bleeding or other oral health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with dysuria and suprapubic pain for the past 3 days. She reports feeling increasingly unwell and feverish over the last 24 hours. What symptom would suggest 'red flag' sepsis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 136/min

      Explanation:

      In recent years, there has been a push to enhance the handling of septic patients in secondary healthcare settings. This endeavor is now shifting towards primary care and aims to enhance the identification and prompt treatment of such patients.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.

      Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old man attends his General Practice (GP) Surgery for support following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man attends his General Practice (GP) Surgery for support following a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. He thinks he may have a hereditary condition, as multiple family members have been diagnosed with cancer. His older brother had colorectal cancer diagnosed at the age of 34, while his father had colorectal cancer diagnosed at the age of 52. His paternal aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at the age of 50.
      Which of the following is the most likely condition affecting this family?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lynch syndrome (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC))

      Explanation:

      Genetic Syndromes Associated with Increased Cancer Risk

      There are several genetic syndromes that increase the risk of developing certain types of cancer. One of the most common is Lynch syndrome, also known as hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC). This syndrome increases the risk of developing colorectal and endometrial cancers, as well as other types of cancer such as ovarian, stomach, and bladder cancer. Lynch syndrome is caused by mutations in mismatch repair (MMR) genes, and testing for these mutations is recommended for individuals who meet the Amsterdam criteria based on their family history of Lynch-associated cancers.

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS) is a rare inherited syndrome associated with various cancers, such as sarcomas, leukaemia, brain cancers, adrenal cortex cancer, and breast cancers. It is caused by mutations in the TP53 gene and is not associated with colorectal or endometrial cancers.

      Cowden syndrome is another inherited syndrome associated with an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, endometrial, colorectal, thyroid, kidney, and melanoma. It is caused by mutations in the PTEN gene and is less common than Lynch syndrome.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is a genetic condition that predisposes affected individuals to developing numerous adenomatous bowel polyps, often more than 100 by the age of 35. It is caused by mutations in the APC gene and is associated with cancers of the stomach, small intestine, pancreas, biliary tree, and liver, but not typically endometrial cancer.

      Peutz-Jegher syndrome (PJS) is an inherited condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal, pancreatic, stomach, testicular, ovarian, and cervical cancer. It is associated with characteristic skin pigmentation and the development of large, benign polyps in the small and large intestine.

      Overall, genetic testing and surveillance are important for individuals with a family history of these syndromes to detect and prevent cancer at an early stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following characteristics is least commonly linked to ecstasy overdose? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is least commonly linked to ecstasy overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      Water intoxication can lead to the development of hyponatraemia.

      Understanding Ecstasy Poisoning

      Ecstasy, also known as MDMA or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, gained popularity in the 1990s with the rise of dance music culture. However, its use can lead to poisoning with various clinical features. Neurological symptoms such as agitation, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia are common, as well as cardiovascular symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension. Hyponatremia, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis are also possible.

      When it comes to managing ecstasy poisoning, supportive measures are typically used. However, if simple measures fail, dantrolene may be administered to address hyperthermia. It’s important to understand the risks associated with ecstasy use and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of poisoning arise. By being aware of the potential dangers, individuals can make informed decisions about their drug use and take steps to protect their health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (2/3) 67%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Passmed