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  • Question 1 - A 63-year-old woman has been experiencing vomiting for the past day due to...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman has been experiencing vomiting for the past day due to food poisoning. What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Balance in Vomiting

      There are two possible approaches to the acid-base balance in vomiting. The first, more simplistic way is to assume that since the vomit is acidic, the body is losing acid. However, this is not the whole story. Vomiting also results in the loss of sodium, which triggers the sodium-/H+ antiporters in the kidneys to retain sodium at the expense of hydrogen ions. As a result, the body experiences a metabolic alkalosis, which is characterized by an increase in pH and a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration.

      To compensate for this alkalosis, the patient’s respiratory rate would decrease, allowing the body to retain more CO2 and create a compensatory respiratory acidosis. This mechanism helps to restore the acid-base balance in the body and prevent any further disruptions. Overall, vomiting can have a significant impact on the body’s acid-base balance, and it is important to understand these mechanisms to provide appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is conducted on a 32-year-old woman at 39 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is conducted on a 32-year-old woman at 39 weeks gestation who has arrived at the labor ward in spontaneous labor. The CTG reveals a fetal heart rate of 150 bpm with good variability, and it is a low-risk pregnancy. The midwife contacts you with worries about the presence of late decelerations on the CTG trace. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Continue close monitoring with CTG

      Correct Answer: Fetal blood sampling

      Explanation:

      When late decelerations are observed on a CTG, it is considered a pathological finding and requires immediate fetal blood sampling to check for fetal hypoxia and acidosis. A pH level of over 7.2 during labor is considered normal, but if fetal acidosis is detected, urgent delivery should be considered. Despite the reassuring normal fetal heart rate and variability, the presence of late decelerations is a worrisome sign that requires prompt investigation and management.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of experiencing cold hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of experiencing cold hands and feet over the last two weeks. Her medications have been recently altered, with a new medication introduced to improve her blood pressure management. Which of the following medications is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are frequently prescribed for hypertension treatment, but they can lead to cold extremities as a side effect. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide commonly cause constipation, diarrhea, dizziness, and dry mouth. Angiotensin receptor blockers such as candesartan and losartan do not typically result in cold peripheries.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He has been smoking 10 cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. What is the number of pack years equivalent to his smoking history?

      Your Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      Pack Year Calculation

      Pack year calculation is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day by the number of years of smoking. One pack of cigarettes contains 20 cigarettes. For instance, if a person smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15).

      The pack year calculation is a standardized method of measuring tobacco exposure. It helps healthcare professionals to estimate the risk of developing smoking-related diseases such as lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart disease. The higher the pack year history, the greater the risk of developing these diseases. Therefore, it is important for individuals who smoke or have a history of smoking to discuss their pack year history with their healthcare provider to determine appropriate screening and prevention measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history of limping on her left side. Her parents state that she has been healthy except for a recent cough and her daycare provider has not noticed any injuries. During the physical exam, the child appears uncomfortable and in pain, but has normal range of motion in her left hip. What is the best course of action for management at this point?

      Your Answer: Urgent hospital assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 3 presents with an acute limp, it is crucial to arrange urgent assessment in secondary care. This is because they are at a higher risk of septic arthritis and child maltreatment, according to Nice Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Additionally, the diagnosis of transient synovitis should be made with extreme caution after ruling out serious causes of limp, as it is rare in this age group. Urgent referral for assessment is recommended due to the difficulty in examining and identifying subtle clinical signs.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the obstetric clinic during her 28th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the obstetric clinic during her 28th week of pregnancy. She has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes and has been taking metformin for the past two weeks. However, her blood glucose levels are still elevated despite following a strict diet and taking the maximum dose of metformin. What is the next best course of action to manage her blood glucose levels?

      Your Answer: Add on an sodium-glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT-2) antagonist and review in one week

      Correct Answer: Add on insulin therapy

      Explanation:

      When a woman has gestational diabetes, it is important to control her blood glucose levels to prevent complications such as premature birth, stillbirth, and macrosomia. If diet and exercise changes along with metformin do not meet blood glucose targets, insulin therapy should be added, according to NICE guidelines. Sulfonylureas are not recommended for gestational diabetes as they are less effective than the metformin and insulin combination and have been shown to be teratogenic in animals. Metformin should not be stopped as it increases insulin sensitivity, which is lacking during pregnancy. SGLT-2 antagonists are also not recommended due to their teratogenic effects in animals. Continuing metformin alone for two weeks despite high blood glucose levels increases the risk of complications, so insulin therapy should be added at this stage.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several instances of tonic-clonic seizures. They plan to start a family within the next year and seek advice. She is currently controlling her epilepsy with sodium valproate. What is the most appropriate recommendation for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to an epilepsy specialist for evaluation and recommendation of antiepileptic medication changes

      Explanation:

      Minimizing Teratogenicity in Antiepileptic Medications for Women Wishing to Start a Family

      For women with epilepsy who wish to start a family, it is crucial to minimize exposure to teratogenic antiepileptic medications while still controlling their seizures. Sodium valproate, a commonly used antiepileptic drug, is highly teratogenic and associated with congenital malformations and neural tube defects. Therefore, it is recommended to change medication prior to conception, as advised by an epilepsy specialist after a thorough evaluation of risks and benefits.

      One option may be to add levetiracetam to the current medication regimen, as it is a pregnancy category C drug that may help control seizures. However, carbamazepine or lamotrigine may be preferred based on limited evidence.

      Stopping sodium valproate and starting phenytoin is not recommended, as phenytoin also carries a significant risk of teratogenicity and has toxic and side effects.

      Increasing the dose of sodium valproate is not advised, as it can negatively affect fetal neurodevelopment.

      Similarly, stopping sodium valproate and adding phenobarbital is not indicated, as phenobarbital is also associated with an increased risk of teratogenicity.

      Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy who wish to start a family to consult with an epilepsy specialist to evaluate and recommend appropriate antiepileptic medication changes to minimize teratogenicity while still controlling seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Lila, a 30-year-old pregnant woman, (gravidity 1, parity 0) currently 27+5, visits her...

    Incorrect

    • Lila, a 30-year-old pregnant woman, (gravidity 1, parity 0) currently 27+5, visits her general practitioner (GP) complaining of reflux. The GP prescribes a new medication for her reflux. Upon reviewing Lila's medical records, the GP notes that she is scheduled for a cervical smear test in two weeks. Lila reports no new discharge, bleeding, or pain. What is the recommended timing for Lila's next cervical smear test?

      Your Answer: In 2 weeks' time

      Correct Answer: 3 months post-partum

      Explanation:

      Cervical screening is typically postponed during pregnancy until…

      Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with a sudden onset of limp....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with a sudden onset of limp. She appears to be in good health. During the examination, she displays an antalgic gait. An MRI scan reveals decreased blood flow to the left hip, leading the doctor to suspect Perthes' disease. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Pavlik harness

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ disease has a favorable prognosis when it presents before the age of 6, and observation is the only necessary treatment. This question confirms the diagnosis of Perthes’ disease through MRI, which shows reduced blood flow to the hip joint and causes hip pain and limping. Surgical intervention is only necessary for children over the age of 6. Septic arthritis, which requires treatment with flucloxacillin, is not the diagnosis in this case as the patient is not showing systemic symptoms. The use of a Pavlik harness is reserved for developmental dysplasia of the hip.

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old patient is seen in clinic with persistent aching pain at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient is seen in clinic with persistent aching pain at the site of a surgically treated fractured tibia and fibula following a road traffic accident. The patient is currently taking paracetamol 1 g four times a day. What would be the most suitable analgesic to prescribe next?

      Your Answer: Morphine

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pain Management Options: From Ibuprofen to Morphine

      When it comes to managing pain, there are various options available. One common choice is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) like ibuprofen, which can be used instead of paracetamol. If pain persists, paracetamol can be used in conjunction with NSAIDs. If these options don’t work, a weak opioid may be the next step, according to NICE CKS guidelines. However, it’s important to evaluate the patient’s pain to rule out any complications like deep vein thrombosis or surgical site infection.

      Codeine phosphate is another option if NSAIDs and paracetamol have failed. However, it’s important to note the risk of constipation and offer dietary and hydration advice. Morphine is a strong opioid that should only be used after trying a weak opioid. Pethidine is typically used in peri-operative or obstetric settings for moderate to severe pain.

      It’s important to understand the risks associated with certain medications, such as diclofenac, an NSAID that has been linked to serious cardiovascular events like thrombotic events, myocardial infarction, and stroke. By understanding the various pain management options available, healthcare professionals can work with patients to find the best solution for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - These results were obtained on a 65-year-old male:
    Hb 110 g/L (120-170)
    RBC 4.8 ×1012/L...

    Incorrect

    • These results were obtained on a 65-year-old male:
      Hb 110 g/L (120-170)
      RBC 4.8 ×1012/L (4.2-5.8)
      Hct 0.365 (0.37-0.49)
      MCV 75 fL (82-98)
      MCH 33.2 pg (28-33)
      Platelets 310 ×109/L (140-450)
      WBC 8.21 ×109/L (4.5-11)
      Neutrophils 6.45 ×109/L (1.8-7.5)
      Lymphocytes 1.23 ×109/L (1.0-4.5)
      Monocytes 0.28 ×109/L (0-0.8)
      Eosinophils 0.18 ×109/L (0.02-0.5)
      Basophils 0.09 ×109/L (0-0.1)
      Others 0.18 ×109/L -

      What could be the possible reason for these FBC results in a 65-year-old male?

      Your Answer: Folate deficiency

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal blood loss

      Explanation:

      Microcytic Anaemia in a 63-Year-Old Female

      A Full Blood Count (FBC) analysis has revealed that a 63-year-old female is suffering from microcytic anaemia, which is characterized by low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and low haemoglobin (Hb) levels. This type of anaemia is typically caused by iron deficiency, which is often the result of blood loss. However, in this case, menorrhagia can be ruled out as the patient is postmenopausal. Therefore, the most likely cause of the microcytic anaemia is peptic ulceration. It is important to note that pernicious anaemia or folate deficiency can cause macrocytosis, which is characterized by elevated MCV levels. Proper diagnosis and treatment are necessary to address the underlying cause of the microcytic anaemia and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman is currently taking folic acid.

    What is an unusual...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman is currently taking folic acid.

      What is an unusual side effect that can occur with the use of folic acid during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Rash

      Correct Answer: Neurological impairment

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Supplementation and Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Folic acid supplementation is generally safe, but it can worsen neurological symptoms in patients who are deficient in both folate and vitamin B12. This can lead to neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. However, in pregnant women, the benefits of folic acid supplementation outweigh the risks. Women who are at risk of vitamin B deficiencies may require concomitant vitamin B12 supplementation. Additionally, women with chronic diseases such as diabetes or epilepsy may require higher doses of folic acid during pregnancy to reduce the risk of fetal malformations. This is due to the effects of the condition itself or the results of treatment. Overall, folic acid supplementation is generally safe and beneficial, but it is important to consider individual patient factors and potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old man provides his general practitioner with a semen specimen, as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man provides his general practitioner with a semen specimen, as part of an investigation for failure to conceive over a 2-year period.
      In semen analysis, which of the following is incompatible with normal fertility?

      Your Answer: 75% sperm viability by World Health Organisation (WHO) criteria

      Correct Answer: Sperm count of 5 million per ml of ejaculate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Semen Analysis: Normal Values for Sperm Count, Volume, pH, Viability, and Motility

      Semen analysis is a crucial test to evaluate male fertility. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has established reference values for semen parameters, including sperm count, volume, pH, viability, and motility.

      The normal sperm count is 15 million per ml of ejaculate, and a sample should be submitted to the lab within an hour of collection for accurate results. A sperm count of 5 million per ml of ejaculate is considered low and may indicate infertility.

      The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, and a volume of 3 ml per ejaculation is considered normal. The ejaculate pH should be 7.2 or more, and a pH below 7.0 may indicate an infection or obstruction in the reproductive tract.

      Sperm viability refers to the percentage of live sperm in the sample. The normal viability is 58% or more live sperm, and a lower percentage may indicate poor sperm quality or function.

      Sperm motility refers to the ability of sperm to move and swim towards the egg. The normal sperm should be 40% or more motile, and 32% or more should have progressive motility. A motility of 55% four hours after ejaculation is considered normal.

      In conclusion, understanding the normal values for semen analysis can help diagnose male infertility and guide appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - As the junior doctor on the labour ward, you are summoned to attend...

    Incorrect

    • As the junior doctor on the labour ward, you are summoned to attend a first delivery of a 26-year-old patient. The patient experienced spontaneous preterm rupture of membranes at 34 weeks, and now the umbilical cord is palpable above the level of the introitus. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: The cord may be pushed back into the uterus

      Correct Answer: The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus

      Explanation:

      In the event of cord prolapse, which occurs when the umbilical cord descends below the presenting part of the fetus after membrane rupture, fetal hypoxia and death can occur due to cord compression or spasm. To prevent compression, tocolytics should be administered and a Caesarean delivery should be performed. The patient should be advised to assume an all-fours position. It is important not to push the cord back into the uterus. The preferred method of delivery is an immediate Caesarean section.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man presents with shoulder pain following a day of intense garage...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with shoulder pain following a day of intense garage painting. The pain radiates to the front of his upper arm and is exacerbated by raising his shoulder beyond 90 degrees. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subacromial bursitis

      Correct Answer: Biceps tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Biceps Tendonitis

      The biceps muscle is situated in the upper arm’s front part and connects to the elbow and two points in the shoulder. Biceps tendonitis, also known as bicipital tendonitis, is an inflammation that causes pain in the upper arm or front part of the shoulder. This condition is caused by overuse of the arm and shoulder or an injury to the biceps tendon. The pain is most noticeable when the arm and shoulder are moved, particularly when the arm is raised above shoulder height.

      Patients with biceps tendonitis experience pain when they touch the front of their shoulder. Speed’s test is a diagnostic tool used to detect biceps tendonitis. Lateral epicondylitis, on the other hand, is caused by activities such as painting or repetitive rotation, such as using a screwdriver for an extended period. However, shoulder flexion alone would not exacerbate the pain associated with lateral epicondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of productive cough with green sputum and a one day history of palpitations. She also had some rigors and fever. On examination:
      Result Normal
      Respiratory rate (RR) 26 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 96% on air 94–98%
      Blood pressure (BP) 92/48 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate (HR) 130 bpm 60–100 beats/min
      Some bronchial breathing at left lung base, heart sounds normal however with an irregularly irregular pulse. electrocardiogram (ECG) showed fast atrial fibrillation (AF). She was previously fit and well.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids

      Explanation:

      Treatment for AF in a Patient with Sepsis

      In a patient with sepsis secondary to pneumonia, the new onset of AF is likely due to the sepsis. Therefore, the priority is to urgently treat the sepsis with intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. If the AF persists after the sepsis is treated, other options for AF treatment can be considered. Bisoprolol and digoxin are not the first-line treatments for AF in this case. Oral antibiotics are not recommended for septic patients. Flecainide may be considered if the AF persists after the sepsis is treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old college student presents with insomnia, anxiety, and flashbacks. She experienced a traumatic event two weeks ago when a young man demanded her phone and purse while she was walking home from a party. She was alone and feared for her safety. Since then, she has been struggling with nightmares and flashbacks, which have disrupted her sleep. She has also been avoiding going out alone. She is seeking medication to help her sleep. What is her response?

      Your Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after four weeks have passed. Although this patient’s symptoms have the potential to develop into PTSD, they currently meet the criteria for acute stress disorder. It is important to monitor their progress and reassess in two weeks.

      Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks and is often accompanied by agoraphobia. To be diagnosed with panic disorder, the individual must experience persisting anxiety about the recurrence of attacks for at least one month after the initial episode.

      Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness or loss of pleasure in activities, along with a range of emotional, cognitive, physical, and behavioral symptoms.

      Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry that is pervasive and persistent, along with a range of somatic, cognitive, and behavioral symptoms. This disorder must be present for longer than two weeks and is typically experienced on a continuum of severity.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past 2 years. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, commonly caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. FSH levels may be low due to the inhibitory effect of raised prolactin, but this is not diagnostic. A skull X-ray may show an enlarged pituitary fossa, but only with large adenomas, making it an inappropriate investigation. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferable to CT for further investigation into the cause of hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.9
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  • Question 19 - A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a check-up. The baby was born...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a check-up. The baby was born at 38 weeks gestation and weighed 4.5kg at birth. During the examination, the doctor observes adduction and internal rotation of the right arm. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erb's palsy

      Explanation:

      If a baby has a birth weight greater than 4kg, regardless of their gestational age, they are diagnosed with foetal macrosomia. This condition can cause dystocia, which may result in injuries to both the mother and baby. Dystocia may also require an operative vaginal delivery or Caesarean-section. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of damage to the upper brachial plexus, resulting in Erb’s palsy. This condition is characterized by the arm being adducted and internally rotated, with the forearm pronated, commonly referred to as the ‘waiter’s tip’. Damage to the lower brachial plexus can cause Klumpke’s palsy, which commonly affects the nerves that innervate the muscles of the hand.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of episodes of postcoital bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of episodes of postcoital bleeding. She has had some lower abdominal pain but no tenderness or urinary symptoms. She is sexually active, with regular periods and her last menstrual cycle was one week ago. Her temperature is 37.1 °C and she has no systemic symptoms. She is a smoker and takes the oral contraceptive pill. Her last smear test was two years ago.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Speculum examination of the cervix

      Explanation:

      Investigating Postcoital Bleeding: The Role of Speculum Examination and Other Tests

      Postcoital bleeding can be caused by various abnormalities of the cervix, including cervical ectropion, polyps, infection, or cervical cancer. In women presenting with postcoital bleeding, cervical cancer should be suspected if there are other symptoms such as vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, or dyspareunia. Risk factors for cervical cancer include smoking, oral contraceptive use, HPV infection, HIV infection, immunosuppression, and family history.

      The primary screening tool for cervical cancer is a cervical smear, which should be done every three years for women aged 25-49. If a patient presents with postcoital bleeding, the first step is to perform a speculum examination to visualize the cervix, which can detect over 80% of cervical cancers. If the cervix appears normal, a smear may be taken if it is due, and swabs can be taken for STI testing and pregnancy testing. If symptoms persist, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.

      Other tests such as blood tests, urine dipstick, and high vaginal swab may be useful in certain cases, but they are not the primary investigation for postcoital bleeding. Blood tests may be indicated later, while urine dipstick and high vaginal swab are secondary investigations following visualisation of the cervix.

      In summary, speculum examination is the key initial investigation for postcoital bleeding, and cervical smear is the primary screening tool for cervical cancer. Other tests may be useful in specific situations, but they should not replace the essential role of speculum examination and cervical smear in the evaluation of postcoital bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old male is admitted to your surgical ward for an elective hemicolectomy...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male is admitted to your surgical ward for an elective hemicolectomy tomorrow due to Duke's B colonic cancer. During your admission assessment, you observe that his full blood count (FBC) indicates a microcytic anaemia with a haemoglobin level of 60 g/L. His previous FBC 4 months ago showed Hb 90 g/L. Haematinic blood tests reveal that the cause of the microcytosis is iron deficiency.
      What would be the most suitable approach to manage his anaemia?

      Your Answer: Pre-operative blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      To prepare for surgery, it is necessary to correct the haemoglobin level of 58 g/L. However, this can only be achieved within a short period of time through a blood transfusion. If the issue had been detected earlier, iron transfusions or oral iron supplements would have been recommended over a longer period of weeks to months.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the definition of a placebo? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of a placebo?

      Your Answer: A standard treatment against which a newer treatment is compared

      Correct Answer: An inert substance given as a medicine in an assessment of its suggestive effect

      Explanation:

      The Psychological Effect of Placebos

      A placebo is a substance or treatment that has no therapeutic effect but is given to a patient or participant in a clinical trial. When administered, it typically produces a psychological effect rather than a physical one. In other words, the patient may feel better simply because they believe they are receiving a treatment, even if the treatment itself is inert.

      This psychological effect is known as the placebo effect and has been observed in numerous studies. It is believed to be the result of the patient’s expectations and beliefs about the treatment, as well as their trust in the healthcare provider administering it. The placebo effect can manifest in various ways, such as reduced pain, improved mood, or even a perceived improvement in physical symptoms.

      Despite not having any actual therapeutic value, placebos are often used in clinical trials as a control group to compare the effects of a new treatment against. This helps researchers determine whether the new treatment is actually effective or if the observed effects are simply due to the placebo effect. Overall, the psychological effect of placebos highlights the importance of the mind-body connection and the role of perception in health and wellness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old man visits an Ophthalmology Clinic with a complaint of distorted and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits an Ophthalmology Clinic with a complaint of distorted and bent straight lines. He has also observed blurry and dark areas in the centre of his vision in both eyes, which have been worsening over the past year and a half. He reports no pain or redness in either eye. A fundoscopy examination is conducted to assess his eye.

      What is the most probable finding on fundoscopy?

      Your Answer: Macular neovascularisation

      Correct Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Central Visual Loss: A Case Study

      A patient presents with a slow-onset central visual loss without pain or redness of the eye. The most likely cause is age-related macular degeneration, which can be either dry or wet. Drusen, which can be seen on fundoscopic examination, is a common feature of both types.

      Retinal detachment, which presents with an acute onset and a falling curtain-like visual loss, is not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Disc cupping, which accompanies open-angle glaucoma, presents with peripheral visual loss rather than central visual loss. Macular neovascularisation, commonly seen in wet age-related macular degeneration, is not the best answer as this patient is more likely to have dry macular degeneration. Even if the patient had wet macular degeneration, drusen would be more likely to be seen on examination than macular neovascularisation. Retinal haemorrhages, along with a swollen disc and cotton-wool spots, are commonly seen in central-vessel occlusion of the retinal artery, which would result in complete visual loss and have an acute or subacute onset.

      In summary, careful consideration of the timing and nature of symptoms, along with fundoscopic examination findings, can help differentiate between causes of central visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old patient presents with acute severe abdominal pain and the following blood...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with acute severe abdominal pain and the following blood results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l
      Female: 115–155 g/l
      Male: 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 18 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 22 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Calcium 1.9 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) 800 IU/l 50–120 IU/l
      Albumin 30 g/l 35–50 g/l
      Amylase 1600 U/l < 200 U/l
      What is the most appropriate transfer location for ongoing care?

      Your Answer: Intensive care as an inpatient

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Acute Pancreatitis: A Case Study

      A patient presents with acutely raised amylase, high white cell count (WCC), and high lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), indicating acute pancreatitis or organ rupture. The Glasgow system suggests severe pancreatitis with a poor outcome. In this case study, we explore the appropriate management options for this patient.

      Intensive care as an inpatient is the most appropriate response, as the patient is at high risk for developing multi-organ failure. The modified Glasgow score is used to assess the severity of acute pancreatitis, and this patient meets the criteria for severe pancreatitis. Aggressive support in an intensive care environment is necessary.

      Discharge into the community and general practitioner review in 1 week would be a dangerous response, as the patient needs inpatient treatment and acute assessment and treatment. The same applies to general surgical outpatient review in 1 week.

      Operating theatre would be inappropriate, as no operable problem has been identified. Supportive management is the most likely course of action. If organ rupture is suspected, stabilisation of shock and imaging would likely be done first.

      General medical ward as an inpatient is not the best option, as acute pancreatitis is a surgical problem and should be admitted under a surgical team. Additionally, the patient’s deranged blood tests, especially the low calcium and high WCC, indicate a high risk of developing multi-organ failure, requiring intensive monitoring.

      In conclusion, appropriate management of acute pancreatitis requires prompt and aggressive support in an intensive care environment, with close monitoring of the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and constipation. On examination, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and constipation. On examination, she has cool and dry hands, bradycardia and slow-relaxing reflexes. When asked about medication, she reports taking a tablet for her mental health disorder for a prolonged period. Which medication is most likely responsible for her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium and Hypothyroidism

      Lithium is a commonly used medication for bipolar disorder, but it has a narrow therapeutic window and can easily cause toxicity. One of the long-term side effects of lithium is hypothyroidism, which can present with symptoms such as cool hands, bradycardia, and slow reflexes. Treatment for hypothyroidism caused by lithium typically involves thyroxine. Other psychiatric medications, such as olanzapine, amitriptyline, clonazepam, and clozapine, are less likely to cause hypothyroidism and would not present with the same clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department at 16:00 after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department at 16:00 after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has disclosed that he attempted suicide due to feeling overwhelmed with his postgraduate studies and has been feeling particularly lonely since he moved to university. The patient has admitted to taking 25 paracetamol tablets throughout the day since waking up at 07:00, but cannot recall when he last took some of the tablets, except that it was before 14:00. What would be the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Immediately administer activated charcoal

      Correct Answer: Immediately administer IV acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken a staggered paracetamol overdose should be treated with acetylcysteine, regardless of their plasma paracetamol concentration. Therefore, the correct approach for this patient is to administer IV acetylcysteine immediately. This is based on the 2012 Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) review of paracetamol overdose management. Activated charcoal is not appropriate in this case, as it should only be given within 1 hour of ingestion. IV naloxone is also not suitable as there is no evidence of an opioid overdose.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old man presents with progressively worsening dysphagia, which is worse for food...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents with progressively worsening dysphagia, which is worse for food than liquid. He has lost several stones in weight and, on examination, he is cachexia. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) confirms oesophageal cancer.
      Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for oesophageal adenocarcinoma?

      Your Answer: Barrett's oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is a type of cancer that is becoming increasingly common. It often presents with symptoms such as dysphagia, weight loss, and retrosternal chest pain. Adenocarcinomas, which are the most common type of oesophageal cancer, typically develop in the lower third of the oesophagus due to inflammation related to gastric reflux.

      One of the risk factors for oesophageal cancer is Barrett’s oesophagus, which is the metaplasia of the squamous epithelium of the lower oesophagus when exposed to an acidic environment. This adaptive change significantly increases the risk of malignant change. Treatment options for Barrett’s oesophagus include ablative or excisional therapy and acid-lowering medications. Follow-up with repeat endoscopy every 2–5 years is required.

      Blood group A is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer, but it is associated with a 20% higher risk of stomach cancer compared to those with blood group O. A diet low in calcium is also not a risk factor for oesophageal carcinoma, but consumption of red meat is classified as a possible cause of oesophageal cancer. Those with the highest red meat intake have a 57% higher risk of oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma compared to those with the lowest intake.

      Ulcerative colitis is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer, but it is a risk factor for bowel cancer. On the other hand, alcohol is typically a risk factor for squamous cell carcinomas. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing oesophageal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth to her daughter through normal vaginal delivery 12 hours ago. She asks about contraceptive options as she feels her family is complete. She has a clean medical history and had no complications during her pregnancy or labour. She has previously used the intrauterine system (IUS) and wishes to continue with it. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: She may have the IUS inserted up to 48 hours after delivery if she wishes

      Explanation:

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after a minimum of 4 weeks. However, it is important to note that insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks after delivery should be avoided due to the increased risk of expulsion and lack of data on uterine perforation with newer models. In addition to general contraindications, contraindications to postpartum insertion within 48 hours include peripartum chorioamnionitis, endometritis, puerperal sepsis, or post-partum haemorrhage. Waiting a minimum of 6 weeks or 2 months after delivery is not necessary. If waiting the recommended minimum of 4 weeks, the progesterone-only pill may be used as an interim measure to reduce the risk of pregnancy.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What does the virtue of 'integrity' require a physician to do? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does the virtue of 'integrity' require a physician to do?

      Your Answer: Treat in the best interests of the patient

      Correct Answer: Practise medicine according to intellectual and moral standards of excellence

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Integrity in Medicine

      Integrity is a crucial aspect of practicing medicine. It involves adhering to ethical standards and striving for excellence in all aspects of medical care. This means that healthcare professionals must act with honesty, transparency, and accountability in their interactions with patients, colleagues, and the wider community.

      Integrity in medicine is essential for building trust and maintaining the integrity of the healthcare system. Patients rely on their healthcare providers to act in their best interests and provide them with the highest quality care possible. When healthcare professionals act with integrity, they demonstrate their commitment to these values and help to ensure that patients receive the care they need.

      In addition to benefiting patients, integrity in medicine also benefits healthcare professionals themselves. By upholding ethical standards and striving for excellence, healthcare professionals can enhance their professional reputation and build strong relationships with their colleagues and patients. This can lead to greater job satisfaction and a more fulfilling career in medicine.

      Overall, integrity is a fundamental aspect of practicing medicine. It is essential for building trust, maintaining the integrity of the healthcare system, and providing patients with the highest quality care possible. As such, healthcare professionals must prioritize integrity in all aspects of their work to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is performed on a 29-year-old female at 37 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is performed on a 29-year-old female at 37 weeks gestation who has arrived at labour ward in spontaneous labour. The CTG shows a foetal heart rate of 120 bpm and variable decelerations and accelerations are present. There are no late decelerations. However, the midwife notices a 15 minute period where the foetal heart rate only varies by 2-3bpm. The mum is worried as she has not felt her baby move much for about 15 mins and would like to know what the likely cause is. She starts crying when she tells you that she took some paracetamol earlier as she was in so much pain from the contractions and is concerned this has harmed her baby. What is the most probable reason for this reduced variability?

      Your Answer: Side effect of the paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Foetus is sleeping

      Explanation:

      Episodes of decreased variability on CTG that last less than 40 minutes are often attributed to the foetus being asleep. However, if the decreased variability persists for more than 40 minutes, it can be a cause for concern. Other factors that can lead to decreased variability in foetal heart rate on CTG include maternal drug use (such as benzodiazepines, opioids or methyldopa – but not paracetamol), foetal acidosis (usually due to hypoxia), prematurity (which is not applicable in this case), foetal tachycardia (heart rate above 140 bpm, which is also not the case here), and congenital heart abnormalities.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      39.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (3/8) 38%
Medicine (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/4) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Miscellaneous (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Passmed