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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old female medical student experiences severe epigastric pain, following an evening indulging...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female medical student experiences severe epigastric pain, following an evening indulging in large amounts of fatty foods. She went to visit her general practitioner (GP) who, upon further investigation, organised an analysis of her lipoprotein profile.
      Analysis showed a deficiency of apolipoprotein (apo) C-II; all other lipoproteins were normal.
      Which of the following profiles is plasma electrophoresis most likely to show?

      Your Answer: Elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lipoprotein Abnormalities: Causes and Clinical Features

      Lipoprotein abnormalities can lead to various health conditions, including atherosclerosis and pancreatitis. The Frederickson classification system categorizes hyperlipoproteinaemias based on their underlying defects, serum abnormalities, and clinical features.

      One common cause of elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs is a deficiency in apo C-II, an essential cofactor of lipoprotein lipase. This deficiency impairs the hydrolysis of triglycerides in chylomicrons and VLDLs, resulting in their accumulation in the bloodstream.

      On the other hand, low VLDL levels and no other changes may indicate a deficiency in VLDL production. However, it is important to note that low levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs may not necessarily indicate a deficiency in either lipoprotein. In fact, both chylomicrons and VLDLs would be expected to be high in this scenario.

      Understanding the causes and clinical features of lipoprotein abnormalities is crucial in diagnosing and managing related health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As an F1 doctor on a paediatric ward, you come across a 9-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As an F1 doctor on a paediatric ward, you come across a 9-year-old girl with her parents. She has been diagnosed with West syndrome and is part of a research trial that requires regular EEG recordings. While discussing her progress during the ward round, the girl interrupts and expresses her dislike for the 'horrible head stickers'. She becomes visibly upset when the trial is mentioned. What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Explore with the parents their understanding of the benefits and risks associated with the trial

      Correct Answer: Raise your concerns with your consultant about the child's obvious objections in being involved with the trial

      Explanation:

      It is unprofessional to disregard the concerns regarding the patient’s participation in the trial. As an F1 doctor, it would be an extreme measure to remove the child from the trial or report the matter to the GMC without consulting a senior colleague first. It would be advisable to discuss the parents’ comprehension of the trial, but it would be more appropriate to approach the consultant initially, as they would have more knowledge of the research being conducted. The GMC guidelines also state that children and young people should not be involved in research if they object or appear to object, even if their parents provide consent.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with a suddenly hot and swollen knee joint. The issue began approximately 24 hours ago. His temperature is currently 38.2°C and blood cultures have been collected and sent for testing. During the examination, the knee is extremely sensitive, and the pain is causing limited mobility. This patient has no significant medical history and this is his first occurrence of this type of problem.
      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Aspirate knee joint and send for cell count, microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Management of Acutely Hot and Swollen Knee Joint: Aspiration, Antibiotics, and Arthroscopy

      Any patient presenting with an acutely hot and swollen joint should be treated as septic arthritis until proven otherwise. To diagnose and treat this condition early, the knee joint should be aspirated and the aspirate should be analyzed for white cells and microorganisms. IV antibiotics are necessary after the knee joint has been aspirated to increase the yield of the knee aspiration. Blood cultures have already been taken and further cultures are not required at this stage. An ultrasound scan of the knee may reveal increased joint fluid and swelling suggestive of infection or inflammation, but it will not confirm any infection. After the knee aspiration, if there was any pus, an arthroscopy and washout of the joint should be done to clear the joint of the infective fluid and protect the articular junction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are informed that a new antihypertensive has been linked to spontaneous reports...

    Incorrect

    • You are informed that a new antihypertensive has been linked to spontaneous reports of upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage in elderly patients. The MHRA has received 60 yellow card cases, and it is estimated that 120,000 people aged 65 and above have used the medication since launch. The clinical programme for the development and registration of the drug involved 3,800 elderly subjects. What is the most suitable study to investigate this adverse event?

      Your Answer: Retrospective database analysis

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      Study Design for Investigating Adverse Events

      The rate of adverse events (AEs) associated with a medication is extremely low, as reported in only 60 patients. Even though yellow cards only account for a small proportion of AEs, a further clinical study or a prospective cohort study is unlikely to provide meaningful outputs over the required period. Mechanistic animal studies can generate a scientific hypothesis, but they cannot confirm the cause of an important AE. On the other hand, a case-control study can provide a readout on risk factors associated with a specific AE compared to control patients over a relatively short period.

      In summary, the study design for investigating AEs depends on the number of reported cases and the required period for obtaining meaningful outputs. While clinical and prospective cohort studies are suitable for investigating rare AEs with a large sample size, case-control studies are more appropriate for investigating specific AEs with a smaller sample size over a shorter period. Mechanistic animal studies can provide a scientific hypothesis, but they cannot confirm the cause of an important AE. Therefore, researchers should choose the appropriate study design based on the specific AE and the research question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of breath. She describes it as ‘coming on suddenly without warning’. They have woken her at night before. She describes the attacks as a ‘tightness’ in the chest and says that they are associated with tingling in her fingers. The episodes resolve in a few minutes by themselves. She is otherwise medically fit and well. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and has a family history of asthma. Examination is normal, and the peak expiratory flow rate is normal for her age and height.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic attacks

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between possible causes of acute shortness of breath: A medical analysis

      When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, it is important to consider a range of possible causes. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest panic attacks rather than left ventricular failure, acute asthma attacks, COPD, or anaemia.

      Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset and spontaneous resolution, numbness of extremities, and normal examination and peak flow measurement. They can be triggered or occur unexpectedly, and may be due to a disorder such as panic disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder, or secondary to medical problems such as thyroid disease. Treatment includes psychological therapies, breathing exercises, stress avoidance, and pharmacological therapies such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

      Left ventricular failure, on the other hand, would cause respiratory problems due to pulmonary congestion, leading to reduced pulmonary compliance and increased airway resistance. Examination of someone with left ventricular failure would reveal pulmonary crackles and possibly a small mitral regurgitation murmur. However, it is unlikely that a woman would experience acute episodes such as these due to heart failure.

      Acute asthma attacks are typically triggered by inhaled allergens or other factors such as cold/dry air, stress, or upper respiratory tract infections. The absence of triggers in this case suggests that asthma is not the diagnosis.

      COPD is a possible differential due to the patient’s smoking history, but it is unlikely to have worsened so acutely and resolved in a matter of minutes. The normal peak expiratory flow rate also suggests that COPD is not the cause.

      Finally, anaemia would not account for acute episodes of shortness of breath, which are present normally on exertion in anaemic patients. Signs of anaemia such as pallor, tachycardia, cardiac dilation, or oedema are not mentioned in the patient’s history.

      In conclusion, a careful analysis of the patient’s symptoms and medical history can help differentiate between possible causes of acute shortness of breath, leading to appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old man with a history of acromegaly presents for a check-up. He...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of acromegaly presents for a check-up. He reports experiencing pins and needles in his hands in the early morning hours, and a positive Tinel's sign. Which muscle is most likely to be weak?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Median Nerve Innervation

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can cause weakness in the abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve. This muscle, along with the opponens pollicis, is controlled by the median nerve. The flexor pollicis brevis muscle may also be innervated by either the median or ulnar nerve. In this case, the symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often associated with acromegaly. Early intervention is crucial in treating carpal tunnel syndrome, as permanent nerve damage can occur if decompression is delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading, which she has noticed over the past two weeks. She has never worn glasses and is not taking any medications.

      Upon examination, her pupils are of normal size but react sluggishly to light. Both optic discs appear sharp, without signs of haemorrhages or exudates. However, her visual acuity is significantly impaired and remains so even when using a pinhole card. Additionally, she exhibits five-beat nystagmus and double vision when looking to the left.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Myopia

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis in a Young Woman

      This young woman shows signs of retrobulbar neuritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve behind the eye. Additionally, she exhibits some cerebellar features such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Multiple sclerosis (MS), a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system.

      Further diagnostic tests can support this diagnosis. Visual evoked responses can measure the electrical activity in the brain in response to visual stimuli, which can be abnormal in MS. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can reveal demyelinating plaques, or areas of damage to the protective covering of nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord. Finally, oligoclonal bands can be detected in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of MS patients, indicating an immune response in the central nervous system.

      In summary, this young woman’s symptoms and diagnostic tests suggest a possible diagnosis of MS. Further evaluation and treatment by a healthcare professional are necessary to confirm this diagnosis and manage her symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the neurotransmitter that opposes the effects of dopamine in the basal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the neurotransmitter that opposes the effects of dopamine in the basal ganglia?

      Your Answer: GABA

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The Role of Dopamine and Acetylcholine in the Extrapyramidal Motor System

      The basal ganglia is a complex structure in the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating and controlling the extrapyramidal motor system. Within the basal ganglia, there are two types of neurons that work together to maintain proper motor function: dopamine-producing neurons and acetylcholine-producing neurons.

      The substantia nigra, a structure within the basal ganglia, is rich in dopamine-producing neurons. Dopamine exerts an excitatory effect on the extrapyramidal motor system, facilitating movement. On the other hand, acetylcholine exerts an inhibitory effect on the extrapyramidal motor system.

      When both sets of neurons are functioning properly, the extrapyramidal motor system operates normally. However, if either set of neurons is malfunctioning, there can be an excess of inhibition or excitation of the extrapyramidal motor system, resulting in neurological dysfunction.

      One example of this is Parkinson’s disease, which is characterized by a loss of dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. This leads to bradykinesia and rigidity in patients. the role of dopamine and acetylcholine in the extrapyramidal motor system is crucial for and treating neurological disorders that affect motor function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge. She describes it as a thin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge. She describes it as a thin, greyish, watery discharge. It is painless and has a fishy odour.
      Which is the appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1 g stat

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400 mg twice a day for a week

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Treatment Options for Vaginal Infections

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection that results in a decrease in lactobacilli and an increase in anaerobic bacteria. The typical symptoms include a white, milky, non-viscous discharge with a fishy odor and a pH greater than 4.5. The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole 400 mg twice a day for a week.

      Azithromycin is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia, but it is not appropriate for bacterial vaginosis. acyclovir is used to treat herpes infections, which is not the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Fluconazole is a treatment option for vaginal candidiasis, but it is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Pivmecillinam is used to treat urinary tract infections, which is not the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole, and other treatments should be considered based on the specific diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to the Cardiology clinic with a heart murmur. During the physical exam, the patient exhibits a collapsing pulse. Upon auscultation, a 2/5 early diastolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal edge, which is more pronounced during expiration.
      What is the most probable clinical sign that will be observed?

      Your Answer: Pulsatile hepatomegaly

      Correct Answer: Corrigan’s sign

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Signs and Their Associated Conditions

      Corrigan’s Sign: This sign is characterized by an abrupt distension and collapse of the carotid arteries, indicating aortic incompetence. It is often seen in patients with a collapsing pulse and an early diastolic murmur, which are suggestive of aortic regurgitation. A wide pulse pressure may also be found.

      Malar Flush: Mitral stenosis is associated with malar flush, a mid-diastolic murmur, loudest at the apex when the patient is in the left lateral position, and a tapping apex. A small-volume pulse is also typical.

      Tapping Apex: A tapping apex is a classical sign of mitral stenosis.

      Pulsatile Hepatomegaly: Severe tricuspid regurgitation can cause reverse blood flow to the liver during systole, resulting in pulsatile hepatomegaly.

      Clubbing: Clubbing is more commonly seen in lung pathology and is unlikely to present in aortic regurgitation. It is seen in congenital cyanotic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      95.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 57-year-old woman received a call from an out of hours GP who...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman received a call from an out of hours GP who advised her to go to the emergency department due to abnormalities found on her blood tests during her annual well woman check-up. She has a medical history of systemic sclerosis and uses topical emollients on her hands. She denies any allergies, is an ex-smoker, and does not consume alcohol. Her blood results are as follows:

      - Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 151 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 11.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 164 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 30 ml/min (>90)

      Upon observation, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is high. In the right arm, it is 187/95 mmHg and in the left arm is 191/94 mmHg. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Correct Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      When systemic sclerosis leads to kidney problems, hypertension and AKI are common symptoms. The preferred treatment for this is ACE inhibitors, with lisinopril being the appropriate choice. In severe cases of sclerodermic renal crisis, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia may also occur. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension, while bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can also be used for this purpose. Doxazosin, on the other hand, is an α blocker used to treat hypertension.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously...

    Incorrect

    • During her prenatal appointment, a mother informs her obstetrician that she was previously diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What is the procedure that poses the highest risk of bleeding in the newborn?

      Your Answer: Fetal blood sampling

      Correct Answer: Prolonged ventouse delivery

      Explanation:

      During pregnancies, immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) can become a complication if maternal antiplatelet antibodies pass through the placenta. In such cases, ventouse delivery can cause bleeding in the neonate due to the high vacuum pressure. This can worsen conditions like cephalohaematoma or subgaleal haemorrhage, especially if the neonate has thrombocytopenia. While forceps and fetal blood sampling can be used with caution, they are not as risky.

      Understanding the Difference between Gestational Thrombocytopenia and Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)

      Gestational thrombocytopenia and immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) are two conditions that affect platelet count during pregnancy. Gestational thrombocytopenia is a common condition that results from a combination of factors such as dilution, decreased production, and increased destruction of platelets. On the other hand, ITP is an autoimmune condition that is usually associated with acute purpuric episodes in children, but a chronic relapsing course may be seen more frequently in women.

      Differentiating between the two conditions can be challenging and often relies on a careful history. Gestational thrombocytopenia may be considered more likely if the platelet count continues to fall as pregnancy progresses, but this is not a reliable sign. If the patient becomes dangerously thrombocytopenic, she will usually be treated with steroids, and a diagnosis of ITP assumed. Pregnant women found to have low platelets during a booking visit or those with a previous diagnosis of ITP may need to be tested for serum antiplatelet antibodies for confirmation.

      It is important to note that gestational thrombocytopenia does not affect the neonate, but ITP can do if maternal antibodies cross the placenta. Depending on the degree of thrombocytopenia in the newborn, platelet transfusions may be indicated. Serial platelet counts can also be performed to see whether there is an inherited thrombocytopenia. Understanding the difference between these two conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and management during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old woman is in a car accident. Another car collided with a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is in a car accident. Another car collided with a truck and she swerved to avoid them, hitting a tree. Two weeks later, she still experiences flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty sleeping. Her brother reports that she startles easily and seems disoriented at times. The woman denies any chest pain or dizziness.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute stress reaction

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder refers to a reaction to a traumatic event that occurs within four weeks, as opposed to PTSD which is diagnosed after this time frame. Symptoms may include negative mood, dissociation, and avoidance.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.1
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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia has been taking clozapine for five years and...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia has been taking clozapine for five years and has been stable during that time. During his latest check-up, it was discovered that his clozapine levels were higher than recommended, resulting in a reduction in his dosage.
      What is the most probable cause of an increase in clozapine blood levels?

      Your Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Stopping smoking can increase clozapine levels, while starting or increasing smoking can decrease them. Alcohol binges can also increase levels, while omitting doses can decrease them. Stress and weight gain have minimal effects on clozapine levels. It is important to discuss smoking cessation with a psychiatrist before making any changes.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11
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  • Question 15 - Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant. She presents to...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant. She presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of sharp abdominal pain. There is no vaginal bleeding. She also has a low grade fever of 37.8 ºC. Her pregnancy until now has been unremarkable.

      On examination, she is haemodynamically stable, but there is tenderness on palpation of the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. Fetal heart rate was normal. An ultrasound scan was performed which showed a singleton pregnancy, and multiple large fibroids in the uterus. The ovaries appeared normal and there was no appendix inflammation.

      What is the most likely cause of Linda's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Correct Answer: Fibroid degeneration

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, fibroid degeneration can occur and may cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.

      If the ultrasound scan does not show any signs of inflammation in the appendix, it is unlikely that the patient has appendicitis.

      Since the patient has fibroids in her uterus, she is at risk of experiencing fibroid degeneration, which is a common complication during pregnancy. Symptoms of fibroid degeneration may include fever, pain, and vomiting.

      The absence of vaginal bleeding makes it unlikely that the patient is experiencing a threatened miscarriage.

      While ovarian torsion can cause pain and vomiting, it typically occurs in patients with risk factors such as ovarian cysts or ovarian enlargement.

      Understanding Fibroid Degeneration

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.

      Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      57.9
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old woman is worried about the appearance of her toenails. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is worried about the appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but without success. What is the best course of treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer: Topical fluconazole

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection

      Fungal nail infection is a common condition that affects many adults. If self-care measures and topical treatments are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line treatment recommended is Terbinafine, which is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. It is important to seek medical advice and follow the recommended treatment plan to effectively manage fungal nail infection. For further information, resources such as CKS Fungal nail infections, GP Notebook, and Patient.info can be consulted. The British Association of Dermatologists also provides guidelines for the treatment of onychomycosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions....

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions. Her son had his first seizure a few days ago while suffering from a viral respiratory infection. She describes it as a typical, simple febrile convulsion lasting 2-3 minutes with full recovery in about 30 minutes. The mother recalls being informed that there is a risk of recurrence, but she was not given any treatment and was discharged home. She wants to know when she should call an ambulance if it happens again.

      Your Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion within 48 hours

      Correct Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if their child experiences a febrile convulsion lasting more than 5 minutes, they should call for an ambulance. While some children may have recurrent febrile convulsions, simple ones typically last up to 15 minutes and result in complete recovery within an hour. In these cases, parents can manage their child at home with clear guidance on when to seek medical help, including the use of buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes, an ambulance should be called. If there is a subsequent convulsion lasting less than 5 minutes with a recovery time of 30-60 minutes, the child may be able to stay at home. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 10 or 15 minutes, an ambulance should have already been called after the initial 5 minutes.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man with a history of haemochromatosis complains of a painful and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of haemochromatosis complains of a painful and swollen right knee. An x-ray reveals no fracture but significant chondrocalcinosis. Assuming the diagnosis is pseudogout, what is the most probable finding in the joint fluid?

      Your Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is characterized by rhomboid-shaped crystals that exhibit weakly positive birefringence.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her risk of developing Down syndrome was calculated as 1 in 8, and she was offered a diagnostic test. Amniocentesis confirms Down syndrome. Following long discussions with her and her partner, she decides on termination of the pregnancy.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an inpatient

      Explanation:

      Medical and Surgical Management of Termination of Pregnancy

      Medical and surgical management are two options for termination of pregnancy. Medical management involves the use of oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. This method is recommended for termination of pregnancy before 13 weeks’ gestation and can be performed in an inpatient setting. The patient is administered the medication in hospital and will stay in the clinic or hospital to pass the pregnancy. Appropriate analgesia and antiemetics are given to take home, as required. The patient should be advised that there is a possibility medical management will fail and surgical management will need to take place.

      Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone for the progesterone receptor. It promotes degradation of the decidualised endometrium, cervical ripening and dilation, as well as increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. Misoprostol, a synthetic prostaglandin E1, in turn, binds avidly to myometrial cells, promoting contraction of the uterus, and therefore expulsion of the products of conception. If this fails to empty the uterus, then a surgical procedure to manually evacuate the uterus is the next appropriate step in the patient’s management.

      Surgical termination of pregnancy is first line for women presenting after 14 weeks’ gestation, women who have a preference over medical management and patients where medical termination has failed.

      In cases where the patient has decided to proceed with termination of pregnancy, delaying the procedure is unethical and does not benefit the patient in any way. The patient should be fully informed of the risks associated with the procedure and given the necessary support.

      Vaginal misoprostol can also be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) for a cardiovascular risk...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) for a cardiovascular risk assessment. She is worried about her family history of premature ischaemic heart disease, although she currently feels healthy. She has a history of hypertension that is well managed with bendroflumethiazide, amlodipine, and lisinopril. She has never smoked and only drinks on special occasions.
      During the examination, her BMI is 30, heart rate is regular at 80 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 128/86 mmHg. The GP determines that the patient is at an increased risk of developing heart disease and wants to prescribe an additional medication to her current regimen.
      What other medication should the GP consider for this patient?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Medication Recommendations for Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease in a Patient with a Family History and Raised BMI

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends 20 mg atorvastatin once daily for primary prevention of cardiovascular events in patients with a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease, such as those with a ≥10% 10-year risk calculated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. In this case, the patient has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease and a raised BMI, making her a good candidate for statin therapy.

      Gliclazide is a medication used to treat diabetes by stimulating insulin production. However, in the absence of a history of diabetes, there is no indication to start the patient on antihyperglycaemic medication like gliclazide or metformin, despite her increased risk due to her BMI.

      Aspirin is no longer routinely recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, but it may be considered in patients with a high risk of cardiovascular disease. The benefits and risks should be discussed with the patient.

      Finally, warfarin is not indicated for this patient as she does not have a history of atrial fibrillation, venous thromboembolism, or stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. She had her last menstrual period at the age of 48 and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding since then. The patient has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. She is currently taking a tiotropium/olodaterol inhaler and lansoprazole. She used to take the combined oral contraceptive pill for 20 years but did not undergo hormone replacement therapy. The patient has never been pregnant and has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. What is the most significant risk factor for her possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Correct Answer: Nulliparity

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is more likely to occur in women who have never given birth. One of the warning signs of endometrial cancer is bleeding after menopause. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a known risk factor for endometrial cancer, but conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and polycystic ovary syndrome are. While late menopause can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, this patient experienced menopause at around age 50, which is slightly earlier than average. Smoking is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer, but it is associated with an increased risk of other types of cancer such as cervical, vulval, and breast cancer. On the other hand, taking the combined oral contraceptive pill can lower the risk of endometrial cancer, but it may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old male with depression is evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male with depression is evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses his ongoing depressed mood and shares with his psychiatrist that he experiences a sense of detachment from reality.

      Which term best describes the abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Depersonalisation

      Explanation:

      Depersonalisation and Derealisation

      Depersonalisation and derealisation are two distinct experiences that can occur in individuals with mental health conditions. Depersonalisation refers to the feeling that one’s own self is not real, while derealisation refers to the feeling that the world around them is not real.

      In depersonalisation, individuals may feel as though they are observing themselves from outside of their body or that they are disconnected from their thoughts and emotions. This can be a distressing experience and may lead to feelings of detachment and isolation.

      On the other hand, derealisation can cause individuals to feel as though the world around them is unreal or dreamlike. This can lead to feelings of confusion and disorientation, as well as difficulty with concentration and memory.

      It is important to note that these experiences can occur in a variety of mental health conditions, including anxiety, depression, and dissociative disorders. While anhedonia, delusions of guilt, and reduced affect display may be present in some individuals with depression, they are not necessarily associated with depersonalisation or derealisation.

      Overall, these experiences can help individuals and their loved ones better recognize and manage symptoms of mental illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old male arrived at the emergency department with a humeral shaft fracture...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male arrived at the emergency department with a humeral shaft fracture after falling from a rooftop during a party. He admits to taking recreational drugs before the incident but is unsure of what he consumed. After receiving analgesia, he undergoes surgery to fix his fracture with a coaptation splint and functional brace. The next day, he reports suprapubic pain and difficulty urinating, leading to a diagnosis of acute urinary retention. What drug is the probable cause of his urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Tamsulosin

      Correct Answer: Morphine sulfate

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioid analgesia, with morphine sulfate being a frequent culprit. While cannabis contains THC, which produces a psychoactive effect, it is not typically associated with acute urinary retention. Cocaine overdose can cause cardiovascular and sympathetic effects, but not an increased risk of urinary retention. Ketamine use may lead to ketamine bladder syndrome, which causes urinary frequency and urgency rather than retention.

      Drugs that can cause urinary retention

      Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which particle is mainly accountable for the process of reverse cholesterol transport? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which particle is mainly accountable for the process of reverse cholesterol transport?

      Your Answer: Chylomicrons

      Correct Answer: HDL

      Explanation:

      The Role of HDL in Reverse Cholesterol Transport

      Reverse cholesterol transport is a crucial process in regulating the development of atherosclerosis. It involves the transportation of cholesterol from peripheral tissues back to the liver, and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) is the major lipoprotein involved in this pathway. HDL, which is synthesized in the liver, accepts cholesterol from peripheral tissues and transports it back to the liver through direct uptake via the HDL scavenger receptor or indirectly after transfer to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) by cholesterol ester transfer protein (CETP) and then uptake by the LDL receptor.

      The reverse cholesterol transport through HDL helps slow down the development of atheroma, and HDL also has direct anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties that are cardioprotective. The importance of HDL is reflected in the epidemiological association between low HDL and increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Therefore, there is hope that new pharmacological therapies aimed at increasing HDL will be successful in the fight against atherosclerosis, although results have been mixed so far.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus...

    Incorrect

    • What type of complement deficiency is linked to the onset of systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer: C5

      Correct Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      During active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), complement levels are typically reduced and can be utilized to track disease flares. Studies have demonstrated that decreased levels of C4a and C4b are linked to a higher likelihood of developing SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is an example of an exocrine function of the pancreas? ...

    Correct

    • What is an example of an exocrine function of the pancreas?

      Your Answer: Secretion of amylase

      Explanation:

      Functions of Digestive Enzymes and Hormones

      Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of carbohydrates. It is present in both pancreatic juices and saliva. The exocrine function of the pancreas involves the secretion of substances into ducts that ultimately pass to the exterior of the body. Examples of exocrine glands include sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands. On the other hand, the endocrine function of the pancreas involves the secretion of substances directly into the bloodstream. Insulin, which is secreted from the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas, is an example of an endocrine function.

      Bile is another substance that aids in digestion. It is secreted by hepatocytes and stored in the gallbladder. Following a meal, bile is released to aid in the digestion of fats. Intrinsic factor, which is secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach, is responsible for binding vitamin B12 to allow its absorption in the terminal ileum. Finally, noradrenaline is a hormone that is released by the adrenal medulla. It plays a role in the body’s fight or flight response.

      In summary, the digestive system relies on a variety of enzymes and hormones to function properly. These substances are secreted by various glands and organs throughout the body, and they work together to break down food and absorb nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You are investigating the genetic implications for developing Alzheimer's disease as a part...

    Incorrect

    • You are investigating the genetic implications for developing Alzheimer's disease as a part of a research paper.
      Which of the following gene alleles is protective against developing Alzheimer's disease in individuals over the age of 60?

      Your Answer: ApoE-e3

      Correct Answer: ApoE-e2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Role of Apolipoprotein E Gene Alleles in Alzheimer’s Disease and Cardiovascular Risk

      Apolipoprotein E (ApoE) is a crucial component of very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) and has three common gene alleles: ApoE-e2, e3, and e4. Among these, e3 is the most prevalent, found in 50% of the population. However, the presence of different alleles can have varying effects on an individual’s health.

      ApoE-e2 is considered a protective gene against the development of Alzheimer’s disease. On the other hand, ApoE-e4 is regarded as a positive predictor for developing the disease and is also associated with the development of atheromatous disease, making it a predictor of cardiovascular risk.

      It is important to note that ApoE-e1 and e5 are not significant in terms of their association with Alzheimer’s disease or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, understanding the role of ApoE gene alleles can help in predicting an individual’s susceptibility to these diseases and developing appropriate preventive measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient with hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain that feels heavy. The pain does not radiate, and there are no other risk factors for atherosclerosis. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are normal, including pulse, temperature, and oxygen saturation. The patient appears sweaty, but cardiovascular and respiratory exams are unremarkable. The patient experiences tenderness over the sternum at the site of the chest pain, and the resting electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient

      Explanation:

      Management of Chest Pain in a Patient with Risk Factors for Cardiac Disease

      Chest pain is a common presenting complaint in primary care and emergency departments. However, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with risk factors for cardiac disease. Here are some management strategies for a patient with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease:

      Arrange a 12-h troponin T assay before deciding whether or not to discharge the patient. A normal troponin assay would make a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome unlikely, but further investigation may be required to determine if the patient has underlying coronary artery disease.

      Do not discharge the patient with a diagnosis of costochondritis based solely on chest wall tenderness. This should only be used in low-risk patients with tenderness that accurately reproduces the pain they have been feeling on minimal palpation.

      Do not discharge the patient if serial resting ECGs are normal. A normal ECG does not rule out an acute cardiac event.

      Admit the patient to the Coronary Care Unit for monitoring and further assessment only if the 12-h troponin comes back elevated.

      Do not discharge the patient and arrange an outpatient exercise tolerance test until further investigation has been done to rule out an acute cardiac event.

      In summary, it is important to consider the possibility of an acute coronary syndrome in patients with chest pain and risk factors for cardiac disease. Further investigation, such as a 12-h troponin assay, may be required before deciding on appropriate management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman with epilepsy, associated with generalised tonic–clonic seizures, attends her regular Epilepsy Clinic appointment with her partner. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but she wants to start trying for a baby. She is currently on sodium valproate and has been seizure-free for one year.
      What is the most suitable antiepileptic medication for this patient to take during the preconception period and pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Stop sodium valproate and commence lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Introduction:
      Women of childbearing age with epilepsy require careful consideration of their antiepileptic medication options due to the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. This article will discuss the appropriate medication options for women with epilepsy who are planning to conceive or are already pregnant.

      Antiepileptic Medication Options for Women of Childbearing Age

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Lamotrigine:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) as safer alternatives. Lamotrigine is a sodium channel blocker and has fewer side effects than carbamazepine. It is present in breast milk but has not been associated with harmful effects on the infant.

      Continue Sodium Valproate:
      Sodium valproate is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. Women taking sodium valproate should be reviewed preconception to change their medication to a safer alternative. Untreated epilepsy can be a major risk factor in pregnancy, increasing maternal and fetal mortality.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Ethosuximide:
      Ethosuximide is not appropriate for this patient’s management as it is recommended for absence seizures or myoclonic seizures. Use during breastfeeding has been associated with infant hyperexcitability and sedation.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Levetiracetam:
      Levetiracetam is recommended as an adjunct medication for generalised tonic-clonic seizures that have failed to respond to first-line treatment. This patient has well-controlled seizures on first-line treatment and does not require adjunct medication. Other second-line medications include clobazam, lamotrigine, sodium valproate and topiramate.

      Stop Sodium Valproate and Commence Phenytoin:
      Phenytoin is a teratogenic drug and should be avoided in pregnancy. It can lead to fetal hydantoin syndrome, which includes a combination of developmental abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      64.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (0/2) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/5) 20%
Gynaecology (0/3) 0%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Obstetrics (1/3) 33%
Psychiatry (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
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