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  • Question 1 - A 2-day-old baby girl is presented to the emergency department by her parents...

    Correct

    • A 2-day-old baby girl is presented to the emergency department by her parents with complaints of decreased oral intake and fussiness. The parents also report that the baby has been vomiting green liquid and has not had a bowel movement since passing meconium, although she has had wet diapers. The baby was born vaginally at 39 weeks without any complications during pregnancy or delivery. An upper gastrointestinal contrast study revealed intestinal malrotation. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment option?

      Your Answer: Ladd’s procedure

      Explanation:

      A newborn with symptoms of bowel obstruction and bilious vomiting is suspected to have paediatric intestinal malrotation with volvulus. An upper gastrointestinal contrast study confirms the diagnosis. The most appropriate management option is a Ladd’s procedure, which involves division of Ladd bands and widening of the base of the mesentery. If vascular compromise is present, an urgent laparotomy is required. IV antibiotics are not indicated as there are no signs of infection. NEC may require antibiotics, but it presents differently with feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools, and is more common in premature infants.

      Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.

      Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.

      Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.

      Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.

      Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.

      Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      186
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia and prescribed clozapine for...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia and prescribed clozapine for the past three months. She is due for a review appointment and has had regular blood tests. What is the primary abnormality she is at risk for?

      Your Answer: Increased prolactin

      Correct Answer: Decreased leukocytes

      Explanation:

      Monitoring of FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine due to the potential life-threatening side effect of agranulocytosis/neutropenia. This condition is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cell count, particularly neutrophils. Therefore, a decrease in leukocytes will be observed in the blood test results. Clozapine is commonly used in the treatment of schizophrenia that is resistant to other therapies.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      32.9
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  • Question 3 - An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The following results are from his arterial blood gas (ABG):
      pH 7.37 (normal range 7.35–7.45)
      pa(O2) 7.6 (normal range 10–14 kPa)
      pa(CO2) 8 (normal range 4.0–6.0 kPa)
      HCO3 37 (normal range 22–26 mmol)
      base excess +6 (normal range −2 to +2 mmol).
      Which of the following best describe this man’s blood gas result?

      Your Answer: Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABGs: A Five-Step Approach and Mnemonic

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is a crucial tool in assessing a patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to interpreting ABGs:

      1. Assess the patient.
      2. Assess their oxygenation (pa(O2) should be >10 kPa).
      3. Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH < 7.35) or alkalotic (pH > 7.45).
      4. Assess respiratory status by determining if their pa(CO2) is high or low.
      5. Assess metabolic status by determining if their bicarbonate (HCO3) is high or low.

      To aid in understanding ABGs, the mnemonic ROME can be used:

      – Respiratory = Opposite: A low pH and high pa(CO2) indicate respiratory acidosis, while a high pH and low pa(CO2) indicate respiratory alkalosis.
      – Metabolic = Equivalent: A high pH and high HCO3 indicate metabolic alkalosis, while a low pH and low HCO3 indicate metabolic acidosis.

      Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a normal pH, high pa(CO2), and high HCO3, indicating renal compensation. In contrast, compensation for respiratory alkalosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease would show a low pa(CO2) and a high pH.

      Partial compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a high pa(CO2) and a high HCO3, with a normal pH indicating full compensation and a mildly altered pH indicating partial compensation. Compensation for metabolic acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is not applicable, as this condition would present with low HCO3 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old man is admitted to your psychiatric ward in a state of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man is admitted to your psychiatric ward in a state of distress saying that he knows for certain that his colleagues are plotting to have him dismissed from work. He says they are spreading malicious rumours about his sexuality and, with the help of the CIA, have bugged his office. In the first week of his admission, he is observed to be responding to unseen stimuli when alone in his room. His family state that he is a lovely lad who never gets into any trouble with drink or drugs. They are very worried because in the last 3 months he has told them he can hear people talking about him to each other when he lies in bed at night. He has no significant medical history.
      Which one of the following courses of action would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Commence chlorpromazine with lorazepam and procyclidine as required

      Correct Answer: Commence olanzapine with lorazepam and procyclidine as required

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder that requires prompt treatment. The following are some treatment options for schizophrenia:

      Commence Olanzapine with Lorazepam and Procyclidine as Required
      Olanzapine is an atypical anti-psychotic that carries a lower risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. However, it is appropriate to prescribe anticholinergic medication such as procyclidine to reduce the risk further. The anti-psychotic action of olanzapine may take up to 10 days to begin, so short-acting benzodiazepines such as lorazepam may be prescribed for sedation.

      Do Not Just Observe with Sedation as Required
      Observing with sedation is not a definitive treatment for schizophrenia. It is essential to commence anti-psychotic medication promptly.

      Commence Chlorpromazine
      Chlorpromazine is a typical anti-psychotic that carries a higher risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. Therefore, atypical anti-psychotics are usually preferred as first-line treatment.

      Commence Clozapine
      Clozapine is the most effective medication for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. However, it carries a small risk of serious complications such as fatal agranulocytosis, myocarditis or cardiomyopathy, and pulmonary embolus. Therefore, it is usually reserved for patients who have not responded to two anti-psychotics given at an appropriate dose for 6-8 weeks.

      Commence Chlorpromazine with Lorazepam and Procyclidine as Required
      Chlorpromazine is a typical anti-psychotic that carries a higher risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. Therefore, it is appropriate to prescribe anticholinergic medication such as procyclidine to reduce the risk. Short-acting benzodiazepines such as lorazepam may also be prescribed for sedation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      67.3
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born via normal vaginal delivery and weighs 3.8 kg. The baby has a normal Newborn and Infant Physical Examination (NIPE) after birth and the mother recovers well following the delivery. The mother wishes to breastfeed her baby and is supported to do so by the midwives on the ward.

      They are visited at home by the health visitor two weeks later. The health visitor asks how they have been getting on and the mother explains that she has been experiencing problems with breastfeeding and that her baby often struggles to latch on to her breast. She explains that this has made her very anxious that she is doing something wrong and has made her feel like she is failing as a mother. When her baby does manage to latch on to feed he occasionally gets reflux and vomits afterward. The health visitor weighs the baby who is now 3.4kg.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Refer her to a midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If a baby loses more than 10% of its birth weight, it is necessary to refer the mother and baby to a midwife for assistance in increasing the baby’s weight.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      743.2
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  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient departments with a height of...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient departments with a height of 142 cm, which is below the 0.4th centile. Upon examination, she has an immature-appearing face and a significantly delayed bone age on wrist x-ray. Her TSH levels are normal, and she is at an appropriate Tanner stage. It is noted that her mother had her menarche at the age of 11 years. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      Growth Hormone Deficiency as a Cause of Short Stature in Pubescent Girls

      A girl who has gone through puberty but has not gained height may have growth hormone deficiency. This condition is characterized by a discrepancy between the girl’s bone age and chronological age, as well as a doll-like face that gives her an immature appearance. Growth hormone deficiency is a rare but significant cause of short stature, as it can be a symptom of an underlying disease and can be treated with replacement injections.

      In some cases, GH deficiency may be caused by intracerebral masses, particularly craniopharyngiomas in 7- to 10-year-olds. However, if a chronic illness were the cause, such as coeliac disease or Cushing syndrome, it would likely delay puberty and result in an inappropriately young Tanner stage. The girl would also be expected to exhibit features of the chronic condition.

      It is important to note that this girl is not suffering from constitutional delay, as she has already entered puberty and has appropriate Tanner staging. Constitutional delay is typically characterized by a family history and delayed menarche in the affected individual. Therefore, growth hormone deficiency should be considered as a potential cause of short stature in pubescent girls who have not gained height despite going through puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - In which part of the kidney does ADH mainly have an impact? ...

    Correct

    • In which part of the kidney does ADH mainly have an impact?

      Your Answer: Collecting duct

      Explanation:

      ADH Role in Water Reabsorption

      ADH primarily affects the collecting duct, where it alters the permeability to water, resulting in the reabsorption of water and further concentration of urine. In simpler terms, ADH is a last-minute adjustment of the water content in urine. Its primary function is to regulate the amount of water in the body by controlling the amount of water that is excreted in urine. When the body is dehydrated, ADH levels increase, causing the kidneys to reabsorb more water and produce less urine. Conversely, when the body is well-hydrated, ADH levels decrease, resulting in the excretion of more water and the production of more dilute urine. Overall, ADH plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s water balance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.7
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old sexually active, unmarried man comes in with a painful sore on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old sexually active, unmarried man comes in with a painful sore on the glans of his penis. He reports experiencing discomfort and swelling in both of his groin areas. Upon examination, a tender ulcer with distinct, undermined borders that bleeds easily is discovered. Additionally, bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy is observed during the examination, and a small sinus is visible above one of the lymph nodes, with pus easily expressed.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Chancroid, Chlamydia, Syphilis, HIV, and gonorrhoeae

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, is a common STD that presents with painful genital ulcers and tender lymphadenopathy. Treatment involves a single dose of azithromycin. Chlamydia, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, may be asymptomatic or present with penile/vaginal discharge or pain. Syphilis, on the other hand, presents with painless genital pustules that eventually ulcerate and does not typically involve lymphadenopathy. HIV, although associated with an increased risk of STDs, does not present with genital ulcers. gonorrhoeae, caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, usually presents with penile/vaginal discharge, dysuria, and pelvic pain, but can also be asymptomatic. It is important to practice safe sex and get tested regularly for STDs to prevent their spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      164.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that have been occurring on and off for the past few months. She reports experiencing episodes of weakness accompanied by rapid, involuntary movements of her arms. Additionally, she has been experiencing persistent tingling sensations, occasional double vision, electric shocks down her arms and trunk when she flexes her neck, and constipation. Based on these symptoms, what would be the most appropriate initial test to diagnose her condition?

      Your Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis: The Importance of MRI

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a debilitating disease that affects many individuals, particularly women. Symptoms can range from spastic weakness to loss of vision, making it difficult to diagnose. However, the first line investigation for somebody with MS is an MRI of the brain and spinal cord. This is because MRI is much more sensitive for picking up inflammation and demyelination than a CT scan, and it does not involve irradiation. Additionally, lumbar puncture can be used to detect IgG oligoclonal bands, which are not present in the serum. While other tests such as antibody testing and slit-lamp examination of the eyes may be useful, they are not first line investigations. It is important to diagnose MS early to prevent further damage to myelin sheaths and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.1
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  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation of her first pregnancy visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation of her first pregnancy visits her doctor complaining of tremors after starting a medication for hyperemesis gravidarum. During the examination, the patient displays a resting tremor in her right hand and heightened tone in her upper limbs. What medication is the patient likely taking?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is an option for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, but should not be used for more than 5 days due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects. A resting tremor and increased upper limb tone in a pregnant woman after starting medication for hyperemesis gravidarum may indicate extrapyramidal effects from metoclopramide. Cyclizine, ondansetron, and prednisolone are not likely to cause extrapyramidal effects, but may have other side effects and are not first-line treatments for hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      52.1
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  • Question 11 - Which one of the following statements regarding bronchiolitis is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding bronchiolitis is true?

      Your Answer: Peak incidence is 3-6 months of age

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.3
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for 5 days before menses during each cycle over the past 6 months. She has been married for a year but has been unable to conceive. She experiences lower abdominal cramps during her menses and takes naproxen for relief. Additionally, she complains of pelvic pain during intercourse and defecation. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometrial polyps

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common gynecological problem that can have various underlying causes. Here are some of the most common causes of abnormal uterine bleeding in women:

      Endometriosis: This condition occurs when the endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, usually in the ovaries or pelvic cavity. Symptoms include painful periods, painful intercourse, painful bowel movements, and adnexal tenderness. Endometriosis can also lead to infertility.

      Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding: This condition is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the treatment of choice.

      Cervical cancer: This type of cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection, smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, use of oral contraceptives, and immunosuppression. Symptoms include vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge. Cervical cancer is rare before the age of 25 and is unlikely to cause dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, or adnexal tenderness.

      Submucosal leiomyoma: This is a benign neoplastic mass of myometrial origin that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods, but acute pain is rare.

      Endometrial polyps: These are masses of endometrial tissue attached to the inner surface of the uterus. They are more common around menopausal age and can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. They are usually not associated with pain or menstrual cramps and are not pre-malignant.

      Understanding the Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.3
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman experiences chest pain following an argument with her 16-year-old daughter....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman experiences chest pain following an argument with her 16-year-old daughter. She is brought to your clinic for evaluation. Upon examination, she appears anxious and is hyperventilating. She exhibits tenderness to light pressure on the front of her chest, but her oxygen saturation is 99% while breathing room air. An ECG reveals no abnormalities. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Explain that she has had a panic attack and that her symptoms are a consequence of this. Help her to control her breathing rate, and say that you think everything will settle down and she will be able to go home.

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      22.2
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  • Question 14 - A 62-year-old practising solicitor attends the Neurology Clinic with his wife. She is...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old practising solicitor attends the Neurology Clinic with his wife. She is deeply concerned regarding his worsening memory. Over the past three months, he has become increasingly forgetful, to the point where he has had to take sick leave from work. He has had two recent presentations to the Emergency Department following falls, though a computed tomography (CT) head scan did not demonstrate any abnormality. On examination, there is an ataxic gait and you notice fasciculations and involuntary jerking movements of the upper limbs. He has had no family history of neurological disease and was previously fit and well.
      What is the most likely underlying cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD)

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Case Study

      A patient presents with rapidly progressive dementia, imbalance leading to falls, and myoclonus. The most likely diagnosis is Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD), a devastating prion disease without cure. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred for diagnosis, as CT head is ineffective.

      Vascular dementia, another common cause of cognitive impairment, typically has a slower and stepwise onset in patients with a significant vascular history. A CT head would likely identify existing small vessel disease in the brain of a patient with vascular dementia.

      Huntington’s disease, characterized by abnormal movements and cognitive impairment, is not the most likely diagnosis due to the rapid progression and lack of family history.

      Lewy body dementia, which features visual hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, usually presents over a longer period of time.

      Motor neuron disease, which includes weakness and fasciculations, is unlikely due to the absence of weakness in this presentation. Frontotemporal dementia may rarely develop in motor neuron disease, but it is a slowly progressive phenomenon, unlike the rapid deterioration in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been worsening with physical activity for the past month. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had normal prenatal testing. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her lungs are clear bilaterally without cardiac murmur. Mild dependent oedema is noted in her lower extremities. What is the probable cause of her dyspnoea?

      Your Answer: Reduced tidal volume

      Correct Answer: Increased minute ventilation

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy and Breathlessness: Understanding the Relationship

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes numerous physiological changes that can affect her respiratory system. One of the most significant changes is an increase in tidal volume, which leads to an overall increase in minute ventilation. This increased respiratory workload can result in a feeling of breathlessness, which is experienced by up to 75% of pregnant women, particularly during the first trimester. However, it is important to note that this feeling of breathlessness is typically not indicative of any underlying cardiac or pulmonary issues.

      While some degree of dependent leg edema is normal during pregnancy, it is important to understand that other respiratory changes, such as a decrease in residual volume or a reduction in functional residual capacity, do not typically contribute to the feeling of breathlessness. Respiratory rate usually remains unchanged during pregnancy.

      Overall, understanding the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy and their impact on the respiratory system can help healthcare providers better manage and address any concerns related to breathlessness in pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching or bleeding. She is normally fit and well, without past medical history. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. She is sexually active and has a progesterone implant for contraception.
      Examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen. On pelvic examination, you notice the vagina has a white-grey coating on the walls and a fishy odour. A small amount of grey vaginal discharge is also seen. The cervix looks normal, and there is no cervical excitation. Observations are stable.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms and Treatment

      Bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas vaginalis, Candidiasis, gonorrhoeae, and Pelvic inflammatory disease are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge in women.

      Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and loss of lactobacilli in the vagina. It presents with a grey-white, thin discharge with a fishy odour and an increased vaginal pH. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice.

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that presents with a yellow-green discharge and an erythematosus cervix with a punctate exudate.

      Candidiasis is a fungal infection associated with pruritus, burning, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The vaginal discharge is thick, curd-like, and white.

      gonorrhoeae can be asymptomatic or present with abdominal pain, mucopurulent discharge, cervicitis, dyspareunia, or abnormal bleeding.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease is the result of an ascending infection and presents with dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain, menstrual irregularities, irregular bleeding, and a blood stained, purulent vaginal discharge. Cervicitis and cervical excitation are also present.

      Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve the quality of life of affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      102.9
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  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old man on palliative chemotherapy for advanced lung cancer is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man on palliative chemotherapy for advanced lung cancer is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife as he has been feeling increasingly weak and lethargic over the past few days. His arterial blood gas results are below:

      Investigation Result Normal range
      pH 7.51 7.35–7.45
      Partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) 11.7 kPa > 11 kPa
      Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) 5.5 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
      Bicarbonate (HCO3−) 29 mEq/l 22–26 mEq/l
      Base excess +3 -2 to +2
      Which of the following is most likely to cause this result?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acid-Base Imbalances: Explanation and Examples

      Vomiting: When a patient’s arterial blood gas shows an uncompensated metabolic alkalosis, it suggests an acute cause such as vomiting. Vomiting causes a loss of stomach acid, resulting in fewer H+ ions to bind to HCO3-, leading to more free HCO3- and resulting in a metabolic alkalosis.

      Aspirin Overdose: An aspirin overdose typically causes an initial respiratory alkalosis followed by a metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap. The respiratory alkalosis is the result of direct stimulation of the medulla, while the metabolic acidosis is caused by an accumulation of lactic acid due to an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation.

      Anxiety: Hyperventilation associated with anxiety would cause a respiratory alkalosis. This is due to ‘blowing off’ carbon dioxide through hyperventilation, resulting in a decreased PaCO2 in the blood and an increased ratio of HCO3− to PaCO2, raising the pH and resulting in alkalosis.

      Pulmonary Embolism: A pulmonary embolism would cause a respiratory alkalosis, usually accompanied by hypoxia or type I respiratory failure.

      Respiratory Depression: Respiratory depression would cause a respiratory acidosis. Hypoventilation means that less carbon dioxide is blown off, resulting in an increase in PaCO2 in the blood, which decreases the pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the definition of a placebo? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of a placebo?

      Your Answer: An inert substance given as a medicine in an assessment of its suggestive effect

      Explanation:

      The Psychological Effect of Placebos

      A placebo is a substance or treatment that has no therapeutic effect but is given to a patient or participant in a clinical trial. When administered, it typically produces a psychological effect rather than a physical one. In other words, the patient may feel better simply because they believe they are receiving a treatment, even if the treatment itself is inert.

      This psychological effect is known as the placebo effect and has been observed in numerous studies. It is believed to be the result of the patient’s expectations and beliefs about the treatment, as well as their trust in the healthcare provider administering it. The placebo effect can manifest in various ways, such as reduced pain, improved mood, or even a perceived improvement in physical symptoms.

      Despite not having any actual therapeutic value, placebos are often used in clinical trials as a control group to compare the effects of a new treatment against. This helps researchers determine whether the new treatment is actually effective or if the observed effects are simply due to the placebo effect. Overall, the psychological effect of placebos highlights the importance of the mind-body connection and the role of perception in health and wellness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient in a small hospital in the Highlands of Scotland has been...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in a small hospital in the Highlands of Scotland has been detained under an emergency detention order. A psychiatrist attends the patient after 26 hours and conducts an examination of the patient’s mental state. She finds that the patient has paranoid ideation, believing that hospital staff are trying to kill him, is experiencing auditory hallucinations and is talking of causing harm to his wife, who ‘got’ him ‘into all this.’
      What is the psychiatrist’s most likely course of action?

      Your Answer: Contact the Mental Health Tribunal to request a Compulsory Treatment Order be granted

      Correct Answer: Arrange for a mental health officer to attend with a view to issuing a short-term detention certificate

      Explanation:

      Steps for Managing a Patient with Mental Health Issues

      When dealing with a patient who is showing signs of a mental disorder and poses a risk to others, it is important to take appropriate steps to ensure their safety and well-being. Here are the steps that should be taken:

      1. Arrange for a mental health officer to attend with a view to issuing a short-term detention certificate. This will allow the patient to be detained in hospital and assessed for necessary medical treatment.

      2. Once the patient has been assessed, a management plan needs to be put into place. It is important to prescribe medication and monitor the patient’s condition.

      3. If the patient is not willing to consent to treatment, contact the Mental Health Tribunal to request a Compulsory Treatment Order be granted. This can only be done after the patient has been placed on a short-term detention certificate.

      4. Make an appointment for the patient to attend their outpatient clinic when they are discharged from the current hospital. This will ensure that they continue to receive necessary treatment and support.

      By following these steps, healthcare professionals can effectively manage patients with mental health issues and ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with initial signs of COPD. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with initial signs of COPD. He is a chain smoker and inquires about medications that can aid him in quitting smoking. Specifically, he has heard about a drug called Champix (varenicline).

      What is the mechanism of action of varenicline, an anti-smoking medication?

      Your Answer: An a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity

      Correct Answer: Is a partial agonist of the alpha4beta2 nicotinic receptor

      Explanation:

      Therapies for Smoking Cessation

      There are various therapies available for smoking cessation, including newer drugs that have been specifically developed for this purpose. One such drug is Varenicline, which is a non-nicotine drug that acts as a partial agonist of the alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptor. Nicotine is a stimulant that releases dopamine in the brain, leading to addictive effects of smoking. However, nicotine replacement therapy can help replace these effects and reduce addiction to cigarette smoking. Bupropion (Zyban) is another drug that reduces the neuronal uptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine. Clonidine is a second-line agent due to its side effects, but it is an a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity. Nortriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties and appears to be effective in smoking cessation.

      Overall, there are many options available for those looking to quit smoking. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden vision loss in his eyes. Upon examination, the GP observes a left homonymous hemianopia. What is the site of the lesion responsible for this visual field defect?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Correct Answer: Right optic tract

      Explanation:

      Lesions and their corresponding visual field defects

      Lesions in different parts of the visual pathway can cause specific visual field defects. Here are some examples:

      – Right optic tract: A left homonymous hemianopia (loss of vision in the left half of both eyes) is caused by a lesion in the contralateral optic tract.
      – Optic chiasm: A lesion in the optic chiasm (where the optic nerves cross) will cause bitemporal hemianopia (loss of vision in the outer half of both visual fields).
      – Left occipital visual cortex: A lesion in the left occipital visual cortex (at the back of the brain) will cause a right homonymous hemianopia (loss of vision in the right half of both visual fields) with macular sparing (preserved central vision).
      – Left temporal lobe optic radiation: A lesion in the left temporal lobe optic radiation (fibers that connect the occipital cortex to the temporal lobe) will cause a right superior quadrantanopia (loss of vision in the upper right quarter of the visual field).
      – Right parietal lobe optic radiation: A lesion in the right parietal lobe optic radiation (fibers that connect the occipital cortex to the parietal lobe) will cause a left inferior quadrantanopia (loss of vision in the lower left quarter of the visual field).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is referred for investigation of hypertension. On examination, she has a beaked nose and telangiectasia on the face. There is evidence of tight, waxy skin of the fingers, with calcification on one finger. She has had Raynaud’s disease for many years.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive?

      Your Answer: Anti-Jo-1 antibody

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Autoantibodies in Connective Tissue Diseases

      Connective tissue diseases are a group of autoimmune disorders that affect various parts of the body. Differentiating between these diseases can be challenging, but autoantibodies can provide valuable clues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the connective tissue diseases they are associated with:

      1. Anti-centromere antibody: This antibody is most likely to be present in limited systemic sclerosis (CREST).

      2. Anti-Scl-70: This antibody is found in diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      3. Anti-RNP antibody: This antibody is found in mixed connective tissue disease.

      4. Anti-Ro antibody: This antibody is classically positive in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus.

      5. Anti-Jo-1 antibody: This antibody is commonly raised in polymyositis.

      By identifying the specific autoantibodies present in a patient, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage connective tissue diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A client schedules a consultation with their GP for a medication review. They...

    Incorrect

    • A client schedules a consultation with their GP for a medication review. They have just begun taking digoxin and you are discussing the potential adverse effects of this medication. What are some of the side effects that can be caused by this drug?

      Your Answer: Hypermagnesemia

      Correct Answer: Loss of appetite

      Explanation:

      Anorexia, or loss of appetite, is a potential side effect of digoxin use. Additionally, digoxin toxicity may manifest with anorexia, as well as symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. While heartburn is not commonly associated with digoxin toxicity, other medications like NSAIDs are more likely to cause this side effect. Contrary to what one might expect, digoxin toxicity can lead to hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. This is because digoxin inhibits the Na-K pump, which reduces the amount of potassium that can be pumped into cells, resulting in an increase in extracellular potassium. Digoxin use may also lower serum magnesium levels, rather than causing hypermagnesemia. Finally, digoxin can cause changes in vision that appear yellow or green, rather than red.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy with concerns about needing the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy with concerns about needing the emergency contraceptive pill. She explains that she had unprotected sex with her partner of 5 years 2 days ago and did not use any form of contraception. She recently gave birth to a baby boy 4 weeks ago and is currently formula-feeding him.

      What advice would be most suitable in this situation?

      Your Answer: Copper coil

      Correct Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old man was undergoing a routine appendectomy and was given general anaesthesia...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man was undergoing a routine appendectomy and was given general anaesthesia with succinylcholine and halothane. The patient was sedated and intubated during the procedure. After one hour, the anaesthetist observed that the patient had a temperature of 41 °C, blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. An arterial blood gas (ABG) test revealed a pH of 7.2 (normal value 7.35–7.45) and a PaCO2 of 6.6 kPa (normal value <4.5 kPa). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Common Adverse Reactions to Medications: Symptoms and Treatments

      Malignant Hyperthermia, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, Serotonin Syndrome, Acute Dystonia, and Meningitis are all potential adverse reactions to medications.

      Malignant Hyperthermia is a rare condition that can occur after exposure to general anaesthetics or muscle relaxants. Symptoms include a sudden increase in temperature, acidosis, hypercapnia, and widespread skeletal muscle rigidity. Treatment involves dantrolene and supportive care such as cooling and correction of acidosis.

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare idiosyncratic reaction that can occur as a response to taking high-potency anti-psychotic medication. Symptoms include hyperthermia, fluctuating consciousness, rigidity, tachycardia, labile blood pressure, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and supportive management such as fluids and cooling. Dantrolene or bromocriptine may also be used.

      Serotonin Syndrome occurs when a patient takes multiple doses, an overdose, or a combination of certain medications. Symptoms include confusion, agitation, hyperreflexia, shivering, sweating, tremor, fever, and ataxia. Treatment involves stopping the drugs and providing supportive care.

      Acute Dystonia presents with spasm of various muscle groups and is a side-effect of anti-psychotic medication. It can occur in the first few hours of administration of anti-psychotic medication. It is also seen with the antiemetic metoclopramide where it can cause an oculogyric crisis. It is not usually associated with anaesthesia.

      Meningitis is not a complication of anaesthesia or muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A third-grade student approaches you and asks you to explain the difference between...

    Correct

    • A third-grade student approaches you and asks you to explain the difference between primary and secondary prevention strategies to reduce disease burden. As part of your explanation, you decide to use an example of a secondary prevention measure to illustrate your description.
      Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention measure?

      Your Answer: Screening for breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Examples of Primary and Secondary Prevention Measures

      Primary and secondary prevention measures are important in maintaining good health and preventing diseases. Primary prevention measures aim to prevent the onset of a disease before it even starts, while secondary prevention measures aim to detect and treat a disease early to prevent its progression. Here are some examples of primary and secondary prevention measures:

      Introducing alcohol drinking guideline limits is a primary prevention measure that aims to reduce the health effects of excess alcohol consumption. This measure can help prevent alcohol-related diseases such as liver cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and certain types of cancer.

      Annual influenzae vaccination is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent cases of influenzae in otherwise healthy individuals. This measure can help reduce the spread of the flu virus and prevent complications such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening.

      Providing free condoms in general practice is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent sexually transmitted diseases in otherwise healthy volunteers. This measure can help reduce the spread of sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, and HIV.

      Offering smoking cessation services is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent lung cancer. This measure can help individuals quit smoking and reduce their risk of developing lung cancer, as well as other smoking-related diseases such as heart disease and stroke.

      Breast cancer screening is a secondary prevention measure that aims to detect early breast cancer so that it can be treated early and lead to improved patient outcomes. This measure involves regular mammograms and clinical breast exams for women over a certain age or with certain risk factors. Early detection can help prevent the spread of breast cancer and increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman who is 30+2 weeks pregnant, G3 P2+0, arrives at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 30+2 weeks pregnant, G3 P2+0, arrives at the maternity triage unit due to an episode of vaginal bleeding. Her previous deliveries were both elective Caesarean sections. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far and reports that the bleeding was about a tablespoon in amount without accompanying pain. What is the next step in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Digital vaginal exam

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      This individual is suspected to have placenta praevia, a significant cause of antepartum haemorrhage. Due to her history of multiple Caesarean sections, multiparity, and symptoms (minimal bleeding, no pain), it is more likely that she has a low-lying placenta. An ultrasound scan is necessary to accurately determine the location of the placenta, as previous scans may have missed or misinterpreted it. Placenta praevia can be diagnosed and graded through an ultrasound scan. It is important to avoid any internal examinations initially, as they may cause the placenta to bleed. According to the RCOG Green Top guidelines, digital vaginal examination should not be performed until an ultrasound has excluded placenta praevia if it is suspected. While some clinicians may consider a speculum examination to check for polyps/ectropion, this is not a diagnostic option for placenta praevia. A full blood count would not aid in the diagnosis, and any amount of blood loss during pregnancy should be investigated.

      Management and Prognosis of Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. If a low-lying placenta is detected at the 20-week scan, a rescan is recommended at 32 weeks. There is no need to limit activity or intercourse unless there is bleeding. If the placenta is still present at 32 weeks and is grade I/II, then a scan every two weeks is recommended. A final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks is necessary to determine the method of delivery. For grades III/IV, an elective caesarean section is recommended between 37-38 weeks. However, if the placenta is grade I, a trial of vaginal delivery may be offered. If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour before the elective caesarean section, an emergency caesarean section should be performed due to the risk of post-partum haemorrhage.

      In cases where placenta praevia is accompanied by bleeding, the woman should be admitted and an ABC approach should be taken to stabilise her. If stabilisation is not possible, an emergency caesarean section should be performed. If the woman is in labour or has reached term, an emergency caesarean section is also necessary.

      The prognosis for placenta praevia has improved significantly, and death is now extremely rare. The major cause of death in women with placenta praevia is post-partum haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old woman complains of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea for the past year....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea for the past year. She also experiences occasional headaches. During examination, she was found to have bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tumour of the hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas cause amenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea. If the tumour extends outside the sella, visual field defects or other mass effects may occur. Other types of tumours will produce different symptoms depending on their location and structure involved. Craniopharyngiomas originate from the pituitary gland and will produce poralhemianopia if large enough, as well as symptoms related to pituitary hormones. Non-functioning pituitary tumours will have similar symptoms without the pituitary hormone side effects. Tumours of the hypothalamus will present with symptoms of euphoria, headache, weight loss, and mass effect if large enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He also experienced neck stiffness and had a temperature of 38°C. What distinguishing feature would indicate a diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage instead of bacterial meningitis?

      Your Answer: A history of diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: A family history of polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Comparing Risk Factors and Symptoms of Meningitis, SAH, and Cerebral Aneurysms

      Fluctuating levels of consciousness are common symptoms of both meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). While hypertension is a known risk factor for SAH, diabetes does not increase the risk. On the other hand, opiate abuse is not associated with an increased risk of SAH. Cerebral aneurysms, which are a type of SAH, are often linked to polycystic kidney disease. It is important to understand the different risk factors and symptoms associated with these conditions to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. By recognizing these factors, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a car accident. He is breathing irregularly, with a respiratory rate of five breaths/minute, and has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of three. The trauma team decides to intubate him in the department, but due to oropharyngeal swelling caused by the trauma, they are unable to do so. His condition rapidly deteriorates, and he is now hypoxic, with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 70%, despite receiving mechanical ventilation with a bag-valve-mask and basic airway manoeuvres. What is the most appropriate intervention to restore his oxygenation?

      Your Answer: Nasopharyngeal airway insertion

      Correct Answer: Emergency cricothyroidotomy

      Explanation:

      Airway Interventions: Emergency Cricothyroidotomy, Laryngectomy, and More

      Emergency cricothyroidotomy is a procedure that creates a secure airway below the level of obstruction in a timely manner. It involves making an incision in the cricothyroid membrane and introducing an airway tube to restore ventilation. This technique is quick and requires minimal dissection. There are three types of cricothyroidotomy techniques: surgical, needle, and percutaneous.

      On the other hand, a laryngectomy is an elective surgical procedure that removes the larynx and is used to treat laryngeal cancers. It does not play a role in restoring ventilation.

      Inserting an oropharyngeal airway is not effective in improving oxygenation when the level of obstruction is below or at the level of the airway. Similarly, nasopharyngeal airway insertion is not appropriate in this situation.

      While a tracheostomy creates a secure airway below the level of obstruction, it is not the optimal intervention in emergency situations. It is typically an elective procedure used for patients weaning off prolonged mechanical ventilation or those with difficulty controlling secretions. A tracheostomy tube is inserted approximately 2 cm below the cricoid cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      9.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (3/3) 100%
Psychiatry (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/4) 25%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Palliative Care (1/1) 100%
Miscellaneous (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Passmed