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Question 1
Correct
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A 45-year-old female patient complains of a painless lump in her right groin. She denies any changes in bowel habits or abdominal discomfort. Her medical history includes asthma and three previous vaginal deliveries. Upon examination, a soft swelling is palpable with a positive cough impulse. The lump is located inferolateral to the right pubic tubercle, fully reducible, and non-tender. Both femoral pulses are palpated separately and are normal. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Refer to the surgical team for consideration of surgical repair
Explanation:Surgical referral for repair is necessary for femoral hernias, regardless of symptoms, due to the risk of strangulation. In this case, the patient’s history and examination suggest a hernia, potentially a femoral hernia, and surgical repair is necessary. The use of a support belt could increase the risk of strangulation, and a duplex scan, while a good idea, is not the most appropriate management for this patient. No action is unsafe, and antibiotics are not currently indicated.
Understanding Femoral Hernias
Femoral hernias occur when a part of the bowel or other abdominal organs pass through the femoral canal, which is a potential space in the anterior thigh. This can result in a lump in the groin area that is mildly painful and typically non-reducible. Femoral hernias are less common than inguinal hernias, accounting for only 5% of abdominal hernias, and are more prevalent in women, especially those who have had multiple pregnancies. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but ultrasound may be used to confirm the presence of a femoral hernia and exclude other possible causes of a lump in the groin area.
Complications of femoral hernias include incarceration, where the herniated tissue cannot be reduced, and strangulation, which is a surgical emergency. The risk of strangulation is higher with femoral hernias than with inguinal hernias and increases over time. Bowel obstruction and bowel ischaemia may also occur, leading to significant morbidity and mortality for the patient.
Surgical repair is necessary for femoral hernias, and it can be done laparoscopically or via a laparotomy. Hernia support belts or trusses should not be used for femoral hernias due to the risk of strangulation. In an emergency situation, a laparotomy may be the only option. It is essential to distinguish femoral hernias from inguinal hernias, as they have different locations and require different management approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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What is a true statement about obsessive compulsive disorder (obsessional neurosis)?
Your Answer: Patients have good insight
Explanation:Obsessional Neurosis and Obsessional Compulsive Disorder
Obsessional neurosis is a mental disorder characterized by repetitive rituals, irrational fears, and disturbing thoughts that are often not acted upon. Patients with this condition maintain their insight and are aware of their illness, which can lead to depression. On the other hand, obsessional compulsive disorder is a similar condition that typically starts in early adulthood and affects both sexes equally. Patients with this disorder often have above-average intelligence.
It is important to note that Sigmund Freud’s theory that obsessive compulsive symptoms were caused by rigid toilet-training practices is no longer widely accepted. Despite this, the causes of these disorders are still not fully understood. However, treatment options such as cognitive-behavioral therapy and medication can help manage symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected. these disorders and seeking appropriate treatment can make a significant difference in the lives of those who suffer from them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with complaints of severe pain and decreased vision in her right eye. She experienced sudden onset of symptoms earlier in the evening, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and a headache. Upon examination, her visual acuity in the right eye is reduced to counting fingers, and there is significant congestion of conjunctival blood vessels. The cornea appears hazy, making it difficult to examine the pupil and fundus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:Differentiating Ocular Conditions
When it comes to ocular conditions, it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide the appropriate treatment. Acute angle closure glaucoma, for example, typically occurs in the evening and can cause headache, nausea, and vomiting due to high intraocular pressure. This condition can also lead to corneal haze, which is caused by oedema of the cornea. While reduced vision, ocular pain, and conjunctival injection can be seen in other conditions, systemic symptoms are typically only present in acute angle closure glaucoma.
Anterior uveitis, on the other hand, can have sudden or subacute symptoms. Corneal abrasions are usually accompanied by a history of trauma, while herpes simplex keratitis is associated with dendritic ulcer formation on the corneal surface. Viral conjunctivitis is often bilateral and preceded by a systemic viral episode.
By the unique symptoms and characteristics of each ocular condition, healthcare professionals can provide more effective treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Correct
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A patient is having an emergency laparotomy for a likely sigmoid perforation secondary to diverticular disease. She is 84, has known ischaemic heart disease under medical management, and was in new atrial fibrillation (AF) pre-operatively. You find that she has two quadrant peritonitis and despite fluid resuscitation her blood pressure is becoming low. You start Noradrenaline. She is going to intensive care unit (ICU) postoperatively.
Which scoring system is generally used in this context to predict outcome?Your Answer: P-POSSUM
Explanation:Scoring Systems Used in Critical Care: An Overview
In critical care, various scoring systems are used to assess patient outcomes and predict mortality and morbidity. The most commonly used systems include POSSUM, P-POSSUM, APACHE, SOFA, SAPS, and TISS.
POSSUM (Physiological and Operative Severity Score for the enUmeration of Mortality and Morbidity) is a scoring system that utilizes surgical data to predict outcomes in emergency abdominal surgery. P-POSSUM is a modification of POSSUM that is more accurate in predicting outcomes.
APACHE (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation) is an ICU scoring system that is based on physiology. SOFA (Sequential Organ Failure Assessment) and SAPS (Simplified Acute Physiology Score) are also ICU scoring systems that are based on physiology.
TISS (Therapeutic Intervention Scoring System) is a scoring system that measures patient interventions in the ICU. It is used to measure ICU workload and cost, rather than patient outcome.
In critical care, these scoring systems are essential tools for assessing patient outcomes and predicting mortality and morbidity. Each system has its own strengths and limitations, and healthcare professionals must choose the most appropriate system for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old office worker presents to the Emergency Department after taking a handful of various tablets following an argument with her current partner. She has a history of tumultuous relationships and struggles to maintain friendships or romantic relationships due to this. She also admits to experiencing intense emotions, frequently oscillating between extreme happiness and anger or anxiety. In the past, she has engaged in self-harm and frequently drinks to excess. A psychiatry review is requested to evaluate the possibility of a personality disorder. What personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Borderline Personality Disorder and Other Types
Personality disorders are complex and severe disturbances in an individual’s character and behavior, causing significant personal and social disruption. These disorders are challenging to treat, but psychological and pharmacological interventions can help manage symptoms. One of the most common types of personality disorder is borderline personality disorder, characterized by intense emotions, unstable relationships, impulsive behavior, self-harm, and abandonment anxieties. Other types of personality disorders include schizoid personality disorder, avoidant personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder. Understanding these disorders can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain and nausea. He reports not having a bowel movement in 3 days, despite normal bowel habits prior to this. The patient has a history of coronary stents placed after a heart attack 10 years ago. He has been asymptomatic since then and takes aspirin for his cardiac condition and NSAIDs for knee arthritis. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 5 years due to a previous episode of acute gastritis.
On examination, there is mild tenderness over the epigastrium but no guarding. Bowel sounds are normal. An erect CXR and abdominal X-ray are unremarkable. Blood gases and routine blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs) are normal, with a normal amylase. Upper GI endoscopy reveals gastric erosions.
What is the most important differential diagnosis to consider for this patient?Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Epigastric Pain and History of Cardiac Stents
Introduction:
A patient with a history of cardiac stents presents with epigastric pain. The following are possible diagnoses that should be considered.Myocardial Infarction:
Due to the patient’s history of cardiac stents, ruling out a myocardial infarction (MI) is crucial. An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed early to treat any existing cardiac condition without delay.Duodenal Ulcer:
A duodenal ulcer would have likely been visualized on an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). However, a normal erect CXR and absence of peritonitis exclude a perforated duodenal ulcer.Acute Gastritis:
Given the patient’s history of aspirin and NSAID use, as well as the gastric erosions visualized on endoscopy, acute gastritis is the most likely diagnosis. However, it is important to first exclude MI as a cause of the patient’s symptoms due to their history of MI and presentation of epigastric pain.Pancreatitis:
Pancreatitis is unlikely, given the normal amylase. However, on occasion, this can be normal in cases depending on the timing of the blood test or whether the pancreas has had previous chronic inflammation.Ischaemic Bowel:
Ischaemic bowel would present with more generalized abdominal pain and metabolic lactic acidosis on blood gas. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease complains of severe abdominal pain. He has a blood pressure of 105/80 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and temperature of 38.0°C. What would be your initial step?
Your Answer: IV normal saline
Explanation:Management of Sickle Cell Crisis in Septic Patients Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 8-10% of the African population. When a patient with sickle cell disease presents with sepsis and tachycardia, the first step in management is to administer a fluid bolus. Intravenous fluids and analgesia, usually with opiates, are the mainstay of treatment for sickle cell crisis. However, analgesia should be managed in a step-wise manner. In addition to fluid and pain management, antibiotics should be considered to cover potential infections such as Haemophilus influenzae type b, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and Pneumococcus. Ceftriaxone, erythromycin, and cefuroxime are examples of antibiotics that can be used. It is important to note that patients with sickle cell disease may also develop appendicitis, like any other young patient. Therefore, a surgical consult may be necessary. Despite the severity of sickle cell disease, the prognosis is good. Approximately 50% of patients survive beyond the fifth decade.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 3-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of left loin pain, offensive smelling urine, and fever. The child's temperature is 38.5°C and a clean catch urine test shows positive results for blood, protein, and nitrites. What is the recommended initial antibiotic treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotic Recommendations for Urinary Tract Infection in Children
When it comes to treating urinary tract infections in children, it is important to choose an antibiotic that has a low potential for resistance. According to the NICE guidelines on Urinary tract infection in children (CG54), cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav are recommended options. On the other hand, quinolones and tetracyclines are not recommended for this age group. While amoxicillin and trimethoprim are potential options, they also carry the risk of resistance. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully consider the choice of antibiotic to ensure effective treatment and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Correct
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A baby boy born 3 weeks ago has been experiencing persistent jaundice since 72 hours after birth. His parents have observed that he is hesitant to breastfeed and his urine appears dark. During your examination, you confirm that the infant is jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. Upon reviewing his blood work, you find that he has conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. His serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and electrophoresis are normal, and the neonatal heel prick test conducted at birth was negative. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Early surgical treatment
Explanation:Biliary atresia is the primary cause of prolonged jaundice in this infant, which occurs due to an obstruction in the flow of bile within the extrahepatic biliary system. To confirm the diagnosis, bilirubin levels, liver function tests, and abdominal ultrasound are performed, while alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency and cystic fibrosis are excluded as differential diagnoses. The Kasai procedure, a surgical intervention, is the preferred treatment option to restore bile flow and prevent further hepatic damage. Postoperative management may involve IV antibiotics to manage complications such as ascending cholangitis, while ursodeoxycholic acid may be used to augment weight gain and decrease episodes of cholangitis. Optimizing feeds is also important, but not the primary management option in this case, as the heel prick test has excluded CF. Infusion of alpha-1 antitrypsin is not necessary, as the infant’s serum levels are normal.
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman is recuperating from an inguinal hernia surgery when she experiences a severe ischemic stroke. She is being treated on the rehabilitation ward. Nevertheless, she is still unable to eat securely, and multiple swallowing evaluations have revealed that she has a tendency to aspirate. What is the most suitable alternative for long-term feeding?
Your Answer: PEG tube feeding
Explanation:Although PEG tubes are linked to a considerable amount of morbidity, they are the most suitable choice for a long-term solution. A feeding jejunostomy necessitates the use of general anesthesia. TPN is not a viable alternative. Long-term nasogastric feeding is typically inadequate.
Enteral feeding is a method of providing nutrition to patients who are malnourished or at risk of malnutrition and have a functional gastrointestinal tract. It involves administering food directly into the stomach through a tube, which can be placed either through the nose (nasogastric tube) or directly into the stomach (gastrostomy tube). The type of tube used depends on the patient’s condition and the presence of upper gastrointestinal dysfunction.
To ensure safe and effective enteral feeding, healthcare professionals must check the placement of the tube using aspiration and pH tests. Gastric feeding is preferred, but if there is upper GI dysfunction, duodenal or jejunal tubes may be used. Patients in intensive care units (ICUs) should receive continuous feeding for 16-24 hours, and a motility agent may be used to aid gastric emptying. If this is ineffective, post-pyloric feeding or parenteral feeding may be considered.
Complications of enteral feeding include diarrhoea, aspiration, hyperglycaemia, and refeeding syndrome. Patients who are identified as malnourished or at risk of malnutrition should be considered for enteral feeding, especially if they have a BMI below 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, or a BMI below 20 kg/m2 and unintentional weight loss of more than 5% over 3-6 months. Surgical patients who are malnourished, have an unsafe swallow or inadequate oral intake, and have a functional GI tract may benefit from preoperative enteral feeding.
It is important to note that PEG tubes should not be removed until at least 2 weeks after insertion, and surgical patients due to have major abdominal surgery should be carefully evaluated before enteral feeding is initiated. Overall, enteral feeding is a valuable tool for providing nutrition to patients who are unable to eat normally, but it must be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation is experiencing prolonged labour. She has developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy, but it is well-controlled with insulin. During an attempt to expedite labour, an artificial rupture of membranes was performed. However, shortly after this, the cardiotocograph showed foetal bradycardia and variable decelerations. Upon examination, the umbilical cord was found to be palpable vaginally. Assistance has been requested.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Perform McRoberts' manoeuvre
Correct Answer: Avoid handling the cord and keep it warm and moist
Explanation:In the case of umbilical cord prolapse, it is important to avoid handling the cord and keep it warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. This is especially crucial if the cord has passed the introitus. The prolapse may have been caused by artificial rupture of membranes, which is a risk factor. If there are signs of foetal distress, such as foetal bradycardia and late decelerations, it is considered an obstetric emergency. Attempting to place the cord back into the uterus is not recommended as it can cause vasospasm and reduce blood supply to the foetus, leading to complications such as death or permanent disability. Administering an IV oxytocin infusion is also not recommended as it can increase uterine contractions and worsen cord compression. Applying external suprapubic pressure is not relevant to the management of umbilical cord prolapse and is only used in cases of shoulder dystocia.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department with a painful knee that started 3 days ago. Upon examination, the patient is stable but has a fever of 38.5ºC. The left knee is red and has limited range of motion. The patient also reports having a severe sore throat 3 weeks ago, which was treated with antibiotics. There are no other symptoms reported. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Synovial fluid sampling
Explanation:When a patient presents with an acutely painful, red joint and is systemically unwell, septic arthritis must be considered until proven otherwise. The most important investigation in such cases is synovial fluid sampling, according to NICE guidelines. This is the only reliable method of evaluating a potentially infected joint and should be done before starting antibiotics. Referral to the GUM clinic is not appropriate in the urgent management of this patient, and imaging the joint is useful but not mandatory. While blood cultures are important, synovial fluid sampling is the most appropriate investigation due to its specificity. Ultrasound can also be helpful in identifying abnormalities not visible on plain X-ray.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Patient A:
Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
Albumin - 36 g/L
Patient B:
Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
Urea - 5 mmol/L
Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
Albumin - 38 g/L
Patient C:
Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
Albumin - 28 g/L
Patient D:
Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
Albumin - 40 g/L
Patient E:
Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
Albumin - 18 g/LYour Answer: Patient B
Explanation:Primary Hyperparathyroidism and its Complications
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with an incidental finding of elevated calcium often being the first clue. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification.
Osteoporosis occurs due to increased bone resorption under the influence of high levels of PTH. Renal calculi are also a common complication, as high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can lead to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Additionally, calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually over time.
Patients with longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism are at risk of impaired renal function, which is less common in patients with chronic kidney disease of other causes. While both conditions may have elevated PTH levels, hypocalcaemia is more common in chronic kidney disease due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. the complications of primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old office worker is becoming increasingly worried that she may be experiencing early signs of Alzheimer's disease, which her mother was diagnosed with at a young age. She reports frequently misplacing her phone and struggling to recall names of colleagues she has worked with for years. She wants to learn more about the initial clinical features of the disease to see if they align with her symptoms.
What is a typical clinical characteristic of the early stage of Alzheimer's disease?Your Answer: Episodic confusion
Correct Answer: Retention of executive function
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia and Their Symptoms
Executive function, which involves planning, reasoning, and problem-solving, is typically retained in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. However, in subcortical dementias like Lewy body disease (LBD), patients often lose this cognitive skill early on. Frontotemporal dementia, on the other hand, is more commonly associated with impulsivity and disinhibition, as well as personality changes. Episodic confusion is a hallmark of LBD, where patients may have good and bad days. Finally, bradykinesia and rigidity are signs of parkinsonism, which can be seen in both LBD and Parkinson’s disease. Understanding these different symptoms can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 6-month-old Caucasian baby girl is brought to her general practitioner, as her parents are concerned about a skin lump that has appeared on the left side of her neck. It is non-tender and does not seem to bother her, but it is growing in size. She is feeding well and is otherwise healthy. On examination, there is a 2 x 2 cm, firm and well-demarcated lesion in the left posterior triangle of the neck, with visible telangiectasia. There are no other skin lesions. The abdomen is soft, without masses.
What would be the next step in management?Your Answer: Medical photography and review again in 3 months
Explanation:This child has an infantile haemangioma, a benign lesion caused by abnormal vessel growth in the skin and deeper structures. These lesions usually appear shortly after birth and can grow rapidly in the first 3 months of life, peaking around the fifth month before regressing spontaneously. The haemangioma in this case is located in the posterior neck triangle and is asymptomatic, so medical photography will be taken and the child will be reassessed in 3 months. Treatment is only necessary if the haemangioma is troublesome, symptomatic, or affecting deeper structures. The first-line treatment is oral propranolol, but topical b blockers can be used if necessary. Surgery is reserved for rapidly evolving haemangiomas that are compressing vital structures or affecting essential functions. Topical timolol can also be used with caution if oral b blockers are not tolerated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old male patient complains of a tender swelling in the natal cleft that has been present for two days. Upon examination, three midline pits are observed, and there is a fluctuant swelling to the right of the natal cleft. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pilonidal abscess
Explanation:Pilonidal and Perianal Abscesses
Pilonidal abscesses are a type of inflammatory condition that occurs when hair produces a sinus. These abscesses are typically found in or near the midline of the body, close to the natal cleft. They are more common in Caucasian males who are in their thirties, particularly those who are obese or have a lot of body hair.
When someone presents with a pilonidal abscess, they will typically undergo an incision and drainage procedure. However, if the disease becomes non-healing or recurrent, a more definitive procedure such as excision may be required.
Perianal and ischiorectal abscesses, on the other hand, are caused by an infection of the anal glands found in the intersphincteric space. These abscesses can also be treated with incision and drainage procedures, but may require more extensive treatment if they become chronic or recurrent.
Overall, the causes and treatments of pilonidal and perianal abscesses is important for anyone who may be at risk for these conditions. By seeking prompt medical attention and following a proper treatment plan, individuals can manage these conditions and prevent them from becoming more serious.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Oliver is a 15-year-old boy presenting with abdominal pains. The abdominal pain was around his lower abdomen and is crampy in nature and occasionally radiates to his back. His pain normally comes on approximately 4-12 hours before the onset of his bowel movements and lasts throughout the bowel movement period. He also feels increasingly fatigued during this period. No abdominal pains were noted outwith his bowel movement period.
Oliver has no significant medical history. He denies any recent changes in his diet or bowel habits. He has not experienced any recent weight loss or rectal bleeding. He denies any family history of inflammatory bowel disease or colon cancer.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the likely 1st line treatment?Your Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:Primary dysmenorrhoea is likely the cause of the patient’s abdominal pain, as it occurs around the time of her menstrual cycle and there are no other accompanying symptoms. Since the patient is not sexually active and has no risk factors, a pelvic ultrasound may not be necessary to diagnose primary dysmenorrhoea. The first line of treatment for this condition is NSAIDs, such as mefenamic acid, ibuprofen, or naproxen, which work by reducing the amount of prostaglandins in the body and thereby reducing the severity of pain.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 38-year-old G7P3 mother presents with a show and waters breaking at 34+1 weeks, following three days of fever and left flank pain. Despite hoping for a home birth, she eventually agrees to go to the hospital after three hours of convincing from the midwife. Upon arrival, continuous cardiotocography is initiated and a foetal doppler reveals foetal bradycardia. On abdominal exam, the baby is found to be in a footling breech position, but the uterus is non-tender and contracting. A speculum examination reveals an exposed cord, with a soft 8 cm cervix and an exposed left foot.
What is the most appropriate initial management plan for this patient and her baby?Your Answer: Put the patient on all fours and push the foot back into the uterus
Explanation:In the case of umbilical cord prolapse, the priority is to limit compression on the cord and reduce the chance of cord vasospasm. This can be achieved by pushing any presenting part of the baby back into the uterus, putting the mother on all fours, and retrofilling the bladder with saline. In addition, warm damp towels can be placed over the cord to limit handling. It is important to note that this is a complex emergency that requires immediate attention, as it can lead to foetal bradycardia and limit the oxygen supply to the baby. In this scenario, a category 1 Caesarean section would be necessary, as the pathological CTG demands it. Delivering the baby as breech immediately is not recommended, as it is a high-risk strategy that can lead to morbidity and mortality. IM corticosteroids are indicated for premature rupture of membranes, but the immediate priority is to deal with the emergency. McRobert’s manoeuvre is not appropriate in this case, as it is used to correct shoulder dystocia, which is not the issue at hand.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics occurring before?
Your Answer: 9 years of age
Correct Answer: 8 years of age
Explanation:Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing abdominal distension and feeling bloated, which has been getting worse over the last six months. She has no other medical history of note. She has regular periods with a 30-day cycle without heavy or intermenstrual bleeding.
On examination, there is an abdominal mass in the region of the left iliac fossa which is tender to palpation. The doctor orders blood tests and arranges an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen to assess the mass further.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: Ovarian serous cystadenomas
Explanation:Common Causes of Abdominal Mass in Women
One of the common symptoms that women may experience is an abdominal mass that is painful on palpation. This can be caused by various conditions, including ovarian serous cystadenomas, polycystic ovarian syndrome, fibroids, cystocele, and rectocele.
Ovarian serous cystadenomas are benign tumors composed of cysts suspended within fibrotic stroma. They are usually asymptomatic but can cause pain and mass symptoms when they grow to a size greater than 10 cm. These tumors are prone to torsion and can present as an acute abdomen. Removal of the mass is curative, and histological examination is essential to ensure there are no malignant features.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome is associated with irregular periods, skin acne, and weight gain. Fibroids, on the other hand, are hormone-driven and can cause menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, constipation, and urinary symptoms. Subserosal, pedunculated, or ovarian fibroids can also present as an abdominal mass.
Cystocele and rectocele are conditions that present with a lump or dragging sensation in the vagina. Cystocele is associated with urinary frequency, incontinence, and frequent urinary tract infections, while rectocele is associated with incomplete emptying following a bowel motion and pressure in the lower pelvis.
In conclusion, an abdominal mass in women can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old male patient (undergoing chemotherapy treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma) complains of severe mouth pain. On examination, you see white plaques over his tongue.
Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?Your Answer: Oral fluconazole for 7–14 days
Explanation:Treatment Options for Oral Candida Infection During Chemotherapy
During chemotherapy, patients may experience immunosuppression, which can lead to oral candida infection. There are several treatment options available for this condition, including oral fluconazole, nystatin mouthwash, and oral mycafungin. However, the most appropriate choice for mild to moderate oral candida infection is oral fluconazole, as it is more likely to prevent or delay recurrence than nystatin. Intravenous amphotericin B and oral voriconazole are not recommended for this condition, as they are used for systemic fungal infections and other types of fungal infections, respectively. It is important for healthcare providers to consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has been experiencing significant chronic back pain for several years. To manage the pain, he takes paracetamol 1000 mg orally (PO) four times daily (QDS), ibuprofen 400 mg PO three times daily (TDS) and fentanyl 25 µg/hour patch every 72 hours. He has been visiting his general practitioner (GP) as he is suffering from episodes of acute pain a few times a day and is requesting medication to take when this happens. He is allergic to morphine and has a medical history significant for chronic kidney disease, hypertension, osteoarthritis and gallstones.
What is an acceptable treatment plan for his breakthrough pain?Your Answer: Oxycontin 5–10 mg PRN
Correct Answer: Oxynorm PO 2.5–5 mg PRN
Explanation:Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient Intolerant to Morphine
When selecting an analgesic for a patient who is intolerant to morphine, it is important to consider alternative options. A fentanyl patch may be appropriate, but if not, oxycodone is a suitable alternative. A daily dose of 60 mg morphine is equivalent to a 40 mg 24-hour dose of oxycodone, which can be prescribed as a breakthrough dose of 2.5-5 mg PRN. Sevredol, a morphine preparation, should not be prescribed in this case. Morphine sulfate is also not recommended due to the patient’s intolerance. Oxycontin, a slow-release oxycodone preparation, is not appropriate for breakthrough analgesia. It is important to prescribe the appropriate dose to avoid potential adverse effects, and a dose of 5-10 mg PRN for oxynorm may be too high. A dose of 2.5-5 mg PRN is recommended for breakthrough pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman has been evaluated by her GP for the reason behind her low energy, weight gain and depressed mood. After undergoing biochemical testing, she was discovered to have elevated levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and decreased levels of T3 and T4. The diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism was made and she was started on levothyroxine.
When is it appropriate to repeat this patient's thyroid function tests (TFTs)?Your Answer: Three monthly
Explanation:Importance of Regular Monitoring in Thyroid Hormone Replacement Therapy
When starting a patient on thyroid hormone replacement medication, it is crucial to monitor their thyroid function tests (TFTs) every three months until the dose is stabilized. This involves obtaining two similar readings within the reference range. The goal is to adjust the therapy dose based on clinical and biochemical parameters to alleviate the symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism. Once a stable thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved, it is recommended to check it annually.
Waiting six months is too long, and one week is too soon to observe the effects of therapy reliably. Waiting 12 months is also too long, and no follow-up is not recommended. Regular monitoring is necessary to avoid over or under-treatment of hypothyroidism. Therefore, it is essential to schedule follow-up appointments to monitor clinical and biochemical parameters regularly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which hormone is increased during the period of fasting?
Your Answer: PYY and glucagon
Correct Answer: Glucagon
Explanation:Hormonal Regulation of Energy Balance
Glucagon is a hormone that is elevated during fasting and plays a crucial role in maintaining blood glucose levels and cellular energy balance. Its actions are generally opposite to those of insulin. Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver, allowing for the export of glucose. It also stimulates lipolysis and beta oxidation, which provide acetyl-CoA for ketogenesis. In adipose tissue, glucagon stimulates lipolysis, leading to the export of non-esterified fatty acids that are taken up by the liver for ketogenesis. In muscle, glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis and lipolysis/beta oxidation to provide energy for intracellular processes.
Insulin, on the other hand, is the major hormone in the postprandial state and falls during fasting. PYY is a gut hormone that is secreted by L cells in response to food ingestion. It is raised in the postprandial state but falls during fasting. PYY’s primary function is to reduce appetite and induce a feeling of satiety, regulating food intake at mealtimes. It also reduces gastric motility, improving the efficiency of food digestion. the hormonal regulation of energy balance is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing metabolic disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at 2 am for a patient experiencing a tonic clonic seizure. The nurse informs you that the patient, who is in for neuro observations, sustained a head injury six hours ago in the Emergency Department. The patient currently has an IV cannula, but the nurse has already administered PR diazepam as prescribed on the drug chart. The seizure has been ongoing for about 8 minutes now.
Fifteen minutes ago, the patient's neuro observations were as follows: HR 70, BP 135/65 mmHg, RR 18, O2 97% on room air, and BM 7.0.
What would be your next course of drug therapy for this patient, who is slightly older than the previous case?Your Answer: Diazepam 10 mg IV
Correct Answer: Lorazepam 4 mg IV
Explanation:Management Algorithm for Seizures
It is crucial to have knowledge of the management algorithm for seizures to prevent prolonged seizures that can lead to cerebral damage and hypoxia. The first line of management is a benzodiazepine, which can be repeated if there is no improvement after five minutes of ongoing fitting. Intravenous administration is preferred, but if an IV line is not available, the rectal route is recommended for ease and speed of treatment. Rectal diazepam is commonly prescribed on the PRN section of the drug chart for nursing staff who cannot administer IV drugs.
In cases where an IV line is present and seizures persist, an IV benzodiazepine such as lorazepam is preferred due to its quick onset and shorter duration of action. Buccal midazolam is now being used in children as a quick and easy route of administration that avoids distressing PR administration. If seizures continue despite two doses of benzodiazepines, phenytoin should be initiated, and senior and expert help is required. If seizures persist, intubation and ventilation may be necessary.
It is important to remember to obtain an early blood sugar test as hypoglycemic patients may remain refractive to antiepileptic therapies until their sugars are normalized. The acronym ABC then DEFG (Do not ever forget glucose) can help in remembering the order of management steps. Proper management of seizures can prevent further complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents to discuss referral to private healthcare for a circumcision, which they want performed for cultural reasons. They do not report any concerns regarding his health. On examination, he appears to be developing normally and the external genitalia appear normal. What is a contraindication to performing a circumcision?
Your Answer: Phimosis
Correct Answer: Hypospadias
Explanation:Hypospadias is a reason why circumcision cannot be performed in infancy as the foreskin is needed for surgical repair.
Understanding Circumcision
Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.
The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.
Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy attends the Emergency Department (ED) with his father. They are both heavily intoxicated with alcohol. The boy’s records show that this is the fourth time in eight months that he has attended the ED with alcohol-related problems. The safeguarding lead has advised you to contact social services.
What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Inform the patient and her mother you are referring them to social services
Explanation:Referring a Child at Risk to Social Services: Best Practices
When a child is believed to be at risk, it is crucial to refer them to social services for safeguarding. However, the process of making a referral can be sensitive and requires careful consideration. Here are some best practices to follow:
1. Inform the patient and their parent/guardian about the referral: It is important to inform the patient and their parent/guardian that a referral to social services is being made. However, if there is a risk that informing them could put the child in further danger, the referral should be made without informing them.
2. Seek consent for the referral: Consent should be sought from the patient or their parent/guardian before making a referral. If consent is refused, the referral should still be made, but the patient and/or parent must be fully informed.
3. Refer urgently: If there is a concern that the child is at immediate risk, the referral should be made urgently.
4. Follow up with a written referral: A phone referral should be made initially, but it is important to follow up with a written referral within 48 hours.
By following these best practices, healthcare professionals can ensure that children at risk receive the support and protection they need.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and arm pain that has been getting worse over the past week. The pain is now unbearable even with regular co-codamol. During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's left pupil is smaller than the other and the eyelid is slightly drooping. What question would be most helpful in determining the diagnosis for this woman?
Your Answer: Recent flu-like illness
Correct Answer: Smoking history
Explanation:Smoking is responsible for the majority of cases of cancer that lead to Pancoast’s syndrome. The patient’s condition is not influenced by factors such as alcohol consumption, physical activity, or exposure to pathogens.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An older adult patient is admitted with severe epistaxis. The epistaxis continues despite multiple attempts at silver nitrate cautery. The bleeding is successfully slowed with nasal packing. Other history of note includes atrial fibrillation, for which she takes warfarin.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate first line pharmacological therapy for this lady's epistaxis?Your Answer: Prothrombin complex concentrate (such as Beriplex or Octoplex)
Correct Answer: Vitamin K
Explanation:Treatment Options for Bleeding in Patients on Warfarin
Patients on warfarin, an oral anticoagulant commonly used to reduce the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation, may experience bleeding complications. In such cases, it is important to consider appropriate treatment options. One such option is the administration of vitamin K, which is required as a co-enzyme for coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X. Warfarin’s mechanism of action is as a vitamin K antagonist, and thus, its effects can be reversed by vitamin K. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may be used in patients with significant coagulopathy, but it is unlikely to be indicated in patients on warfarin. Prothrombin complex concentrate, such as Beriplex or Octoplex, can also be used to reverse the action of warfarin, but it may be associated with allergic reactions. Factor VIII is used in the treatment of von Willebrand’s disease, a common inherited bleeding disorder. Blood transfusion with packed red blood cells may be appropriate if the patient has had a significant reduction in haemoglobin levels, but continued blood transfusion is unhelpful unless the bleeding is stopped. In summary, the appropriate treatment option for bleeding in patients on warfarin depends on the severity of bleeding and the patient’s medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is brought to the doctors by his son. Three weeks ago his wife passed away from metastatic breast cancer. He reports feeling sad and tearful every day, but his son is worried because he keeps getting into arguments with him over small things and bringing up past family issues. The son also mentions that his father has mentioned hearing his wife's voice and even cooked a meal for her once. Despite this, he has started going for walks with his friends again and is determined to get his life back on track. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Grief is a natural response to the death of a loved one and does not always require medical intervention. However, understanding the potential stages of grief can help determine if a patient is experiencing a normal reaction or a more significant problem. The most common model of grief divides it into five stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. It is important to note that not all patients will experience all five stages. Atypical grief reactions are more likely to occur in women, sudden and unexpected deaths, problematic relationships before death, and lack of social support. Delayed grief, which occurs when grieving does not begin for more than two weeks, and prolonged grief, which is difficult to define but may last beyond 12 months, are features of atypical grief reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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