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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old teacher comes to the clinic with a complaint of secondary amenorrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old teacher comes to the clinic with a complaint of secondary amenorrhoea lasting for six months. She reports experiencing white discharge from her breasts. Despite taking a home urine pregnancy test, the result was negative. What is the most useful blood test to aid in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas: Pituitary Tumours that Affect Hormone Secretion

      Prolactinomas are tumours that develop in the pituitary gland and secrete prolactin, a hormone that stimulates milk production in women. These tumours can be either microscopic or macroscopic, with the latter causing mass effects that can lead to headaches, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. In addition to galactorrhoea, prolactinomas can also cause menstrual disturbances, amenorrhoea, and infertility. Some prolactinomas may also co-secrete other pituitary hormones, such as growth hormone, which can further complicate the diagnosis and treatment of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What role does adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) play in the body? ...

    Correct

    • What role does adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) play in the body?

      Your Answer: Stimulation of the release of glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      The Adrenal Cortex and Pituitary Gland

      The adrenal cortex is composed of two layers, the cortical and medullary layers. The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone, while the zona fasciculata secretes glucocorticoids and the zona reticularis secretes adrenal androgens. However, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens. The release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex is stimulated by ACTH.

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, is secreted from the posterior pituitary and acts on the collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption. Growth hormone, secreted by the anterior pituitary, promotes the growth of soft tissues. Prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary is under inhibitory control from dopamine.

      In summary, the adrenal cortex and pituitary gland play important roles in regulating hormone secretion and bodily functions. The adrenal cortex is responsible for the secretion of aldosterone, glucocorticoids, and adrenal androgens, while the pituitary gland secretes ADH, growth hormone, and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago. Upon examination, she has a smooth, small goiter and a pulse rate of 68 bpm. Her lab results show a Free T4 level of 9.3 pmol/L (normal range: 9.8-23.1) and a TSH level of 49.3 mU/L (normal range: 0.35-5.50). What additional test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Primary Hypothyroidism

      The patient’s test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely cause of this condition is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. While the patient has a goitre, it appears to be smooth and non-threatening, so a thyroid ultrasound is not necessary. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan is unlikely to show significant uptake and is therefore not recommended. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the likely diagnosis in this case. For further information on Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, patients can refer to Patient.info.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42.5
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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old girl visits her General Practitioner, concerned about her family's history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her General Practitioner, concerned about her family's history of cardiovascular disease and wanting to investigate her own health after learning about healthy eating in school. She was found to have a fasting plasma cholesterol of 15 mmol/l.
      What is the most probable reason for these findings?

      Your Answer: A deficiency of acyl CoA cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT)

      Correct Answer: A deficiency of apo B-100

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol Metabolism: Deficiencies and High Levels of Key Proteins

      Apo B-100 is a protein that binds to LDL receptors, allowing for the uptake of lipoproteins. A deficiency in apo B-100 or LDL receptors can lead to familial hypercholesterolemia and an accumulation of cholesterol.

      Lipoprotein lipase is an enzyme that breaks down chylomicrons and VLDLs. A deficiency in this enzyme can result in the accumulation of both, but with normal or slightly raised cholesterol levels.

      ACAT is an enzyme that catalyzes the re-synthesis of cholesterol esters. A deficiency in ACAT would lead to reduced plasma cholesterol levels.

      High levels of HDL are protective as they increase cholesterol transport from tissues to the liver for conversion to bile acids and excretion in feces. However, high levels of HDL are rare.

      LCAT is an enzyme that converts cholesterol taken up by HDL into a cholesterol ester, which is then transferred to lipoprotein remnants for uptake by the liver. High levels of LCAT can increase reverse cholesterol transport and reduce plasma cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.1
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  • Question 5 - A teenager comes to see you in general practice with a swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager comes to see you in general practice with a swelling in the region of their throat. They are worried because they have read about an extremely invasive cancer which is difficult to treat.
      Which of the following is the patient referring to?

      Your Answer: Medullary thyroid cancer

      Correct Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Types of Thyroid Cancer and Their Prognosis

      Thyroid cancer is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland, a small butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck. There are different types of thyroid cancer, each with its own characteristics and prognosis.

      Anaplastic thyroid cancer is a rare but aggressive form of thyroid cancer that mostly affects the elderly. It presents as a hard mass within the thyroid and is responsible for a significant number of deaths from thyroid cancer.

      Follicular thyroid cancer is the second most common type of thyroid cancer. Although it is more aggressive than papillary thyroid cancer, it still has a good prognosis.

      Medullary thyroid cancer originates from the thyroid C cells and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve the prognosis.

      Thyroid lymphoma is a rare form of lymphoma that affects the thyroid gland. It has a good prognosis with proper treatment.

      Papillary thyroid cancer is the most common type of thyroid cancer, occurring mostly in people between the ages of 25 and 50. It presents as an irregular mass arising from a normal thyroid and has a good prognosis.

      In summary, understanding the different types of thyroid cancer and their prognosis can help with early detection and treatment, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid

      Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

      Explanation:

      Sipple Syndrome (MEN 2A)

      Sipple syndrome, also known as Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 2A, is a group of endocrine disorders that occur together in the same patient and are typically inherited. This syndrome is caused by a defect in a gene that controls the normal growth of endocrine tissues. As a result, individuals with Sipple syndrome may develop bilateral medullary carcinoma or C cell hyperplasia, phaeochromocytoma, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Sipple syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, which means that if a person has the defective gene, they have a 50% chance of passing it on to their offspring. This syndrome affects both males and females equally, and the peak incidence of medullary carcinoma in these patients is typically in their 30s.

      In summary, Sipple syndrome is a rare inherited disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands. It is important for individuals with a family history of this syndrome to undergo genetic testing and regular screenings to detect any potential tumors or abnormalities early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite following a diet plan, his glycaemic control is not optimal and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46). You decide to initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg bd. As per NICE NG28 guidelines for diabetes management, what is the recommended interval for rechecking his HbA1c after each intensification of treatment?

      Your Answer: Two to three weeks

      Correct Answer: Three to six months

      Explanation:

      HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control

      The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glucose levels in the blood over a period of time. It reflects the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose, and there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of this molecule and average plasma glucose concentrations. This makes it a widely used tool in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control. Studies have also shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.

      The life span of a red blood cell is 120 days, and HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to re-check HbA1c with each treatment intensification at 3/6 monthly intervals. HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial in managing diabetes and reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
    Free...

    Incorrect

    • These results were obtained on a 30-year-old male who has presented with tiredness:
      Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH 49.31 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
      What signs might be expected in this case?

      Your Answer: Bruit over goitre

      Correct Answer: Slow relaxation of biceps reflex

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Symptoms of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is diagnosed through blood tests that show low levels of T4 and elevated levels of TSH. Physical examination may reveal slow relaxation of tendon jerks, bradycardia, and goitre. A bruit over a goitre is associated with Graves’ thyrotoxicosis, while palmar erythema and fine tremor occur in thyrotoxicosis. In addition to these common symptoms, hypothyroidism may also present with rarer features such as cerebellar features, compression neuropathies, hypothermia, and macrocytic anaemia. It is important to diagnose and treat hypothyroidism promptly to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42
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  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) presents to you 2 days after having undergone a total thyroidectomy. He reports experiencing cramps in his calves and thighs and tingling around his lips. Upon examination, you observe positive Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau sign. Further investigations reveal his serum calcium level to be 2 mmol/l and his serum phosphate level to be 1.8 mmol/l. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Acquired hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia

      Acquired hypoparathyroidism is a likely cause of the biochemical abnormalities observed in a patient who recently underwent a total thyroidectomy. This condition results from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to insufficient secretion of parathyroid hormone and subsequent hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia. Other potential causes of these abnormalities include chronic renal failure and vitamin D deficiency, but these do not match the patient’s clinical history. Pseudohypoparathyroidism, a rare genetic disorder characterized by target tissue resistance to parathyroid hormone, is not a likely explanation either. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, another rare inherited disorder that mimics the physical features of pseudohypoparathyroidism without the biochemical changes, is not relevant to this case. Therefore, acquired hypoparathyroidism is the most probable diagnosis, and appropriate management should include calcium and vitamin D supplementation, as well as monitoring for potential complications such as seizures and tetany.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      102.5
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  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old girl (who has been recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa) exercises regularly....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl (who has been recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa) exercises regularly. During one period of exercise, she becomes very light-headed. Several minutes later, she breaks into a sweat and develops palpitations. A friend takes her to an Emergency Department where a serum glucose of 2.2 mmol/l is demonstrated. The patient is given a soft drink to sip and feels better half an hour later.
      Which of the following hormones most likely triggered the sweating and palpitations the patient experienced?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Correct Answer: Epinephrine

      Explanation:

      Hormones and their Role in Hypoglycaemia

      Hypoglycaemia, or low blood sugar, can be caused by various factors including exercise and minimal glycogen and lipid stores. Hormones play a crucial role in the body’s response to hypoglycaemia.

      Epinephrine is released in response to hypoglycaemia and promotes hepatic glucose production and release. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) triggers cortisol release, which stimulates gluconeogenesis over several hours. Calcitonin modulates serum calcium levels but does not play a direct role in hypoglycaemia.

      Insulin secretion is associated with hypoglycaemia but does not cause symptoms such as sweating or palpitations. Similarly, thyroxine can cause similar symptoms but is not responsible for a specific role in the body’s response to hypoglycaemia. Understanding the role of hormones in hypoglycaemia can aid in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      50.9
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations, excessive sweating, and a lump in her throat that has been present for 2 months. After conducting tests, the doctor discovers a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thyroid Disorders: Carbimazole, Thyroxine, Carbamazepine, Surgery, and Radionuclide Iodine

      Thyroid disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and require different treatment options depending on the diagnosis. Primary hyperthyroidism, caused by a disorder of the thyroid gland itself, is confirmed with raised serum levels of fT3/fT4 and a suppressed/reduced TSH. Symptoms include sweating, weight loss, palpitations, a goitre, hyperactivity, insomnia, emotional lability, reduced libido, heat intolerance, diarrhoea, increased appetite and menstrual irregularities. First-line treatment is with a thionamide such as carbimazole, which inhibits the thyroid peroxidase enzyme involved in the production and release of thyroid hormones. However, carbimazole is associated with serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, angioedema, lymphadenopathy, hepatic disorders and acute pancreatitis.

      Thyroxine is prescribed for patients with hypothyroidism, in which case the TSH would be raised and the T3/T4 hormones low. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include weight gain, constipation, oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea, cold intolerance, tiredness, depression, brittle hair and nails, as well as muscle weakness. Thyroxine is contraindicated in patients with hyperthyroidism as it worsens their symptoms and might precipitate a thyroid storm.

      Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication used in the treatment of epilepsy. It is a sodium channel blocker that prevents sodium binding and repetitive firing of action potentials. However, one of the most serious side effects associated with the use of carbamazepine is Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. It can be licensed for use in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy and treatment of patients with bipolar disorder that is resistant to lithium.

      Surgery is not first line for hyperthyroidism unless there is compression or compromise of the airway, medication has failed to control symptoms, or there is a concurrent suspicious or malignant thyroid nodule. Thyroidectomy has complications such as hypocalcaemia due to the removal of the parathyroid glands, vocal cord paralysis and hypothyroidism. Following a thyroidectomy, the patient will need to go on lifelong thyroid replacement therapy.

      Radionu

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite, and weight gain. Her blood work shows low levels of free T3 and T4, as well as low levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Even after receiving thyrotrophin releasing hormone, her TSH levels remain low. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormones. There are three types of hypothyroidism: primary, secondary, and tertiary.

      Primary hypothyroidism is caused by a malfunctioning thyroid gland, often due to autoimmune thyroiditis or burnt out Grave’s disease. In this type, TRH and TSH levels are elevated, but T3 and T4 levels are low.

      Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when the anterior pituitary gland fails to produce enough TSH, despite adequate TRH levels. This results in low levels of TSH, T3, and T4, even after a TRH stimulation test.

      Tertiary hypothyroidism is rare and occurs when the hypothalamus fails to produce enough TRH. All three hormones are inappropriately low in this type.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a form of autoimmune thyroid disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid. It is a form of primary hypothyroidism.

      De Quervain’s thyroiditis is a subacute thyroiditis, usually viral, which causes a transient period of primary hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism in addition to a tender thyroid.

      Understanding the different types of hypothyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - The hormone CRH, which originates from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of which...

    Correct

    • The hormone CRH, which originates from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of which hormone?

      Your Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

      Explanation:

      Hormones and their Secretion

      The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) which triggers the anterior pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). ACTH then acts on the adrenal cortex to stimulate the secretion of cortisol. Meanwhile, the anterior pituitary gland also secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) which stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. On the other hand, the adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline in response to stress or danger.

      In summary, the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, adrenal cortex, and adrenal medulla work together to regulate the secretion of various hormones in the body. These hormones play important roles in maintaining homeostasis and responding to stressors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.1
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of secondary amenorrhoea and suspects she...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of secondary amenorrhoea and suspects she may be pregnant. Which of the following sets of results is indicative of early pregnancy?

      A
      FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 0.5
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 1.1
      Oestrogen (pmol/L): 26
      Progesterone (pmol/L): <5

      B
      FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 0.5
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 1.2
      Oestrogen (pmol/L): 120
      Progesterone (pmol/L): 18

      C
      FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 68
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 51
      Oestrogen (pmol/L): 42
      Progesterone (pmol/L): <5

      D
      FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 1.0
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 0.8
      Oestrogen (pmol/L): 120
      Progesterone (pmol/L): 160

      E
      FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 8.0
      LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 7.2
      Oestrogen (pmol/L): 144
      Progesterone (pmol/L): <5

      Your Answer: C

      Correct Answer: D

      Explanation:

      Blood Test Ranges in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, blood tests may have different ranges due to the dilutional effect caused by the increased circulating volume, which can peak at almost 4L. This can result in lower levels of sodium, potassium, albumin, gamma globulins, hemoglobin, urea, creatinine, and urate. Additionally, pregnancy is associated with raised prolactin, low LH and FSH, and increased levels of estrogen and progesterone, with progesterone typically being greater than estrogen.

      Compared to non-pregnant women, pregnant women may have increased white blood cell count and platelets, as well as higher levels of cholesterol, triglycerides, and ESR. Alkaline phosphatase levels may also be increased, as the placenta produces this enzyme. It is important to note that while some changes in blood test results are due to the dilutional effect of pregnancy, others may indicate underlying health issues, such as iron deficiency anemia. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to interpret blood test results in the context of pregnancy and individual patient health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following is expected to be elevated in her urine levels?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Correct Answer: Metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Urinary Metabolites as Diagnostic Markers for Adrenal Disorders

      Adrenal disorders such as phaeochromocytomas, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome can be diagnosed by measuring specific urinary metabolites. For example, metanephrines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and homovanillic acid (HVA) are the principal metabolic products of adrenaline and noradrenaline, and their elevated levels in urine indicate the presence of phaeochromocytomas. Similarly, increased urinary excretion of pregnanetriol and dehydroepiandrosterone are indicative of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Free urinary cortisol levels are elevated in Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, fatty tissue deposits, and other symptoms. Additionally, increased urinary excretion of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is seen in functioning carcinoids. However, it is important to note that elevated levels of these metabolites can also occur in other conditions such as extreme stress states or medication use. Therefore, careful interpretation of urinary metabolite levels is necessary for accurate diagnosis of adrenal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - What is a true statement about type 2 diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about type 2 diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin is the preferable treatment in the obese patient with type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Type 2 Diabetes and Drug Treatment Options

      Type 2 diabetes is diagnosed when a person’s fasting plasma glucose level is consistently above 6.9 on two separate occasions. This condition is often associated with being overweight. To manage type 2 diabetes, drug treatment is necessary. The level of glycaemic lowering achieved through drug treatment is directly linked to a reduction in mortality.

      Within 10 years of diagnosis, the rate of macrovascular complications is significantly higher than 20%. Therefore, it is crucial to choose the right drug therapy. The United Kingdom Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS) has shown that metformin is the preferred first-line drug therapy for type 2 diabetes.

      Sulphonylureas are another drug therapy option, but they are associated with marginally higher cardiovascular mortality and weight gain. It is important to work with a healthcare professional to determine the best drug treatment plan for managing type 2 diabetes. By effectively managing blood glucose levels, individuals with type 2 diabetes can reduce their risk of complications and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and lightheadedness. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      Plasma sodium concentration 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 67 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion

      Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is caused by the overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. Tumors such as bronchial carcinoma can cause the ectopic elaboration of ADH, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, but it can be supported by a high urine sodium concentration with high urine osmolality.

      Hypoadrenalism is less likely to cause hyponatremia, as it is usually associated with hyperkalemia and mild hyperuricemia. On the other hand, diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water, leading to excessive thirst and urination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, and even death. Treatment options include fluid restriction, medications to block the effects of ADH, and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.

      In conclusion, SIADH is a condition that can cause low levels of sodium in the blood due to the overproduction of ADH. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that can cause hyponatremia and to treat it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 57-year-old male presents for his first annual review of type 2 diabetes....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents for his first annual review of type 2 diabetes. He has also been experiencing osteoarthritis in his hips and 2nd/3rd metacarpophalangeal joints. His current medications include aspirin and metformin. Prior to starting a statin, his liver function tests are checked and reveal the following results: AST 78 U/L (5-40), ALT 88 U/L (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 210 U/L (60-110), and Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (0-22). He does not consume alcohol and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. He has tested negative for hepatitis B and C viruses, ANA, ASMA, LKM, and AMA. His caeruloplasmin levels are normal. What is the probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis

      This patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of haemochromatosis, an iron storage disorder. The presence of diabetes despite a normal BMI, liver function abnormalities, and arthropathy are all suggestive of this condition. To confirm the diagnosis, the recommended investigation is to measure the patient’s serum ferritin levels followed by transferrin saturation. If haemochromatosis is confirmed, the treatment will involve regular venesection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - Which substance, when found in high levels in the bloodstream, hinders the production...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance, when found in high levels in the bloodstream, hinders the production and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Regulation of PTH secretion

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion is regulated by various factors. One of these factors is the concentration of calcium in the plasma. When the calcium concentration is high, PTH synthesis and secretion are suppressed. On the other hand, an increase in serum phosphate stimulates PTH secretion. Another factor that affects PTH secretion is the extracellular free calcium level. When the level of extracellular free calcium rises, it stimulates a parathyroid membrane-bound calcium receptor, which inhibits PTH secretion. Therefore, the regulation of PTH secretion is a complex process that involves multiple factors, including calcium and phosphate levels in the blood. Proper regulation of PTH secretion is essential for maintaining calcium and phosphate homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerns about weight gain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerns about weight gain and irregular periods. She reports feeling fatigued and sad. There are several purple stretch marks on her stomach and bruises on her legs. Blood tests show normal thyroid hormone levels and an elevated amount of cortisol being produced. If this patient has adrenal hyperactivity, what other symptoms might she experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cortisol on the Body: Misconceptions and Clarifications

      Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. However, there are some misconceptions about the effects of cortisol on the body. Here are some clarifications:

      Hirsutism: Elevated cortisol levels can cause a condition called Cushingoid, which may result in hirsutism in women. This is characterized by excessive hair growth in areas such as the face, chest, and back.

      Hypoglycemia: Contrary to popular belief, cortisol does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it increases gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) and reduces glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, resulting in hyperglycemia.

      Enhanced glucose uptake: Cortisol actually has the opposite effect on glucose uptake. It reduces the uptake of glucose into peripheral tissues and accelerates gluconeogenesis.

      Hypotension: Patients with adrenal hyperfunction (excessive cortisol production) often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure). This is because excessive mineralocorticoids are released, which can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure.

      Hypocalciuria: Cortisol can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis by increasing bone breakdown. This may result in hypercalcemia (high levels of calcium in the blood), which can cause hypercalciuria (excessive calcium in the urine), not hypocalciuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly check-up with his GP. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly check-up with his GP. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings and no signs of fluid overload. His blood pressure is 126/84 mmHg, and his heart rate is 67 bpm. A urine dipstick test shows only 1+ protein.

      The results of his routine blood panel are as follows:
      - Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (125-175)
      - White cell count: 5.7 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Mean cell volume: 82 fL (75-100)
      - Platelets: 359 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Sodium: 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - Potassium: 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Urea: 8.9 mmol/L (2-7)
      - Creatinine: 169 μmol/ (75-110)
      - Glucose: 6.7 mmol/L (4-7)
      - HbA1c: 48 mmol/mol (42-53)
      - eGFR: 29 ml/min (>60)
      - Lactate: 2.4 mmol/L (0.5-2)
      - Venous pH: 7.35 (7.35-7.45)

      Currently, the patient is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, bisoprolol 5 mg daily, gliclazide 80 mg twice daily, metformin 1 g twice daily, and ramipril 2.5 mg daily. Based on this information, which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medications and Renal Impairment

      Metformin is a commonly used oral antidiabetic drug that inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis, making it a first-line agent in the treatment of type 2 diabetes. However, it should be closely monitored in patients with impaired renal function due to the risk of developing lactate acidosis. Current guidelines recommend avoiding metformin in renal impairment if possible, reducing the dose if eGFR is less than 45 ml/min, and discontinuing it if less than 30 ml/min. Gliclazide, another antidiabetic drug, stimulates insulin release and is mostly cleared by the liver, but should be avoided in severe renal impairment and monitored in mild to moderate cases. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor used in hypertension and heart failure, is beneficial in delaying diabetic nephropathy but may require dose adjustments in established renal impairment. Aspirin, commonly used in cardiovascular pathologies, should be avoided in severe renal failure but can be continued in moderate impairment. Bisoprolol, a cardio-specific beta-blocker, is safe to continue in renal impairment, with dose adjustments only needed when eGFR is less than 20 ml/min.

      Overall, it is important to closely monitor medication use in patients with renal impairment and adjust doses or discontinue use as necessary to prevent adverse effects.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after being involved in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after being involved in a fight. He had been in the shower after a gym session, when someone made a derogatory comment about his body, and that started the fight. A history reveals that he has had three girlfriends in the last 3 months, but none of the relationships have lasted. He admits that he struggles to achieve an erection. On examination, the patient is of normal height with normal pubic hair. His penis is small and his breasts are enlarged. He said that he had started growing breasts from the age of 11. This often caused him embarrassment. His blood pressure is 119/73 mmHg.
      Which of the following syndromes must be ruled out?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reifenstein syndrome

      Explanation:

      Comparing Different Syndromes with Similar Symptoms

      When presented with a patient who has female breast development and erectile dysfunction, it is important to consider various syndromes that could be causing these symptoms. One such syndrome is Reifenstein syndrome, which is characterized by partial androgen insensitivity. Another possibility is Turner syndrome, which presents with short stature and amenorrhea in phenotypic females. However, Kallmann syndrome, which includes anosmia as a component, can be ruled out in this case. Similarly, Klinefelter syndrome, which typically results in tall stature and infertility, does not match the patient’s normal height and erectile dysfunction. Finally, 17-α hydroxylase deficiency can be eliminated as a possibility due to the absence of hypertension, which is a common symptom of this enzyme defect. By comparing and contrasting these different syndromes, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with similar symptoms.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old woman presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. Her lab results...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. Her lab results show elevated free T4 and free T3 levels, and a suppressed TSH level. She is currently on medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease, and type 2 diabetes. Which medication is the most likely culprit for these abnormal thyroid function tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and its Effects on Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication that can cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests, leading to both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3), while hyperthyroidism may result from thyroiditis or the donation of iodine (amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine). In addition to thyroid dysfunction, amiodarone can also cause pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor thyroid function in patients taking amiodarone and manage any resulting thyroid dysfunction appropriately.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman visits her endocrinologist for follow-up. She has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her endocrinologist for follow-up. She has a medical history of primary hyperparathyroidism and prolactinoma. After undergoing genetic testing, she was diagnosed with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) syndrome. She is planning to start a family and wants to know the likelihood of her child inheriting MEN1. Her partner has no known medical conditions.
      What is the mode of inheritance for MEN1 syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Patterns of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Syndromes

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are a group of rare genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the development of tumors in multiple endocrine glands. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these syndromes is crucial for genetic counseling and early detection of tumors.

      MEN1 is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the menin gene. This means that if one parent carries the mutation, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their children. Over 1000 mutations have been described in this gene, leading to a loss of tumor-suppressor function and an increased risk of tumors in the parathyroid, pancreas, and pituitary gland, as well as other organs.

      Cystic fibrosis, on the other hand, is an example of an autosomal recessive condition. If both parents carry the mutation, there is a 25% chance of their child inheriting the condition.

      X-linked dominant and recessive conditions are also possible, but they do not apply to MEN syndromes. In X-linked dominant conditions, affected mothers have a 50% chance of passing the condition to their children, while in X-linked recessive conditions, females can only be carriers but can still pass the condition to their sons.

      It is important to note that while most MEN syndromes are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, sporadic cases can also occur. In these cases, a family history may be absent because the parent with the disease may have died before symptoms developed. Genetic testing and counseling can help identify individuals at risk and provide appropriate management and surveillance.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old woman presents with complaints of fever, malaise and pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with complaints of fever, malaise and pain in the neck, particularly when swallowing. She reports having had a viral respiratory infection a week ago. Upon examination, an enlarged thyroid, heart palpitations and excessive sweating are noted. Further tests reveal elevated ESR, leukocytosis, thyroid antibodies and low TSH levels. Additionally, a radionuclide thyroid uptake test shows decreased iodide uptake. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: de Quervain's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Thyroid Disorders: A Comparison of De Quervain’s, Graves’, Hashimoto’s, Subacute Lymphocytic, and Riedel’s Thyroiditis

      Thyroid disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, also known as subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, typically affects women after a viral respiratory infection. Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis may occur initially, but the disease can progress to hypothyroidism with thyroid gland destruction. In contrast, Graves’ disease is characterized by a markedly increased uptake of iodine on a radionuclide thyroid test. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that can present with a hyperthyroid phase, but the patient is unlikely to experience fever and neck pain. Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis occurs only after pregnancy, while Riedel’s thyroiditis is a rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis of the thyroid gland, mimicking a carcinoma. Understanding the unique features of each thyroid disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - What is a true statement about bariatric surgery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about bariatric surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces cardiovascular mortality

      Explanation:

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity: Benefits, Risks, and Complications

      Bariatric surgery is the most effective and long-lasting intervention for obesity, providing significant weight loss and resolution of associated health problems. The Swedish Obesity Study found that bariatric surgery reduced cardiovascular events and mortality rates for up to 15 years compared to standard care. While adolescents face social, psychological, and developmental challenges, they are not excluded from surgery, and some hospitals offer specialized programs for younger patients. Candidates for surgery typically have a body mass index (BMI) of 40 or higher, or a BMI of 35 or higher with serious co-morbidities such as sleep apnea or type 2 diabetes.

      Post-operative mortality rates range from 0.1-2%, and the risk of complications is similar to other major abdominal surgeries. However, if complications do occur, there is a higher likelihood of intervention. The specific complications depend on the type of procedure used. For laparoscopic adjustable gastric band surgery, complications may include band slippage, erosion, infection, pouch dilation, band/tubing leak, and megaoesophagus. For laparoscopic roux en y gastric bypass, complications may include stomal stenosis, internal hernia, and malnutrition. For laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy, complications may include reflux, staple line leak, sleeve dilation, and weight gain. It is important for patients to understand the potential risks and benefits of bariatric surgery before making a decision.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing lethargy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing lethargy and weight gain over the past year. The GP finds nil of note on examination, but decides to carry out some blood tests, the results of which are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 263 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 102 fl 76–98 fl
      Urea and electrolytes normal, liver function tests (LFTs) normal; thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.9 miu/l, free T4 5 pmol/l.
      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menorrhagia may be a feature

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypothyroidism: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, resulting in low levels of thyroid hormones in the body. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, and myxoedema coma (a medical emergency).

      Diagnosis of hypothyroidism involves measuring levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4) in the blood. A high TSH level and a low T4 level indicate hypothyroidism. Menorrhagia may be a feature of the condition.

      Treatment involves initiating and titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and the patient’s signs and symptoms have resolved. The lowest dose of levothyroxine possible to maintain this should be used. If the patient has a goitre, nodule, or changes of the thyroid gland, the patient is suspected to have subacute thyroiditis, or if an associated endocrine disease is suspected, specialist referral is indicated.

      While macrocytosis may indicate coexistent vitamin B12 deficiency, it is not always present in hypothyroidism. Anaemia is a frequent occurrence in thyroid disease, which is most commonly normocytic, but can also be macrocytic or microcytic.

      Thyroid-stimulating autoantibodies commonly occur in hyperthyroidism, but not in hypothyroidism. Similarly, thyroid eye disease is a common feature in hyperthyroidism, but not in hypothyroidism.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of hypothyroidism is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist with complaints of recent mood swings...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist with complaints of recent mood swings and increased irritability towards his spouse. He reports experiencing diarrhea, a significant increase in appetite, weight gain, and difficulty standing up from a seated position. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heartbeat is noted.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders: Hyperthyroidism, Phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s Syndrome and Cushing’s Disease, and Schizoaffective Disorder

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. Symptoms include weight loss, increased appetite, heat intolerance, palpitations, and irritability. Signs include a fast heart rate, tremors, and thin hair. Graves’ disease, a type of hyperthyroidism, may also cause eye problems. Diagnosis is made through blood tests that show elevated thyroid hormones and low thyroid-stimulating hormone levels. Treatment options include medications like beta-blockers and carbimazole, radioiodine therapy, or surgery.

      Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumor that causes excessive production of adrenaline and noradrenaline. Symptoms include high blood pressure, palpitations, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment involves surgical removal of the tumor.

      Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by high levels of cortisol in the body. Symptoms include weight gain, mood changes, fatigue, and easy bruising. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment options include surgery, radiation therapy, and medications.

      Cushing’s disease is a type of Cushing’s syndrome caused by a pituitary tumor that produces too much adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Symptoms are similar to those of Cushing’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment options include surgery, radiation therapy, and medications.

      Schizoaffective disorder is a mental illness that combines symptoms of schizophrenia and mood disorders like depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and mood swings. Treatment involves a combination of medications and therapy.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 16-year-old male presents with delayed pubertal development and a history of impaired...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents with delayed pubertal development and a history of impaired sense of smell. He has a height on the 90th centile and weight on the 95th centile. There is no pubertal development in his external genitalia and his testicular volumes are 3 mL bilaterally. Upon investigation, his plasma luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone levels are both 1.0 U/L (1-10), while his serum testosterone level is 2.0 pmol/L (9-33). His free T4 level is 20 pmol/L (10-22) and his plasma thyroid stimulating hormone level is 3.2 mU/L (0.4-5). A CT brain scan shows no abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient has Kallmann’s syndrome, characterized by hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and anosmia. Klinefelter’s and Noonan’s also cause hypogonadism, while Prader-Willi is associated with hypogonadism and hyperphagia.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 36-year-old woman has been referred by her GP due to passing an...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been referred by her GP due to passing an unusually large volume of urine and complaining of continuous thirst. The following investigations were conducted:

      Random plasma:
      Investigation Result
      Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol/l
      Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 4.5 mmol/l

      Urine:
      Investigation Result
      Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 0.1 mmol/l

      In healthy patients, the urine: plasma osmolality ratio is > 2. A water deprivation test was conducted, and after 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient's weight had dropped by >3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (im) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 36-year-old woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Comparison with Other Conditions

      Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is a pituitary tumor, which reduces antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. Other conditions, such as diabetes mellitus, chronic renal disease, lithium therapy, and primary polydipsia, may also cause polydipsia and polyuria, but they present with different symptoms and responses to treatment.

      To diagnose cranial DI, doctors perform a water deprivation test and measure the urine: plasma osmolality ratio. In patients with cranial DI, the ratio is below 2, indicating that the kidneys are not concentrating urine as well as they should be. However, when given desmopressin im (exogenous ADH), the patient’s urine osmolality dramatically increases, showing that the kidneys can concentrate urine appropriately when stimulated by ADH. This confirms the absence of ADH as the cause of cranial DI.

      Diabetes mellitus patients present with glycosuria and hyperglycemia, in addition to polydipsia and polyuria. Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy cause nephrogenic DI, which does not respond to desmopressin im. Primary polydipsia causes low urine osmolality, low plasma osmolality, and hyponatremia due to excessive water intake. However, patients with primary polydipsia retain some ability to concentrate urine, and removing the fluid source limits polyuria to some extent.

      In conclusion, diagnosing cranial DI requires a thorough comparison with other conditions that cause polydipsia and polyuria. By understanding the symptoms and responses to treatment of each condition, doctors can accurately diagnose and treat patients with cranial DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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