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  • Question 1 - A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent...

    Correct

    • A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent eye problems. The baby has been having persistent sticky discharge and the mother has tried various drops and cleaning methods without success. Upon examination, the baby's pupils are equal and reactive, the conjunctiva shows no signs of inflammation, the sclera is white, and the eyelids appear healthy. The baby has a normal gaze, a normal red reflex, and tracks objects in their visual field appropriately.
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the best advice to offer the mother?

      Your Answer: The condition usually self-resolves by 1 year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants

      Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.

      To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) complaining of painless sudden vision loss in his eyes. Upon examination, the GP observes a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. Where is the lesion located that is responsible for this visual field defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left occipital visual cortex

      Explanation:

      Lesions and their corresponding visual field defects

      Lesions in different areas of the visual pathway can cause specific visual field defects. A lesion in the left occipital visual cortex can result in a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. This is because the visual cortex typically presents with macular sparing. On the other hand, a lesion in the left temporal lobe optic radiation can cause a right superior quadrantanopia. An optic chiasm lesion can lead to bitemporal hemianopia, while a right optic tract lesion can cause a left homonymous hemianopia. Finally, a right parietal lobe optic radiation lesion can result in a left inferior quadrantanopia. Understanding these different visual field defects can aid in localizing the site of a lesion in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old welder comes to the Emergency Department with a metal splinter in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old welder comes to the Emergency Department with a metal splinter in his eye. What is the most effective course of action that can be provided in this setting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      Immediate Referral and Management of Corneal Foreign Body

      If a patient presents with a suspected corneal foreign body, immediate referral to the emergency eye service is necessary. High-velocity injuries or injuries caused by sharp objects should be treated as penetrating injuries until proven otherwise. Once referred, the foreign body can be removed under magnification with a slit lamp and a blunted needle, using a topical anaesthetic to the cornea. Topical antibiotics are given, and the eye is covered with an eye pad. Chemical injuries require eye wash, but this will not remove a corneal foreign body. Retinoscopy is not relevant to this scenario. While topical antibiotics may play a role in management, the most important first step is to remove the foreign body to prevent corneal ulceration, secondary infection, and inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild sensitivity to light and slight tearing. He denies any discomfort or soreness, and his vision remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is the only cause of red eye that is typically not accompanied by pain. Other causes listed are associated with pain, as well as blurred or decreased vision. While episcleritis may cause mild tenderness, it is generally not painful and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories or steroids if necessary.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye that lasted for a few minutes. He describes the loss of vision as a curtain coming into his vision, and he could not see anything out of it for a few minutes before his vision returned to normal.
      Upon examination, his acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, there is a small embolus in one of the vessels in the left eye. The rest of the fundus is normal in both eyes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Vision Loss: Amaurosis Fugax, Anterior Ischaemic Optic Neuropathy, CRAO, CRVO, and Retinal Detachment

      When a patient presents with vision loss, it is important to differentiate between various causes. In the case of a transient and painless loss of vision, a typical diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. This is often seen in patients with atrial fibrillation and other vascular risk factors, and a small embolus may be present on fundoscopy. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and treating it as an eye transischaemic attack (TIA).

      Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, is caused by giant-cell arthritis and presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient’s history.

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is another potential cause of vision loss, but it does not present as a transient loss of vision. Instead, it causes long-lasting damage and may be identified by a cherry-red spot at the macula. The small embolus seen on fundoscopy is not causing a CRAO.

      Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) presents with multiple flame haemorrhages, which are not present in this case.

      While the patient did mention a curtain-like loss of vision, this does not necessarily indicate retinal detachment. Retinal detachment typically presents with flashes and floaters, and vision is worse if the detachment is a macula-off detachment.

      In summary, careful consideration of the patient’s history and fundoscopic findings can help differentiate between various causes of vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visited her GP complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visited her GP complaining of redness in her right eye. She mentioned experiencing mild discomfort and irritation with occasional watering of the eye. However, she denied any dryness or significant pain. The examination of her pupils revealed no abnormalities, and she did not experience any discomfort when exposed to light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.

      The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.

      In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.

      Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 7 - A 62-years-old-man presents to the pulmonology clinic with a recent onset of ptosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-years-old-man presents to the pulmonology clinic with a recent onset of ptosis in his right upper lid. He has been experiencing a chronic cough for the past three months, accompanied by streaks of blood. Upon radiological examination, an opacification is observed in the upper right part of his chest. The patient appears cachexic and unwell, with a BMI of 18 kg/m² and a fasting blood sugar level of 8.3 mmol/L. What other clinical findings may be present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right upper limb pain

      Explanation:

      Patients with Pancoast tumours may experience shoulder pain and upper limb neurological signs, in addition to Horner’s syndrome, due to the tumour proximity to the brachial plexus. Therefore, the correct answer is right upper limb pain. Kussmaul breathing is an incorrect option as it is associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not present in this case. Lupus pernio is also an incorrect answer as it is more commonly seen in sarcoidosis rather than lung cancer. Opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome is another incorrect option as it is a paraneoplastic syndrome typically associated with neuroblastoma in children.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old man presents with a history of poor health for several months...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with a history of poor health for several months and is subsequently diagnosed with syphilis. During the physical examination, it is observed that he has small pupils on both sides that are able to accommodate but do not react to light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Argyll-Robertson pupil

      Explanation:

      Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome

      The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).

      The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with multiple facial lesions that appeared suddenly 24 hours ago and are painful to the touch. She experienced burning pain on her forehead a week ago. Upon examination, she has tenderness on the left side of her forehead and several 4-6mm vesicles on the left side. Hutchinson's sign is positive. What aspect of her condition necessitates an immediate evaluation by an ophthalmologist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesions on the tip of the nose

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign is a strong indicator of ocular involvement in shingles, characterized by vesicles extending to the tip of the nose. This patient is presenting with herpes zoster ophthalmicus, which is caused by the reactivation of herpes zoster affecting the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Urgent ophthalmological review is necessary due to the presence of lesions on the tip of the nose. Management involves oral antivirals and, if there is secondary inflammation of the eye, topical steroids may be given. Lesions above the eyebrow can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected, but this has no association with ocular involvement. Pain over the affected area is a common symptom preceding the eruption of the vesicles, but it is not indicative of ocular involvement. Lesions on the top eyelid can also occur if the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve is affected.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual diabetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual diabetic eye screening. He was previously diagnosed with mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) when micro-aneurysms were observed during retinal examination. However, during this visit, cotton wool spots are also detected in both eyes. What is the underlying pathophysiology of this new discovery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion

      Explanation:

      Cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy are caused by pre-capillary arteriolar occlusion, leading to retinal infarction. This is the reason why the patient is presenting with new cotton wool spots, indicating the progression of their NPDR. Central retinal vein occlusion, lipid deposition in the retina, and thickening of the walls of retinal arterioles are not the underlying causes of cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 11 - A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinoscopy

      Explanation:

      Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses

      When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.

      Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 12 - A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of a headache on the right side of his head, localized at the eye, and neck pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly over an hour. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and a 20-year pack history of smoking. He appears to be in significant pain, with sweat on his forehead.

      Observations reveal a heart rate of 102 bpm, blood pressure of 158/89 mmHg, and a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. On examination, the right pupil is small, and the eyelid is drooping. The sclera is white, and there is no swelling of the eyelid. The left eye appears normal.

      What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      A localised headache, neck pain, and neurological signs such as Horner’s syndrome are indicative of carotid artery dissection. This is a crucial diagnosis to consider when dealing with such symptoms. The presence of a localised headache, neck pain, and Horner’s syndrome suggest carotid artery dissection. The patient’s right eye is showing signs of loss of sympathetic innervation, such as a small pupil and drooping eyelid. The presence of sweat on the forehead indicates that the lesion causing Horner’s syndrome is postganglionic. A carotid artery dissection is the most likely cause of these symptoms, given the patient’s risk factors of smoking and hypertension. Cluster headache, encephalitis, and subarachnoid haemorrhage are less likely diagnoses, as they do not fit with the patient’s symptoms and presentation.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of vision issues. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of vision issues. She reports seeing a red tint in her vision and dark spots in her right eye. The physician sends her to the eye casualty department where they suspect a vitreous haemorrhage.
      What factors could potentially increase the likelihood of developing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use of warfarin

      Explanation:

      The use of blood thinning agents such as warfarin is a predisposing factor for vitreous haemorrhage, which is characterized by red-tinged vision and dark spots. Other risk factors include diabetes, trauma, coagulation disorders, and severe short sightedness.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man, who has been a diabetic for over 20 years, visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man, who has been a diabetic for over 20 years, visits his GP for a routine check-up. During the appointment, he mentions to his doctor that he has been experiencing difficulty with his vision in his right eye for the past few months. He describes it as blurry vision and seeing halos around lights at night. The man has never had any vision problems before. He is currently taking medications for his high blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Other than his vision, his physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis for the man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cataract

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and medical history strongly suggest a diagnosis of cataract. Their elderly age, long-standing diabetes mellitus, and unilateral blurry vision with halos around light sources are all classic signs of cataract. There is no indication of steroid use, which can also increase the risk of cataract development.

      While primary open-angle glaucoma is a possibility, it is less likely given the patient’s symptoms. This condition typically presents with peripheral visual field loss rather than blurry vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but it is more commonly associated with halos than primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Uveitis is unlikely given the absence of pain and redness in the eye. Additionally, it is not typically associated with diabetes. Diabetic retinopathy is another possibility in this patient, but it is often asymptomatic or presents with hemorrhage.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left eye pain and slightly blurred vision. He has no significant medical history and does not wear glasses or contact lenses. His family history includes type 2 diabetes and Crohn's disease.

      Upon examination, the patient is wearing sunglasses due to photophobia and his left eye appears red. Ophthalmoscopy is not possible due to the severity of his symptoms. A white fluid level is visible in the inferior part of the anterior chamber and his pupil is small and irregular. Based on these findings, ophthalmology is urgently consulted. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      The patient has a medical history of a systemic condition such as rheumatoid arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis, which can lead to recurrent episodes. Although he has a family history of IBD, his symptoms do not match the typical presentation, as he does not experience a gritty sensation in his eye and his pupil does not appear abnormal.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 16 - A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye. During examination, a dendritic corneal ulcer is observed. The patient has recently finished taking oral prednisolone for an asthma flare-up. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The most suitable treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical acyclovir. This patient’s symptoms, including a dendritic corneal ulcer, suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which may have been triggered by their recent use of oral prednisolone. Therefore, the most appropriate medication would be topical antivirals, such as acyclovir. It is important to note that acyclovir should be given topically rather than intravenously. Topical ciprofloxacin would be appropriate for bacterial or amoebic keratitis, which is more common in patients who wear contact lenses. Topical chloramphenicol would be suitable for a superficial eye infection like conjunctivitis, but it would not be appropriate for this patient, who likely has a viral cause for their symptoms.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old woman presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of vision problems. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of vision problems. She reports experiencing blackouts in her peripheral vision and severe headaches. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist notes bitemporal hemianopia in her visual fields. Where is the likely site of the lesion in her optic pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects of Lesions in the Visual Pathway

      The visual pathway is a complex system that allows us to perceive and interpret visual information. However, lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in various visual field defects. Here is a breakdown of the effects of lesions in different parts of the visual pathway:

      Optic Chiasm: Lesions in the optic chiasm can cause bitemporal hemianopia or tunnel vision. This is due to damage to the fibers that receive visual stimuli from the temporal visual fields.

      Optic Nerve: Lesions in the optic nerve can result in monocular blindness of the ipsilateral eye. If only one eye has a visual field defect, then the lesion cannot be further back than the optic nerve.

      Optic Tract: Lesions in the optic tract can cause homonymous hemianopia of the contralateral visual field. This means that a lesion of the left optic tract causes loss of the right visual field in both eyes.

      Lateral Geniculate Nucleus: Any lesions after the optic chiasm will result in a homonymous hemianopia.

      Primary Visual Cortex: Lesions in the primary visual cortex can also result in homonymous hemianopia, but with cortical lesions, there is usually macular sparing because of the relatively large cortical representation of the macula. Less extensive lesions are associated with scotoma and quadrantic field loss.

      Understanding the effects of lesions in the visual pathway is crucial in diagnosing and treating visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old man on your contact list reports experiencing two small floaters that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man on your contact list reports experiencing two small floaters that have appeared in his left eye, partially obstructing his vision over the past 24 hours. He has been working on computer screens more frequently than usual over the past week and wears glasses for myopia. He denies any pain or injury to either eye and has not visited an optometrist in several years. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange same-day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with new-onset flashes or floaters, it is crucial to refer them urgently for assessment by an ophthalmologist within 24 hours. This is because the floaters could be a symptom of a retinal detachment, which requires immediate attention to prevent loss of sight. Therefore, the ophthalmology team may need to perform an urgent operation if a detachment is detected.

      In this case, the patient has new-onset floaters, and there is no history of a foreign body or pain in her eye. Therefore, irrigation and antibiotic cover are unlikely to be helpful. While it is important to see her optician to ensure her glasses are the correct prescription, an urgent ophthalmology review should be organized first.

      It is inappropriate to delay referral to ophthalmology by arranging a face-to-face assessment the following day. Additionally, the use of computer screens is an unlikely cause for floaters, and observing for further time does not adequately address potential sight-threatening causes.

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 19 - A 59-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with progressive bilateral visual loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with progressive bilateral visual loss. Despite feeling well, he is worried about his ability to drive and grade his students' math assignments. He has no medical history but has a smoking history of 25 packs per year and does not drink alcohol. During the examination, drusen is observed and visual acuity is reduced. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-dose beta-carotene and vitamins C and E

      Explanation:

      The use of high-dose corticosteroids is not recommended for the treatment of wet or dry AMD due to their anti-inflammatory properties, which are not effective in managing the disease. Additionally, these drugs can cause side effects such as cataracts and glaucoma. High-dose vitamin D and omegas 3 and 6 are also not associated with the treatment of dry AMD. Antioxidants such as beta-carotene, vitamins C and E, and zinc have been shown to slow the progression of dry AMD by approximately 25 percent. Intravitreal anti-VEGF agents are used to manage wet AMD, which is characterized by rapid onset and the growth of abnormal, leaky vessels in the subretinal space. The goal of intravitreal treatment is to slow the progression of the disease, but it is not indicated for the management of dry AMD.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a right-sided headache associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a right-sided headache associated with diplopia, binocularly. He is known to have hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. There is a ptosis of his right eye. His right pupil appears larger than the left. His right eye is abducted on primary gaze. His right eye movements are restricted in most directions except abduction.
      Which one of the following is the most important cause you need to rule out in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior-communicating artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Causes of Third-Nerve Palsy and Their Differentiating Features

      Third-nerve palsy is a condition that can be caused by various factors, each with its own differentiating features. One of the most urgent causes is a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm, which can be fatal due to subarachnoid hemorrhage. A space-occupying lesion can also compress onto the third nerve, but ruling out an impending subarachnoid hemorrhage caused by a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm is more urgent. On the other hand, an anterior-communicating artery aneurysm does not normally cause a third-nerve palsy. Demyelination can cause third-nerve palsy, but the presentation usually points towards a more ‘surgical’ than ‘medical’ cause. Microvascular ischemia is a common cause of ‘medical’ third-nerve palsy, but the pupillary fibers that control pupil dilation are not affected. Therefore, understanding the differentiating features of each cause is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 21 - An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe headache, nausea, vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. She has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. On examination, she had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed raised intraocular pressure.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for immediate review by on call ophthalmologist. Topical pilocarpine, followed by a single dose of oral acetazolamide (500 mg) if there is a significant delay prior to specialist review

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma

      Acute closed angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires urgent ophthalmological review. The condition causes sudden loss of vision, severe eye pain, and marked pericorneal injection. The patient may also experience nausea and vomiting. On examination, the eye is stony hard with a semi-dilated, non-reactive pupil, and tonometry reveals a high intraocular pressure (40–80 mmHg).

      The primary treatment for acute closed angle glaucoma is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. However, if there is a significant delay in specialist review, a single dose of oral acetazolamide (500 mg) can be given to reduce aqueous secretion, and topical pilocarpine can be used to cause pupillary constriction.

      It is important to note that topical steroids are not effective in resolving the underlying problems of acute closed angle glaucoma. Urgent referral to a neurologist is also not appropriate for managing this condition. Additionally, topical tropicamide should not be used as it has the opposite effect to pilocarpine and can worsen attacks of glaucoma.

      In summary, acute closed angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires urgent ophthalmological review. If there is a delay in specialist review, a single dose of oral acetazolamide and topical pilocarpine can be given to manage the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vision abnormalities. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vision abnormalities. She reports seeing a black shadow in her right eye's upper field of vision unilaterally. Additionally, she has been experiencing sudden flashing lights in spindly shapes for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities in the eye, and both pupils are equal and reactive. The patient has no known medical conditions or allergies. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing painless vision loss with a peripheral curtain over her vision, spider web-like flashing lights, and requires an urgent referral to eye casualty. These symptoms are indicative of a retinal detachment, which is a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if not treated promptly. Other potential causes of vision loss, such as ischemic optic neuropathy, vitreous hemorrhage, and acute optic neuritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a droopy eyelid...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a droopy eyelid that started yesterday and has not improved. He has a medical history of poorly controlled type two diabetes mellitus and hypertension, which cause him recurrent foot ulcers. Additionally, he has been a smoker for his entire life.

      During the eye examination, the doctor observes ptosis of the left palpebra with a constricted pupil. However, the patient's visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and he has normal colour vision, intact central and peripheral fields. The patient had a similar episode after a motorbike accident, which was diagnosed as a nerve palsy and later resolved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis is Horner’s syndrome, which is characterized by ptosis and a constricted pupil. This syndrome is caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation and is likely due to a Pancoast tumor in this patient, who has a history of smoking. Other features of Horner’s syndrome include anhidrosis.

      An abducens nerve palsy would cause horizontal diplopia and defective eye abduction. Lateral medullary syndrome, caused by a stroke, can also cause Horner’s syndrome but would present with additional symptoms such as ataxia and dysphagia.

      An oculomotor nerve palsy would cause ptosis, a ‘down and out’ eye, and a dilated pupil. This patient only has ptosis and a constricted pupil, making oculomotor nerve palsy an incorrect diagnosis. A trochlear nerve palsy would cause vertical diplopia and limitations in eye movement.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of redness, grittiness, and stickiness in both eyes for the past 5 days. She also reports experiencing whitish-yellow discharge on her lids, particularly in the morning. Upon examination, her vision is 6/6 in both eyes, and there is diffuse injection of the conjunctivae with mild chemosis. The cornea shows no fluorescein uptake. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bacterial Conjunctivitis in Pregnant Women

      Bacterial conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that can occur during pregnancy. While topical antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment, certain options should be avoided or used with caution in pregnant women. Here are the treatment options for bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant women:

      Topical Fusidic Acid Eye Drops: These eye drops are typically a second-line choice for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but they are often the first-line treatment for pregnant women.

      Topical Steroid Eye Drops: These eye drops are not recommended for bacterial conjunctivitis, especially in pregnant women.

      Artificial Tears: While artificial tears can provide relief for dry eyes, they are not useful in treating bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Eye Shield: An eye shield is not necessary for bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Topical Chloramphenicol Eye Drops: Topical antibiotics are effective in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but chloramphenicol should be avoided in pregnant women unless it is essential. The British National Formulary recommends avoiding topical chloramphenicol due to the risk of neonatal grey-baby syndrome with oral use in the third trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a gradual onset of left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a gradual onset of left-sided visual issues. She reports no discomfort or itching in the affected area. During the examination, left-sided ptosis and miosis are observed. When the lights are dimmed, the right pupil dilates, but the left pupil does not. She has a history of smoking for 8 years. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right eye with photophobia for the past 2 days. He usually wears contact lenses but has been using glasses since the onset of pain. The patient has a medical history of allergic rhinitis and takes cetirizine daily.

      During the examination, the doctor observes dilated conjunctival and episcleral vessels, mild eyelid swelling, and increased tearing in the right eye. The left eye appears normal, and the patient's corrected visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to eye casualty

      Explanation:

      If a person wearing contact lenses experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out the possibility of microbial keratitis.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - As an FY-2 doctor in ophthalmology, you encounter a 59-year-old male patient who...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY-2 doctor in ophthalmology, you encounter a 59-year-old male patient who complains of pain in his right eye, accompanied by tearing and reduced vision. Upon examination, you diagnose a corneal ulcer. What is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Fungal infections and subsequent corneal ulcers can be caused by the use of steroid eye drops. These drops are designed to reduce inflammation, but they can also weaken the immune response to infections, leaving the cornea vulnerable to bacteria, fungi, or protists. Treatment for corneal ulcers typically involves targeted eye drops to address the specific organism causing the infection, such as antibacterial or antifungal drops. Saline or lubricant eye drops, on the other hand, are sterile and do not pose a risk for corneal ulcers.

      Understanding Corneal Ulcers

      A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man comes to the eye clinic complaining of bilateral redness around...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the eye clinic complaining of bilateral redness around the corneal limbus. He has been experiencing this for one day and is in a lot of pain, particularly when reading the newspaper. He also reports sensitivity to light and blurry vision. Additionally, he has a headache that is affecting his entire head and back pain that is more severe in the morning but improves throughout the day.

      During the examination, the patient's pupils are fixed and small, with an oval shape. There is no hypopyon, but his eyes are very watery.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic eye drops

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops. This patient exhibits typical symptoms of anterior uveitis, which may be caused by a systemic condition like ankylosing spondylitis. The patient experiences pain, redness, watering, blurry vision, and small, fixed, oval-shaped pupils in both eyes around the corneal limbus. Although hypopyon may not always be present, the patient’s back pain that improves throughout the day may suggest ankylosing spondylitis. Steroid and cycloplegic eye drops are the appropriate treatment options. Cyclopentolate helps relieve pain caused by muscle spasms controlling the pupil and prevents the formation of synechiae that may affect the pupils function. Steroids help treat the underlying inflammation. Bilateral laser iridotomy is not suitable for this patient, as it is most appropriate for acute closed-angle glaucoma. High flow oxygen and sumatriptan may seem like a possible treatment for cluster headaches due to the patient’s lacrimation, red eyes, and headache, but this presentation is more consistent with anterior uveitis. Topical sodium cromoglicate is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat allergic conjunctivitis, which typically presents with watery, red, itchy eyes in patients with a history of atopy.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

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      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden painless loss...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. He has noticed a decline in his vision over the past few months, but attributed it to his age. He has a history of smoking 30 cigarettes daily for the last 45 years and well-controlled hypertension. The left eye has a visual acuity of 6/30, while the right eye has a visual acuity of 6/12. A central scotoma is evident on visual field testing. Fundus examination is being conducted after administering mydriatic eye drops. What is the most specific finding for the underlying cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Choroidal neovascularisation

      Explanation:

      The patient’s acute onset painless visual loss, along with their chronic visual loss, distorted vision, age, and smoking history, suggest a diagnosis of age-related macular degeneration (AMD). Since the vision loss was sudden, wet AMD is more likely than dry AMD. Choroidal neovascularisation is a hallmark feature of wet AMD, as new blood vessels formed are weak and unstable, leading to intraretinal or subretinal fluid leakage or haemorrhage.

      Blurring of the optic disc margins is not a feature of AMD, but rather papilloedema, which is associated with increased intracranial pressure and typically presents with progressive and positional headaches, nausea, and vomiting.

      Cotton-wool exudates are not commonly seen in AMD, but rather in hypertensive and diabetic retinopathy. Although the patient has hypertension, it is well-controlled, and hypertensive retinopathy tends to present with slow and progressive visual loss.

      Geographic atrophy may be seen in the late stages of both forms of AMD, but the presence of choroidal neovascularisation is the key differentiating feature between the two.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

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      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of type I diabetes visits her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of type I diabetes visits her GP complaining of a 4-day decrease in visual acuity on her left side. During the examination, she reports that the object used appears to have a different color when using her left eye compared to her right eye. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest optic neuritis as the most likely diagnosis, which can be associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, and syphilis. The patient has experienced a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a few days and has difficulty distinguishing colors, particularly with red appearing washed out, pink, or orange when viewed with the affected eye. The blind spot assessment is significant because it typically involves a red-tipped object, which may further highlight the patient’s red desaturation. Other exam findings may include pain with eye movement, a relative afferent pupillary defect, and a central scotoma. Acute angle-closure glaucoma would not typically cause color desaturation, and type I diabetes is not a risk factor for this condition. While type I diabetes can increase the risk of age-related macular degeneration, patients typically present with a gradual reduction in visual acuity without affecting color vision. Cataracts can also cause faded color vision, but the history would typically span several weeks to months.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his left eye. He has a medical history of recurring sinusitis and ankylosing spondylitis. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness around the left eye, and there is discomfort when testing eye movements. The pupils appear normal. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for patients with orbital cellulitis is admission to the hospital for IV antibiotics. This is due to the potential risk of cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. The symptoms of ocular pain, pain on eye movements, redness, and swelling around the eye suggest this condition. IV acetazolamide, oral antibiotics, and oral steroids are not suitable treatments for orbital cellulitis as they are intended for different conditions.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 32 - A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents for a routine optometry exam to assess his overall eye health. He has a medical history of diabetes but has not been consistent with his medication and rarely monitors his blood sugar levels. During the fundoscopy, diffuse neovascularization and cotton wool spots were observed. What is the recommended treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors + pan-retinal photocoagulation laser

      Explanation:

      The treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy may involve the use of intravitreal VEGF inhibitors in combination with panretinal laser photocoagulation.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 33 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. He has no past medical history and is allergic to penicillin.
      On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis.
      Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 bpm
      Respiratory rate 18 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 98% on air
      Temperature 37.9 °C
      What is first-line management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Penicillin-Allergic Patients with Orbital Cellulitis

      When treating a patient with orbital cellulitis who is allergic to penicillin, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. One option is to administer clindamycin and ciprofloxacin intravenously. However, cefuroxime alone is not sufficient and requires the addition of metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav should not be used in penicillin-allergic patients, and Tazocin® is also not recommended. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary for the treatment of orbital cellulitis unless there are signs of an abscess. By considering these options, healthcare providers can effectively treat penicillin-allergic patients with orbital cellulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
      On examination, visual acuity is 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
      Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 bpm
      Respiratory rate 18 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 98% on air
      Temperature 37.9 °C
      What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis

      Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.

      While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.

      In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 35 - A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erythema around his...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erythema around his right eye and limited eye movements for the past 2 days. He has been experiencing sinusitis symptoms for the last week. During the examination of his right eye, the doctor observes erythema around the eye, proptosis, painful and restricted eye movements, and decreased visual acuity. The examination of his left eye is normal.
      What is the most suitable test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) orbit, sinuses and brain

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Diagnostic Tools for Orbital Cellulitis

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. To evaluate patients with suspected orbital cellulitis, a computed tomography (CT) scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain is necessary if they have central nervous system involvement, proptosis, eye movement restriction or pain, reduced visual acuity, or other symptoms. If patients do not improve after 36-48 hours of IV antibiotics, surgical drainage may be required, making imaging crucial for evaluation.

      Ophthalmic ultrasound is not useful in the diagnosis or assessment of orbital cellulitis, but it is used in the evaluation of intra-ocular tumors. Optical coherence photography (OCT) is also not used in the assessment of orbital cellulitis, but it is useful in the diagnosis and assessment of other eye conditions such as glaucoma and macular degeneration.

      An X-ray of the skull bones is not useful in the assessment of orbital cellulitis and is typically used in cases of suspected non-accidental injury in children. Overall, proper imaging and diagnostic tools are essential for the accurate diagnosis and treatment of orbital cellulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 36 - A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and blurred vision that started 1 day ago. He reports no pain when touching his scalp or eating and chewing food. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which he manages with metformin. He also mentions that his uncle died of brain cancer, and he is worried that he may have the same condition.

      During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. Dilated fundoscopy reveals some arterioles narrower than others, with venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes, with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. Additionally, there are some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.

      His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 80 bpm, blood pressure 221/119 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, respiratory rate 14 per minute, and temperature 37 °C.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hypertensive Retinopathy: A Case Study

      The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed typical features of hypertensive retinopathy, including bilateral optic disc swelling. Although the patient had a family history of intracranial space-occupying lesions, there were no accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss, making this diagnosis unlikely. Additionally, there was no evidence of drusen or choroidal neovascularisation, ruling out age-related macular degeneration. The absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication made giant-cell arthritis an unlikely diagnosis as well. Finally, the lack of new vessels at the disc and elsewhere ruled out proliferative diabetic retinopathy. In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings point towards a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 37 - A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision has worsened in the last six months. He has never smoked and is currently using antioxidant supplements. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explain no other medical therapies currently available

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 38 - A 23-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of visual symptoms. She states...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of visual symptoms. She states that her left eye's vision has significantly deteriorated in the last two days. Additionally, she experiences pain behind her left eye when moving it. The patient is healthy otherwise, without medical history, allergies, or regular medication intake. During the examination, a relative afferent pupillary defect is observed, and her left eye's visual acuity is lower than the right. What other symptom is she likely to mention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced colour vision

      Explanation:

      The patient in the brief is a young female with acute unilateral vision loss and painful eye movements. Given her age and symptoms, optic neuritis is the most likely diagnosis. This is especially true since she does not have any other symptoms commonly associated with temporal arthritis, such as new headaches, general malaise, weight loss, and jaw claudication. Additionally, temporal arthritis typically affects older patients and does not cause painful eye movements.

      While optic neuritis can result in any pattern of visual field defect, the most common one is central scotoma. Therefore, peripheral vision loss with central sparing is less likely to be reported. It is important to note that this patient is not likely to have optic neuritis associated with SLE, as this is a rare occurrence. Instead, she is more likely to have idiopathic optic neuritis or optic neuritis associated with multiple sclerosis.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 39 - A mother brings her 4-year-old son to her General Practitioner. She has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old son to her General Practitioner. She has noticed that when her son gets tired, his left eye appears to deviate to the left. The child is referred to an ophthalmologist for further tests.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test to assess strabismus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cover test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Strabismus: Tests and Procedures

      Strabismus, commonly known as a squint, is a condition where the visual axis is misaligned, causing one eye to deviate from the object being viewed. The cover test is a useful tool in assessing strabismus, where one eye is covered while the other is observed for a shift in fixation. If this is positive, it is a manifest squint. Another test is the cover/uncover test, where one eye is covered and then uncovered to observe for movement of that eye, indicating a latent squint.

      The Ishihara test is used to assess colour vision and is not an initial test for evaluating strabismus. An MRI brain may be requested if an underlying neurological cause is suspected, but it is not an initial test. Retinal photography is not a first-line test for children presenting with possible strabismus, but the red reflex should be tested to exclude leukocoria, which may suggest a serious cause for the squint such as retinoblastoma. Tonometry is used to measure intraocular pressure and diagnose glaucoma, but it is not used in the assessment of strabismus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 40 - A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day history of left-sided headache, retro-orbital pain, and dull facial pain on the left side. He has a medical history of hypertension and migraine and is currently taking ramipril 2.5mg. Upon examination, he displays partial ptosis and enophthalmos of the left eye, with anisocoria and miosis of the same eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable, with normal sweating bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition that typically presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the same side of the body. The degree of anhidrosis can help determine the location of the lesion along the sympathetic pathway. In cases where anhidrosis is absent, it may indicate a postganglionic lesion, such as in the case of carotid artery dissection. This condition can cause a partial Horner’s syndrome with ptosis and miosis, but without anhidrosis. While this is a rare presentation of carotid artery dissection, it is important to recognize to prevent further neurological complications, such as an ischemic stroke. Preganglionic lesions, such as a cervical rib or Pancoast tumor, can cause anhidrosis of just the face, while central lesions, such as a stroke or syringomyelia, can cause anhidrosis of the head, arm, and trunk in addition to ptosis and miosis.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 41 - A 78-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of gradual loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of gradual loss of peripheral vision over the past 4 months and a decline in overall visual acuity. She reports experiencing tunnel vision. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and wears corrective glasses for her myopia. Upon fundoscopy, the doctor observes optic disc cupping and hemorrhages. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary open-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The main effect of glaucoma is the development of defects in the visual field.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 42 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about unusual symptoms in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about unusual symptoms in his eyes. He reports experiencing flashes of light in his eyes for a few days and has also noticed dark specks floating around in his vision. He denies any discomfort. The patient is nearsighted and wears glasses, but has no significant medical history. Upon examination, his visual acuity and fields are normal. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s flashers and floaters is posterior vitreous detachment, which is a common age-related condition that occurs when the vitreous membrane separates from the retina. This condition does not cause pain or vision loss, but highly myopic patients are at increased risk. It is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist within 24 hours to rule out retinal tears or detachment.

      Migraine is an unlikely cause as there is no headache described. Optic neuritis is also unlikely as there is no pain or history of previous disease. While retinal detachment may be a complication of PVD, it is not as common as PVD itself and would present with sudden visual loss and a veil covering the visual field. A retinal tear may also occur without progressing to detachment and would require intervention from an ophthalmologist.

      Understanding Posterior Vitreous Detachment

      Posterior vitreous detachment is a condition where the vitreous membrane separates from the retina due to natural changes in the vitreous fluid of the eye with ageing. This is a common condition that does not cause any pain or loss of vision. However, it is important to rule out retinal tears or detachment as they may result in permanent loss of vision. Posterior vitreous detachment occurs in over 75% of people over the age of 65 and is more common in females. Highly myopic patients are also at increased risk of developing this condition earlier in life.

      Symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment include the sudden appearance of floaters, flashes of light in vision, blurred vision, and cobweb across vision. If there is an associated retinal tear or detachment, the patient will require surgery to fix this. All patients with suspected vitreous detachment should be examined by an ophthalmologist within 24 hours to rule out retinal tears or detachment.

      The management of posterior vitreous detachment alone does not require any treatment as symptoms gradually improve over a period of around 6 months. However, it is important to monitor the condition and seek medical attention if any new symptoms arise. The appearance of a dark curtain descending down vision indicates retinal detachment and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, understanding posterior vitreous detachment and its associated risks is important for maintaining good eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 43 - A 30-year-old man reports experiencing a scratchy sensation in his eyes as the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man reports experiencing a scratchy sensation in his eyes as the day goes on. He feels that his eyes become tired. These symptoms only occur during weekdays when he works as a computer programmer for a local business. During examination, there is mild conjunctival hyperemia, but the rest of the ocular examination is normal. Which nerve stimulation is linked to tear production?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intermediate nerve

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves and Their Parasympathetic Functions

      The cranial nerves play a crucial role in the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. Here are some of the cranial nerves and their parasympathetic functions:

      1. Intermediate Nerve: This nerve supplies secretomotor innervation to the lacrimal gland. The parasympathetic fibers originate from the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve and travel through the greater petrosal nerve, deep petrosal nerve, Vidian nerve, and maxillary nerve to reach the lacrimal gland.

      2. Oculomotor Nerve: The oculomotor nerve provides motor innervation to four of the six ocular muscles and parasympathetic innervation to the ciliary muscle and sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris.

      3. Glossopharyngeal Nerve: This nerve provides secretomotor innervation to the parotid gland. The parasympathetic fibers travel through the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, tympanic plexus, lesser petrosal nerve, and auriculotemporal nerve to reach the parotid gland.

      4. Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gastrointestinal tract.

      5. Chorda Tympani: This branch of the facial nerve contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that synapse at the submandibular ganglion attached to the lingual nerve. The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers reach the submandibular and sublingual glands via the branches of the lingual nerve.

      Understanding the parasympathetic functions of these cranial nerves is essential in diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 44 - A 70-year-old man has been experiencing a gradual decline in his vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has been experiencing a gradual decline in his vision in both eyes. He is struggling to read and recognize faces, and has had multiple falls due to difficulty in perceiving edges of objects such as stairs. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, amber retinal deposits are observed but no signs of neovascularisation are present. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking amlodipine and metformin. He has been a heavy smoker for the past 40 years, smoking 30 cigarettes a day, but does not consume alcohol. What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamins C+E and beta-carotene supplementation

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 45 - A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with complaints of swelling around...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with complaints of swelling around her left eye. She has been experiencing this for the past 2 days and has also been feeling feverish and lethargic. The patient denies any history of trauma or vision loss.
      Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.2ºC and is found to have left-sided proptosis. All eye movements are painful and reduced in the affected eye. Fundoscopy is normal, and the patient has a visual acuity of 6/6 in the right eye and 6/12 in the left eye.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Orbital cellulitis is characterized by sudden swelling of one eye, accompanied by proptosis and limited eye movement. Pain and visual changes may also occur depending on the severity of the condition. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical examination, but in severe or resistant cases, microbiology and imaging techniques such as CT may be used. Conjunctivitis and iritis can cause red eyes, but they do not typically result in orbital swelling. Retinoblastoma is a type of cancer that primarily affects children under the age of 5 and is usually detected during routine fundoscopy or due to a decline in vision.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 46 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in his vision. He mentions difficulty driving at night due to glare from headlights. He does not experience any pain in his eyes. The physician suspects that he may have developed cataracts.
      What are the typical examination findings for cataract formation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absent red reflex

      Explanation:

      Common Ophthalmic Findings and Their Significance

      Red reflex absence, increased ocular pressure, cotton wool spots, positive Schirmer’s test, and reduced visual acuity are common ophthalmic findings that can indicate various eye conditions.

      Red Reflex Absence: This finding is often seen in patients with cataracts, where the lens becomes opaque and prevents light from reaching the retina. A slit-lamp examination can confirm the opacity of the lens.

      Increased Ocular Pressure: This finding is associated with glaucoma, where patients may experience reduced peripheral vision and headaches in addition to problems with glare.

      Cotton Wool Spots: These white patches on the retina are often seen in patients with diabetic retinopathy and hypertension, caused by ischaemia of the nerve fibres supplying the retina.

      Positive Schirmer’s Test: This test is used to diagnose dry eyes or Sjögren syndrome by measuring tear production using litmus paper placed on the lower eyelid.

      Reduced Visual Acuity: While this finding is not specific to any particular condition, it is often reported by patients with cataracts as a gradual progressive visual loss.

      Overall, these ophthalmic findings can provide important clues to help diagnose and manage various eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 47 - A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits his optician for routine screening and is discovered to have elevated intraocular pressure without any symptoms. The diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma is confirmed. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Can you identify a potential treatment and its mode of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical timolol - reduces aqueous production

      Explanation:

      Timolol eye drops are effective in treating primary open-angle glaucoma by reducing the production of aqueous fluid in the anterior chamber. This helps to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further fluid buildup. Other medications, such as acetazolamide, latanoprost, brimonidine, and pilocarpine, work by different mechanisms such as reducing aqueous production or increasing uveoscleral outflow. However, timolol is specifically known for its ability to reduce aqueous production and is commonly used as a first-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache that is most intense in the morning. Despite taking paracetamol, the symptoms have persisted for several weeks. She also experiences vomiting in the mornings and has noticed blurry vision. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive, and there are no abnormalities in her systemic examination. What would you anticipate observing during fundoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blurring of optic disc margin

      Explanation:

      Papilloedema is characterized by a blurry appearance of the optic disc margin during fundoscopy.

      The patient in question is experiencing elevated intracranial pressure, the cause of which is uncertain. Their symptoms, including a morning headache, vision impairment, and vomiting, are indicative of papilloedema. As such, it is expected that their fundoscopy would reveal signs of this condition, such as a blurred optic disc margin.

      Other potential indicators of papilloedema include a loss of optic cup and venous pulsation. However, increased arterial reflex is more commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy, while retinal pigmentation is a hallmark of retinitis pigmentosa.

      Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure

      Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.

      There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.

      Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 49 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      Upon examination of a patient with eye symptoms, it was determined that the presentation pointed towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This was due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 50 - A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man contacts his GP regarding visual alterations in his left eye. He has been encountering flashes/floaters and spider webs for the past 2 days, and now there is some darkening on the periphery of vision. Additionally, he has observed that straight lines appear somewhat jagged. There is no associated pain or injury. The patient is in good health and has no chronic medical conditions.
      What is the probable diagnosis for the aforementioned symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      If you experience peripheral vision loss accompanied by spider webs and flashing lights, it could be a sign of retinal detachment. This condition is often described as a curtain coming down over your vision and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Additionally, you may notice floaters or string-like shapes, and straight lines may appear distorted due to the retina detaching from the choroid.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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