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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman complains of discomfort at the base of her left thumb. The right first carpometacarpal joint is swollen and tender.
What could be the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Common Hand and Wrist Pathologies
The hand and wrist are common sites of pathology, particularly in postmenopausal women. Osteoarthritis frequently affects the first carpometacarpal joint, causing tenderness, stiffness, crepitus, swelling, and pain on thumb abduction. This can lead to squaring of the hand, radial subluxation of the metacarpal, and atrophy of the thenar muscles.
Scaphoid fractures are also relatively common, often resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand. The proximal portion of the scaphoid lacks its own blood supply, which can lead to avascular necrosis if a fracture isolates it from the rest of the bone. This produces pain and tenderness on the radial side of the wrist, typically in the anatomical snuffbox, worsened by wrist movement.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is another common pathology, characterized by stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. It presents with pain, swelling, and tenderness on the radial aspect of the wrist. Treatment typically involves splinting, with or without corticosteroid injection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severely painful, swollen, and red left big toe. He states that it started yesterday and has become so excruciating that he cannot put on shoes. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with a stomach ulcer last year. The diagnosis is a first episode of acute gout. What would be the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Gout Flare in a Patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease
When managing an acute gout flare in a patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options. Colchicine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are both effective first-line treatments, but NSAIDs should be used with caution in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease. If NSAIDs are used, proton-pump cover should be provided for gastric protection. Allopurinol should not be started until after the acute attack has been resolved, and paracetamol may be used as an adjunct for pain relief but would not treat the underlying cause of pain. Prednisolone may be used in patients unable to tolerate NSAIDs or colchicine, but there is no contraindication to a trial of oral colchicine in this patient. Overall, the choice of treatment should be individualized based on the patient’s medical history and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old homemaker with long-standing psoriasis visits her GP with worsening joint pains over the past six months. Upon examination, the GP suspects potential psoriatic arthropathy and refers the patient to a rheumatologist. What is a severe manifestation of psoriatic arthropathy?
Your Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Psoriatic Arthritis: Common Presentations and Misconceptions
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis. While it can present in various ways, there are some common misconceptions about its symptoms. Here are some clarifications:
1. Arthritis mutilans is a severe form of psoriatic arthritis, not a separate condition.
2. Psoriatic arthritis can have a rheumatoid-like presentation, but not an osteoarthritis-like one.
3. The most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis is distal interphalangeal joint involvement, not proximal.
4. Psoriatic spondylitis is a type of psoriatic arthritis that affects the spine, not ankylosing spondylitis.
5. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is a common presentation of psoriatic arthritis, not symmetrical oligoarthritis.
Understanding these presentations can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment of psoriatic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with a 12-year history of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted with a ‘flare’. She is a familiar patient to the ward and has previously been prescribed methotrexate, gold and sulphasalazine. The last two medications were effective for the first two years but then became less helpful even at higher doses. She is currently taking oral steroids.
On examination: there is active synovitis in eight small joints of the hands and the left wrist.
What is the most appropriate next course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Maintain on steroids and add a bisphosphonate
Correct Answer: Enrol in biological therapy programme
Explanation:Treatment Options for Severe Rheumatoid Arthritis
Severe rheumatoid arthritis can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when conventional disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief. In such cases, biological therapies may be recommended. Here are some treatment options for severe rheumatoid arthritis:
Enrol in Biological Therapy Programme
Patients with highly active disease despite trying three previous agents for a therapeutic treatment duration may be candidates for biological treatments. TNF-alpha inhibitors and anti-CD20 are examples of biological treatments that are routinely used in the UK.Maintain on Steroids and Add a Bisphosphonate
Short-term treatment with glucocorticoids may be offered to manage flares in people with recent-onset or established disease. However, long-term treatment with glucocorticoids should only be continued when the long-term complications of glucocorticoid therapy have been fully discussed and all other treatment options have been offered.Commence Leflunomide
Severe disease that has not responded to intensive therapy with a combination of conventional DMARDs should be treated with biological agents. Leflunomide is one of the DMARDs that can be used in combination therapy.Use Methotrexate/Leflunomide Combination
Patients who have not responded to intensive DMARD therapy may be prescribed a biological agent, as per NICE guidelines. Methotrexate and leflunomide are two DMARDs that can be used in combination therapy.Avoid Commencing Penicillamine
DMARD monotherapy is only recommended if combination DMARD therapy is not appropriate. Patients without contraindications to combination therapy should not be prescribed penicillamine. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits the Rheumatology Clinic seeking modification of her DMARDs for the treatment of her rheumatoid arthritis. She is informed that she will require frequent liver checks and eye exams due to the potential side-effects of these medications. What is the most probable combination of treatment she will receive for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate plus hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:Medication Combinations for Treating Rheumatoid Arthritis
When treating rheumatoid arthritis, the first-line medication is a DMARD monotherapy with methotrexate. Short-term steroids may also be used in combination with DMARD monotherapy to induce remission. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used, but patients should be closely monitored for visual changes as retinopathy and corneal deposits are common side effects.
Etanercept is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, and methotrexate should not be given in combination with a TNF-alpha inhibitor like etanercept. Methotrexate plus sulfasalazine is an appropriate medication combination for treating rheumatoid arthritis, but regular eye checks are not required as neither medication affects vision.
If a patient has failed treatment with methotrexate, sulfasalazine plus hydroxychloroquine may be a regimen to consider trialling. However, it is important to note that new-onset rheumatoid arthritis should be treated with a DMARD monotherapy first line, with the addition of another DMARD like methotrexate as the first-line option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old construction worker complains of worsening pain in his feet over the past two weeks, describing it as feeling like he is walking on gravel. He also reports experiencing lower back pain.
The patient recently returned from a trip to Spain two months ago and recalls having a brief episode of urethral discharge, but did not seek medical attention for it.
What is a possible diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive Arthritis
Reactive arthritis is a medical condition that is characterized by a combination of symptoms including seronegative arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The condition is often associated with sacroiliitis and painful feet, which reflects plantar fasciitis. Reactive arthritis is known to occur after gastrointestinal infections with Shigella or Salmonella, as well as following non-specific urethritis.
Gonococcal arthritis, on the other hand, tends to occur in patients who are systemically unwell and have features of septic arthritis. It is important to note that reactive arthritis is not contagious and cannot be spread from one person to another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing a red rash on her face for 6-12 months and is now having joint pain in multiple areas. She also reports having chest pain that feels like it's coming from the lining of her lungs. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 155/92 mmHg, and she has a butterfly-shaped rash on her face.
The following tests were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 119 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
- White cell count (WCC): 4.2 Ă— 109/l (normal range: 4-11 Ă— 109/l)
- Platelets: 192 Ă— 109/l (normal range: 150-400 Ă— 109/l)
- Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine: 160 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr (normal range: 0-10mm in the 1st hour)
- Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): positive
- Urine: blood and protein present
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Differentiating Systemic Lupus Erythematosus from Other Connective Tissue Diseases
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can present with a variety of symptoms. Patients may experience pleuritic chest pain, arthralgia, and a typical rash, which are all indicative of SLE. Anti-nuclear antibodies are typically positive, although they are not specific to lupus. Treatment for SLE involves glucocorticoids as the mainstay, with second-line agents including cyclophosphamide, hydroxychloroquine, and azathioprine. BLyS inhibitors are also showing promise in clinical trials.
Other connective tissue diseases, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and mixed connective tissue disease, have distinct features that differentiate them from SLE. GPA is a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs, with palpable purpura on the extremities. Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with joint pain and swelling, but without a butterfly rash or hypertension. Systemic sclerosis affects the skin on the face, forearms, and lower legs, with Raynaud’s, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Mixed connective tissue disease has features of SLE, but without any other connective tissue disease symptoms.
It is important to differentiate between these diseases to provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a 70-year-old woman who presents with bilateral shoulder pain and stiffness, fatigue, weight loss, and elevated ESR levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)
Explanation:Differentiating between Rheumatic Diseases: A Case Study
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common inflammatory rheumatic disease in the elderly population, presenting as pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips. In contrast, polymyositis is an autoimmune connective tissue disease that results in proximal muscle weakness. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells, causing bone pain, renal failure, and anaemia. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory, symmetrical polyarthropathy that tends to cause joint stiffness and pain within the small joints, as well as causing fatigue. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative arthritis that commonly affects the knee, hip, spine, and hands.
In this case study, the patient presented with shoulder stiffness, fatigue, low-grade fever, and anaemia. A diagnosis of PMR was made clinically and with the aid of a raised ESR. Treatment is with oral prednisolone, which should be reduced gradually once symptoms are controlled to avoid the risks of chronic steroid use.
It is important to differentiate between these rheumatic diseases as they have different underlying causes, presentations, and treatments. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations are necessary for accurate diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a red, swollen, and hot great left toe. He denies any injury to the toe and has a medical history of hypertension, which is being treated with a single medication. The doctor suspects acute gout as the diagnosis.
What medication is most likely responsible for triggering the acute gout?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Understanding Gout and its Causes: A Review of Medications and Differential Diagnosis
Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the joint. This article reviews the causes of gout, which can be primary or secondary hyperuricaemia. Secondary hyperuricaemia can be caused by overproduction or decreased renal excretion, including the use of thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide. The differential diagnosis for an acute red, hot swollen joint includes septic arthritis, gout, pseudogout, inflammatory monoarthritis, and post-traumatic causes. Treatment for gout includes medications for chronic and acute gout, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, colchicine, or prednisolone. This article also discusses the effects of medications like colchicine, propranolol, lisinopril, and moxonidine on gout and other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the hospital with recent-onset renal impairment after experiencing sinusitis. Upon chest X-ray, multiple cavitating lung lesions are discovered. The medical team suspects granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). What is the most effective blood test to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their Associated Diseases
Autoantibodies are antibodies produced by the immune system that mistakenly target and attack the body’s own tissues. Here are some common autoantibodies and the diseases they are associated with:
1. c-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody): GPA, a necrotising small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects the kidneys and lungs.
2. Antimitochondrial antibody: primary biliary cholangitis.
3. Anti Glomerular basement membrane antibody: Goodpasture’s syndrome, a rare autoimmune disease that affects the lungs and kidneys.
4. p-ANCA (perinuclear ANCA): Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (previously known as Churg–Strauss syndrome), a rare autoimmune disease that affects the blood vessels.
5. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody: myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue.
Understanding the association between autoantibodies and their associated diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old farmer presents to the clinic with muscle pain in his lower back, calves and neck. He takes regular paracetamol but this has not helped his symptoms. For the past four weeks, he has become increasingly agitated and reports that he can no longer sleep for more than a few hours because the pain wakes him up. He feels increasingly lethargic and helpless. He also reports that as a result of his pain, he feels that his memory has worsened and he reports a low mood. A Kessler Psychological Distress Scale screening questionnaire is performed and he has a score of 30. His laboratory blood tests are unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Pharmacological Treatments for Fibromyalgia Pain: Choosing the Right Option
Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that can be challenging to manage. Duloxetine, pregabalin, and tramadol are all appropriate pharmacological treatments for severe pain disturbance in fibromyalgia. However, the choice of which treatment to use depends on the patient’s co-morbidities, clinical presentation, and patient preference.
In this case, the patient has comorbid low mood and possible depression, making duloxetine a reasonable choice. Venlafaxine, another serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, may be theoretically useful, but there is insufficient evidence for its use. Codeine and paracetamol have been shown to be ineffective in treating fibromyalgia pain.
While psychotherapy may be considered for patients with pain-related depression and adverse coping mechanisms, it is not the correct answer for this patient. Overall, choosing the right pharmacological treatment for fibromyalgia pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A patient in their mid-40s wakes up experiencing severe pain, redness, and swelling at the base of their big toe.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:NSAIDs for Gout Treatment
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to treat acute attacks of gout. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the most frequently prescribed due to its potent anti-inflammatory properties. However, it is important to note that aspirin and aspirin-containing products should be avoided during acute gout attacks as they can actually trigger or worsen the condition. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication for gout, especially during an acute attack. Proper use of NSAIDs can help alleviate the pain and inflammation associated with gout, improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and night sweats. He reported feeling generally down. Upon further questioning, he mentioned experiencing stiffness and pain in his shoulders and neck, particularly in the morning and lasting for about half an hour.
What would be the most appropriate investigation to perform in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnosis of Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition that causes pain and stiffness in proximal muscle groups, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. While other potential diagnoses such as infections or neoplasia should be considered, PMR is typically characterised by raised levels of inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Treatment with corticosteroids usually results in rapid improvement, and lack of response to steroids may indicate a need to re-evaluate the diagnosis. Autoantibody screening and nerve conduction velocity tests are not helpful in diagnosing PMR, while muscle biopsy may be performed to exclude polymyositis. A temporal artery biopsy may be considered if the patient has symptoms of giant cell arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with widespread pain for the past month. The pain radiates all over but is worse in her shoulders, neck and lower back. It tends to be worse in the mornings and in cold weather. She reports that she is not able to sleep and feels lethargic during the day. Her partner reports that she has been more forgetful recently. She has otherwise been well without recent illnesses. On examination, there is clear tenderness to the affected areas. There are no other significant findings.
Which of the following is an appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aerobic exercise
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia Patients
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that causes widespread pain, increased sensitivity to pain, and psychological symptoms. Treatment options can be divided into generic and patient-focused treatments. Aerobic exercise is a first-line, generic treatment that has been shown to improve symptoms of pain and physical function. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a patient-focused treatment that may be considered for patients with pain-related depression, anxiety, catastrophizing, and/or passive or active coping strategies. Anaerobic exercise should be avoided as it may increase inflammation and oxidative stress. Duloxetine and pregabalin are pharmacotherapy options for patients with severe pain or sleep disturbance, but only after non-pharmacological treatments have failed. It is important to tailor treatment to each patient’s individual needs.
Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia Patients
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening back pain and stiffness over the past 5 months. He denies experiencing leg pain, loss of bladder or bowel control, or weakness in his lower extremities. The patient reports that the stiffness in his back tends to improve throughout the day. Upon examination, the physician notes mild tenderness directly over the lumbar spine and decreased range of motion with hip flexion. The patient has normal muscle strength in his lower extremities and intact sensation. X-ray results reveal sacroiliitis, vertebral squaring, and a ‘bamboo spine’. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive human leukocyte antigen HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Ankylosing Spondylitis, SLE, and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms. However, certain laboratory tests can help differentiate between them.
One such test is the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27, which is associated with ankylosing spondylitis. This autoimmune disorder primarily affects men and is characterized by back stiffness that improves throughout the day, sacroiliitis, and a bamboo spine on radiography.
On the other hand, positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Patients with SLE may experience joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement.
Lastly, positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, and can lead to joint deformities if left untreated.
In summary, understanding the specific laboratory tests associated with different autoimmune disorders can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and extensor surface of his lower limbs. He has dipstick haematuria.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Man with Purpura and Haematuria
The patient in question presents with a purpuric rash on the back, buttocks, and extensor surfaces of the lower limbs, as well as haematuria. The following is a differential diagnosis of possible conditions that could be causing these symptoms.
Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
The clinical presentation is entirely typical of HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria. It should be noted that platelet numbers are usually normal or raised in HSP, so thrombocytopaenia is not expected.Haemophilia A
This condition is not likely as it results in joint and muscle bleeding, which is not present in this case. Additionally, haemophilia would not cause haematuria.Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)
While purpura is a symptom of ITP, a reduced platelet count is typically present. Without a discussion of platelet levels, it is difficult to justify a diagnosis of ITP. Additionally, ITP would not result in haematuria.Leukaemia
If acute leukaemia were causing the symptoms, thrombocytopaenia might be expected. However, the clinical presentation is more compatible with HSP, and thrombocytopaenia alone would not result in haematuria.Thalassaemia trait
There is no indication in the history to suggest this condition, and it would not result in purpura. Thalassaemia trait is typically asymptomatic.In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with HSP, a vasculitic process that results in a purpuric rash and haematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with complaints of stiffness and pain in both shoulders. He has experienced a weight loss of one stone over the past eight weeks and reports feeling lethargic with a decreased appetite. Upon investigation, a positive rheumatoid factor, normochromic normocytic anaemia, and a significantly elevated ESR (100 mm/hr) were found. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease that causes pain and stiffness in the shoulder and pelvic girdle muscles, along with systemic symptoms such as fever and weight loss. It is often associated with giant cell arthritis. Diagnosis can be difficult, but response to a moderate dose of steroids is a useful indicator. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are not recommended. Other inflammatory conditions should be excluded, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, polymyositis, and polyarteritis nodosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a swollen and painful first metatarsophalangeal joint that has been bothering him for a week. He reports that the pain became unbearable last night. The patient denies any fever or toe injuries. Upon examination, the joint appears red, swollen, and warm to touch. The patient has a history of gout, peptic ulcer, and is currently taking allopurinol 300 mg once a day for gout prophylaxis. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol and start oral colchicine
Explanation:Managing Gout Attacks in Patients on Allopurinol: Options and Considerations
When a patient on allopurinol develops a gout attack, it is important to manage the acute inflammation while continuing the prophylactic treatment. Here are some options and considerations:
– Continue allopurinol and start oral colchicine: Colchicine can be used for acute treatment, but allopurinol should not be stopped.
– Increase allopurinol dose: The dose may need to be increased up to 600 mg for better prophylaxis, but not during an acute attack.
– Stop allopurinol and recommence two weeks after acute inflammation settled: Allopurinol should not be stopped during an attack. It should be continued at the same dose.
– Stop allopurinol and start non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): NSAIDs can control acute pain, but not appropriate for patients with a history of peptic ulcer.
– Stop allopurinol and recommence at a higher dose after acute inflammation has settled: Allopurinol should not be stopped during an attack. The dose can be reviewed and increased after the attack has settled down.In summary, managing gout attacks in patients on allopurinol requires a careful balance between acute treatment and prophylaxis. Each option should be considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A woman in her 20s starts experiencing consistent lower back pain and stiffness that improves with physical activity. As she enters her 30s, she develops arthritis in her hips and shoulders, and by her 40s, she notices reduced mobility in her lumbar spine. She has no significant medical issues. What condition is most commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:The symptoms described suggest a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis, a chronic form of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that primarily affects the axial skeleton. Diagnosis is made using the modified New York criteria, which includes clinical and radiological criteria. HLA-B27 and sacroiliitis on MRI play a major role in the recently proposed ASAS diagnostic algorithm. Radiographic sacroiliitis is required for eligibility for anti-TNF treatment. Other conditions, such as pseudogout, Lyme disease, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis, are unlikely diagnoses. Timely diagnosis requires a high index of suspicion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of pain and swelling in her fingers and wrists. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few months, and she is having difficulty opening jars at home. She reports that her fingers are stiff when she wakes up but gradually loosen throughout the morning.
Upon examination, the GP notes symmetrical swelling of the MCP and PIP joints, which are tender to pressure and have stress pain on passive movement. The patient also has swan neck and boutonnière deformities of the fingers. The GP diagnoses the patient with rheumatoid arthritis and refers her to a rheumatologist. The GP prescribes anti-inflammatory medications and advises the patient to rest her fingers and wrists.
What is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in a patient who is 63 years old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory polyarthropathy that primarily affects small joints, causing symmetrical joint tenderness and swelling. It is an autoimmune disease with genetic and environmental risk factors. RA can result in marked physical disability, and extra-articular features are more common in rheumatoid factor-positive patients with long-standing disease. Ocular manifestations of RA include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome, which is the most common ocular extra-articular manifestation. Scleromalacia perforans, a thinning of the sclera, is associated with RA but presents less often than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Episcleritis and scleritis are also associated with RA but are less common than keratoconjunctivitis sicca. Orbital apex syndrome may involve the optic nerve, causing a palsy, but this is very rare. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these ocular manifestations and monitor patients with RA for any changes in their vision or eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been complaining of severe anterior knee pain for a few days. On examination, you notice that the left knee is warm and there is swelling on the patella. There is local pain on patellar pressure and pain with knee flexion.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 185 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Knee aspirate: Gram stain negative for bacteria; fluid contains occasional white cells; culture is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre–patellar bursitis
Explanation:Differentiating Knee Conditions: A Case-Based Approach
A patient presents with a red, tender, and inflamed knee. The differential diagnosis includes prepatellar bursitis, osteoarthritis, localised cellulitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.
prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, carpet layer’s knee, or nun’s knee, is often caused by repetitive knee trauma. Treatment involves non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents and local corticosteroid injection. Septic bursitis requires appropriate antibiotic cover and drainage.
Osteoarthritis is a diagnosis of exclusion and does not typically cause a red, tender, inflamed knee. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.
Localised cellulitis may result in erythema but is unlikely to cause knee swelling. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.
Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely to present in men of this age and typically affects small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles.
Gout can be diagnosed through the presence of negatively birefringent crystals seen on joint microscopy.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to differentiate between these knee conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and started on methotrexate. After six months, there was no improvement. He was switched to a combination of methotrexate and sulfasalazine, but there was still no improvement after a similar period of therapy.
What is the most effective treatment option at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infliximab plus methotrexate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Rheumatoid Disease: A Comparison of Biological Therapies and DMARDs
Rheumatoid disease can be a debilitating condition that requires careful management. When standard disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) fail to provide relief, biological therapies may be prescribed. Infliximab, adalimumab, and etanercept are some of the contemporary biological therapies available. Infliximab, in particular, is often co-prescribed with methotrexate, although it may cause a reversible lupus-like syndrome and tuberculosis reactivation.
Combining gold, leflunomide, and methotrexate is unlikely to help patients who have already failed DMARD therapy. Azathioprine may be considered in severe cases, but biological therapy is the preferred treatment when intensive DMARD therapy fails. The combination of gold and penicillamine is a viable option for patients who meet the criteria for biological therapy, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. DMARD monotherapy, such as leflunomide, is only recommended when dual therapy is contraindicated.
In summary, the choice of treatment for rheumatoid disease depends on the severity of the condition and the patient’s response to previous therapies. Biological therapies may offer relief for patients who have failed DMARD therapy, but careful monitoring for potential side effects is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painful and swollen left knee that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He is running a fever. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, which was recently diagnosed and is being treated with NSAIDs and low-dose oral corticosteroids. He reports that he visited his general practitioner 5 days ago for a painful right ear, and was prescribed antibiotics for an ear infection. Upon examination, the left knee is swollen, red, tender, and slightly flexed, leading to a diagnosis of septic arthritis. What is the most likely causative organism in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Bacterial Causes of Septic Arthritis
Septic arthritis can be caused by a variety of bacterial organisms. Among them, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common aetiological agent in Europe and the United States. Streptococcus pyogenes is the next most commonly isolated bacteria, often associated with autoimmune diseases, chronic skin infections, and trauma. Gram-negative bacilli, such as Escherichia coli, account for approximately 10-20% of cases, with a higher prevalence in patients with a history of intravenous drug abuse, extremes of age, or immunocompromised status. Historically, Haemophilus influenzae, S. aureus, and group A streptococci were the most common causes of infectious arthritis in children younger than 2 years, but the overall incidence of H. influenzae is decreasing due to vaccination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a less common cause, may affect children, the elderly, intravenous drug users, and immunocompromised patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful left hip and groin and is struggling to weight-bear. She completed therapy for acute myeloblastic leukaemia some six months earlier.
On examination, she walks with a limp and there is limitation of hip flexion, internal and external rotation.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 191 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 12 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
The left hip X-ray shows joint sclerosis with collapse of the femoral head.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritis Types: Avascular Necrosis, Gout, Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, and Septic Arthritis
Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. However, there are different types of arthritis, each with its own causes, symptoms, and treatments. Here are some key points to differentiate between avascular necrosis, gout, osteoarthritis, pseudogout, and septic arthritis:
Avascular necrosis is a condition where the bone tissue dies due to a lack of blood supply. It can be caused by corticosteroid use, malignancy, or trauma. Femoral head collapse is a classic radiographic change in avascular necrosis.
Gout is a type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints, such as the big toe, ankle, or knee. It is caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint, leading to sudden attacks of pain, redness, and swelling.
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs when the cartilage that cushions the joints wears down over time. It is more common in older adults and can affect any joint, but femoral head collapse does not occur in osteoarthritis.
Pseudogout is another type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints. It is caused by the buildup of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joint, leading to similar symptoms as gout.
Septic arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint that can cause severe pain, swelling, and fever. It is a medical emergency and requires prompt treatment with antibiotics. While septic arthritis should always be considered in a monoarthritis, it is less likely in cases where there are classic radiographic changes of avascular necrosis, risk factors, and a normal CRP without history of fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She reports stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She experiences constant aching in her arms and shoulders and jaw pain when chewing. She has also lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 84 beats/min, and BP is 125/80 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood results. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal arthritis: Symptoms and Importance of Diagnosis
Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is a condition that may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as proximal muscle pain, stiffness, or arthritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. It is also common for the condition to have systemic involvement, including fever, malaise, and weight loss. One of the key indicators of this condition is a very high ESR.
The main reason for diagnosing and treating polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arthritis is to prevent blindness. This condition can cause inflammation in the blood vessels that supply the eyes, leading to vision loss. Therefore, early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old gardener comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain when kneeling on her right knee for the past month. She denies any fevers and is generally in good health. During the examination of her right knee, the doctor notices a slightly tender swelling in front of the patella that feels fluctuant. Although the knee is not red, it is warm to the touch, and the patient experiences some discomfort when flexing it. What are the probable results of joint aspiration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clear/milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture
Explanation:Diagnosing Prepatellar Bursitis: Understanding Joint Aspirate Results
Prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, is a common condition caused by inflammation of the prepatellar bursa. This can result from repetitive microtrauma, such as prolonged kneeling. Patients typically present with localised, mildly tender swelling over the patella, which can be warm but not hot. Aspiration of the aseptic bursa will reveal a clear and/or milky aspirate that has negative Gram staining and normal microscopy.
When examining joint aspirate results, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses. Gram-positive cocci, for example, would be grown in the case of Staphylococcus aureus infection, a common cause of septic bursitis. However, in the absence of fever, erythema, and reduced range of motion, septic arthritis is unlikely. Similarly, needle-shaped crystals with strong negative birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in gout, but this condition typically presents with acute pain, redness, and inflammation.
Rhomboid-shaped crystals with weak positive birefringence on polarised light microscopy are seen in pseudogout, which can affect the knee. However, this condition typically affects the entire knee joint and is more common in the elderly.
In summary, a clear or milky joint aspirate with normal microscopy and culture is consistent with prepatellar bursitis. Other potential diagnoses should be considered based on the patient’s history and examination findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of back pain and painful urination. He had visited his GP two days earlier for eye problems. The patient's mother has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and he also reported experiencing pain in his ankle. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is a type of arthropathy that is seronegative and has a positive HLA-B27. It typically presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, with the knee and sacroiliac joints being the most commonly affected. Enthesitis and mucocutaneous lesions may also be present. Reactive arthritis is often triggered by a previous infection, such as Salmonella, Campylobacter, or Shigella.
Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic nail disease and can cause sausage-shaped digits, with the distal interphalangeal joints being the most commonly affected.
Osteoarthritis primarily affects articular cartilage, with the knee joint being the most commonly affected. It typically occurs after the age of 50 and is characterized by minimal morning stiffness, bony tenderness, bony enlargement, and crepitus on active motion. Systemic manifestations are not present in osteoarthritis, and it is more common in females, those who have experienced joint trauma, and those who are obese.
Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the axial skeleton and is more common in men. It is characterized by chronic lower back pain, morning stiffness lasting at least 1 hour, and improvement with exercise. Extra-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis include anterior uveitis, aortic insufficiency, enthesitis, and restrictive lung disease.
Enteropathic arthropathy is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can become severe during flares of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old carpenter presents to the general practitioner (GP) with an acutely swollen and painful left thumb. The pain came on rapidly over the course of 24 hours, without history of trauma or injury. The patient describes the thumb as being extremely painful and particularly tender to touch. The patient is a type 2 diabetic, which is well controlled with metformin. He does not smoke, but drinks around ten pints of beer at weekends.
Examination reveals a swelling, erythema and tenderness over the first metacarpophalangeal joint. The clinician suspects a possible crystal arthropathy.
With regard to gout, which of the following statements is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia
Explanation:Mythbusting Gout: Clarifying Common Misconceptions
Gout is a painful and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about gout, and the truth behind them:
1. Gout may be seen in patients with chronic haemolytic anaemia.
2. Gout may occur in those with elevated urate levels (although levels may be normal during an acute attack) such as those with haemolytic anaemia.
3. Gout only affects the first metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.
4. Gout most commonly affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. However, it is not the only joint affected.
5. Allopurinol is effective in the treatment of acute gout.
6. Acute gout is treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), colchicine or prednisolone, but not allopurinol. Allopurinol is effective in the prevention of gout because it reduces serum urate levels by blocking urate production (xanthine oxidase inhibition).
7. A diagnosis of gout is made if there are positively birefringent crystals in the joint aspirate.
8. Gout is an inflammatory arthritis that occurs as a result of deposition of negatively birefringent urate crystals in the joint.
9. All cases of acute gout have an elevated serum urate.
10. Although a raised serum urate can be used to support the diagnosis, many will not be raised. Similarly, if a patient has a raised serum urate, they do not automatically have the clinical picture of gout.In conclusion, it is important to dispel these common myths about gout in order to properly diagnose and treat this painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has been scheduled for a left total knee replacement in one month’s time. She has a past medical history significant for rheumatoid arthritis (RA), for which she takes methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine.
Which of the following investigations would be most important before the patient’s operation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical spine X-rays
Explanation:The Importance of Pre-Operative Testing for a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) require special considerations before undergoing elective surgery. One important test to consider is a cervical spine X-ray, as RA can lead to subluxation and instability in the cervical spine. This is particularly important for patients who will be intubated during surgery, as neck manipulation can exacerbate any underlying instability.
Another important consideration for RA patients is regular eye exams to test for retinal toxicity, especially for those taking hydroxychloroquine as part of their treatment regimen. However, this is not necessarily required before elective surgery.
While rheumatoid factor levels and anti-citrullinated protein antibody levels can be elevated in RA patients, they are not the most important tests to consider before surgery. Instead, a plain film of the cervical spine should be the primary investigation for patients with a history of RA.
Overall, pre-operative testing for RA patients should be tailored to their specific needs and potential risks during surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old semi-professional rugby player presents with a red, hot, swollen left knee. There has been no history of trauma. He recently had a negative sexual health check and has not had any new partners since. Upon examination, the left knee is unable to fully extend and there is a large effusion. The clinical suspicion is septic arthritis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Septic Arthritis: Causes and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a rheumatological emergency that requires urgent attention. A red, hot, swollen joint may indicate septic arthritis, which can be caused by a variety of pathogens. The most common pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus, and joint destruction can occur within 24 hours if left untreated. It is important to consider and treat septic arthritis urgently or until firmly excluded by joint aspiration. The empirical antibiotic regime should be consulted in local health authority guidelines or with a microbiologist. Intravenous drugs should be used for 2 weeks and a total course of 6 weeks completed. Other pathogens that can cause septic arthritis include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Streptococcus viridans, and Salmonella typhi. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when determining the cause of septic arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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