00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man presents to the hospital with joint pain, fatigue, unintentional weight...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the hospital with joint pain, fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and diffuse abdominal pain. He is also complaining of polyuria and polydipsia. He is somewhat of a loner, who lives alone and has never visited a doctor before. He is an orphan who does not know anything about his biological parents.

      Upon examination, tenderness is noticed in the right upper quadrant, and the presence of ascites on percussion. Additionally, this man's skin has a grey-discoloration. He is diagnosed with cirrhosis and chronic pancreatitis resulting in type 1 diabetes mellitus. An investigation is launched to determine the cause of his condition.

      What is the most probable cause of the patient's cirrhosis and chronic pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Hereditary haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis can be attributed to genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and hereditary haemochromatosis. In the case of a man with a slate-grey skin tone, it was discovered that he had developed cirrhosis due to untreated hereditary haemochromatosis. Despite being a hereditary condition, the man was never diagnosed earlier as he was an orphan and a recluse. Excessive alcohol consumption can also lead to cirrhosis and pancreatitis, but it would not explain the grey skin. Chronic hepatitis B infection is another cause of cirrhosis, but it would not be the reason for the pancreatitis.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which statement about peristalsis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about peristalsis is true?

      Your Answer: Secondary peristalsis occurs when there is no food bolus in the oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food bolus through the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Peristalsis: The Movement of Food Through the Digestive System

      Peristalsis is the process by which food is moved through the digestive system. Circular smooth muscle contracts behind the food bolus, while longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food through the oesophagus. Primary peristalsis spontaneously moves the food from the oesophagus into the stomach, taking about 9 seconds. Secondary peristalsis occurs when food does not enter the stomach, and stretch receptors are stimulated to cause peristalsis.

      In the small intestine, peristalsis waves slow to a few seconds and cause a mixture of chyme. In the colon, three main types of peristaltic activity are recognised. Segmentation contractions are localised contractions in which the bolus is subjected to local forces to maximise mucosal absorption. Antiperistaltic contractions towards the ileum are localised reverse peristaltic waves to slow entry into the colon and maximise absorption. Mass movements are migratory peristaltic waves along the entire colon to empty the organ prior to the next ingestion of a food bolus.

      Overall, peristalsis is a crucial process in the digestive system that ensures food is moved efficiently through the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old woman comes in with a femoral hernia. What structure makes up...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes in with a femoral hernia. What structure makes up the lateral boundary of the femoral canal?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Correct Answer: Femoral vein

      Explanation:

      The purpose of the canal is to facilitate the natural expansion of the femoral vein located on its side.

      Understanding the Femoral Canal

      The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.

      The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      229.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain and haematemesis. The patient reports ongoing epigastric pain over the past few months which was worse after eating meals. She had a similar but milder episode about 4 years ago, which was treated with omeprazole. Past medical history includes osteoarthritis for which she takes ibuprofen.

      Clinical observations reveal a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/78 mmHg, respiratory rate of 25/min, oxygen saturations of 98% on air and a temperature of 37.5ºC. On examination, the patient has severe epigastric tenderness on palpation.

      What is the first-line treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Interventional angiography with transarterial embolization

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic intervention

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient is a perforated peptic ulcer, which may have been caused by their use of ibuprofen. The recommended first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines is endoscopic intervention, which can confirm the diagnosis and stop the bleeding. This involves injecting adrenaline into the bleeding site and using cautery and/or clip application. Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s symptoms suggest a perforated peptic ulcer rather than peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori. IV proton-pump inhibitor infusion may be considered later, but the patient requires immediate management with endoscopic intervention.

      Managing Acute Bleeding in Peptic Ulcer Disease

      Peptic ulcer disease is a condition that can lead to acute bleeding, which is the most common complication of the disease. In fact, bleeding accounts for about three-quarters of all problems associated with peptic ulcer disease. The gastroduodenal artery is often the source of significant gastrointestinal bleeding in patients with this condition. The most common symptom of acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease is haematemesis, but patients may also experience melaena, hypotension, and tachycardia.

      When managing acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease, an ABC approach should be taken, as with any upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. Intravenous proton pump inhibitors are the first-line treatment, and endoscopic intervention is typically the preferred approach. However, if endoscopic intervention fails (which occurs in approximately 10% of patients), urgent interventional angiography with transarterial embolization or surgery may be necessary. By following these management strategies, healthcare providers can effectively address acute bleeding in patients with peptic ulcer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea. During colonoscopy, a diffusely red and friable mucosa was observed in the rectum and sigmoid colon, while the mucosa was normal in the proximal region. Over time, the disease progressed to involve most of the colon, except for the ileum. After several years, a colonic biopsy revealed high grade epithelial dysplasia. What was the probable initial diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis advances from the distal to proximal regions in a progressive manner, leading to dysplastic changes over time. These endoscopic observations necessitate frequent endoscopic monitoring, and if a colonic mass is present, a pancproctocolectomy is typically recommended.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old taxi driver presents with a six-month history of constipation and colicky...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old taxi driver presents with a six-month history of constipation and colicky suprapubic pain that varies in intensity without any apparent pattern. He has experienced occasional episodes of diarrhoea and fever. Although he drinks little alcohol and does not smoke, he consumes large amounts of coffee. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic region, but no other abnormalities are detected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding

      Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. While neoplasia may be a possible cause, diverticular disease is more common. To confirm the presence of diverticula, a barium enema should be performed, and a sigmoidoscopy should be done to rule out a tumor. Cystitis is rare in men and would present with symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, and dysuria. Inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and often presents with weight loss, fever, malaise, and potentially arthralgia. However, the lack of systemic symptoms suggests an alternative diagnosis. Ulcerative colitis often causes rectal bleeding, while Crohn’s disease can cause rectal bleeding and inflammation from the mouth to anus. It is more commonly diagnosed in patients before the age of 30. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with rectal bleeding to ensure appropriate management and treatment.

      Further Reading:
      Janes SE, Meagher A, Frizelle FA. Management of diverticulitis. BMJ. 2006;332:271-5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      89.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old female presents to her GP with a 3-month history of bloating....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to her GP with a 3-month history of bloating. She has tried excluding nightshades from her diet which provided some relief but her symptoms persist. Upon further questioning, she reports a lifelong feeling of incomplete bowel emptying after defecation. This symptom was previously investigated with endoscopy and biopsies, but no definitive diagnosis was made.

      Additionally, she reports the presence of mucus in her stool and intermittent abdominal pain. She has no significant medical history or regular medications, but does have a peanut allergy. Her mother has coeliac disease and her father has type 2 diabetes which is managed with insulin.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. To diagnose IBS, a patient must have experienced abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. A positive diagnosis of IBS is made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.

      It is important to enquire about red flag features such as rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS in 2008 to help healthcare professionals provide the best care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 49-year-old woman experiences jaundice and undergoes an ERCP. After 36 hours, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman experiences jaundice and undergoes an ERCP. After 36 hours, she develops a fever and rigors. What organism is most likely to be cultured from her blood sample?

      Your Answer: Enterobacter

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      A surgical emergency is indicated when Charcot’s triad is present. Patients require biliary decompression and administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The most frequently identified organism in cholangitis infections is E. coli, with enterobacter being a less common finding.

      Ascending Cholangitis: A Bacterial Infection of the Biliary Tree

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. The primary risk factor for this condition is gallstones. Patients with ascending cholangitis may experience Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Fever is the most common symptom, occurring in 90% of patients, followed by RUQ pain (70%) and jaundice (60%). In some cases, patients may also experience hypotension and confusion, which, when combined with the other three symptoms, makeup Reynolds’ pentad.

      In addition to the above symptoms, patients with ascending cholangitis may also have raised inflammatory markers. Ultrasound is typically the first-line investigation used to diagnose this condition. It is used to look for bile duct dilation and stones.

      The management of ascending cholangitis involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction. By understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with ascending cholangitis, healthcare providers can diagnose and treat this condition promptly, reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old female was admitted to the paediatric unit with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female was admitted to the paediatric unit with a history of anorexia nervosa and a body mass index of 16kg/m². Despite being uncooperative initially, she has shown improvement in her willingness to participate with the team. However, she now presents with complaints of abdominal pain and weakness. Upon blood testing, the following results were obtained:

      Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.5 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.6 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      What is the likely cause of the patient's abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Extended period of low calories and vitamins

      Correct Answer: Extended period of low calories then high carbohydrate intake

      Explanation:

      Refeeding syndrome can occur in patients who have experienced prolonged catabolism and then suddenly switch to carbohydrate metabolism. This can lead to a rapid uptake of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium into the cells, caused by spikes in insulin and glucose. Patients with low BMI and poor nutritional intake over a long period of time are at a higher risk. Taking vitamin tablets would not affect blood results, but excessive intake can result in hypervitaminosis. While exogenous insulin could also cause this syndrome, there is no indication that the patient has taken it. To reduce the risk of refeeding syndrome, some patients may be advised to follow initial high-fat, low-carbohydrate diets.

      Understanding Refeeding Syndrome

      Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when a person who has been starved for an extended period suddenly begins to eat again. This metabolic abnormality is caused by the abrupt switch from catabolism to carbohydrate metabolism. The consequences of refeeding syndrome include hypophosphataemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and abnormal fluid balance, which can lead to organ failure.

      To prevent refeeding syndrome, it is important to identify patients who are at high risk of developing the condition. According to guidelines produced by NICE in 2006, patients are considered high-risk if they have a BMI of less than 16 kg/m2, have experienced unintentional weight loss of more than 15% over 3-6 months, have had little nutritional intake for more than 10 days, or have hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia, or hypomagnesaemia prior to feeding (unless high).

      If a patient has two or more of the following risk factors, they are also considered high-risk: a BMI of less than 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, little nutritional intake for more than 5 days, or a history of alcohol abuse, drug therapy (including insulin, chemotherapy, diuretics, and antacids).

      To prevent refeeding syndrome, NICE recommends that patients who haven’t eaten for more than 5 days should be re-fed at no more than 50% of their requirements for the first 2 days. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent the potentially life-threatening consequences of refeeding syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      71.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of weight loss and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of weight loss and frequent loose, greasy stool for the past 6 months. He has a history of heavy alcohol use and has been admitted to the hospital multiple times for acute pancreatitis. Upon examination, the patient appears malnourished, and there is mild tenderness in the epigastric region. What hormone is likely to be significant in the investigation of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest pancreatic insufficiency, possibly due to chronic pancreatitis and alcohol misuse, as evidenced by weight loss and steatorrhea. To test pancreatic function, secretin stimulation test can be used as it increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells. Gastrin, on the other hand, increases HCL production, while incretin stimulates insulin secretion after food intake. Although insulin and glucagon are pancreatic hormones, they are not primarily involved in the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells, but rather in regulating glucose levels.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 44-year-old female presents to her GP with persistent gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old female presents to her GP with persistent gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and complains of a burning pain in her chest. She is referred to a gastroenterologist who performs an endoscopy with biopsy, leading to a diagnosis of Barrett's oesophagus. Explain the metaplasia that occurs in Barrett's oesophagus and its association with an increased risk of oesophageal cancer.

      Barrett's oesophagus is characterized by the metaplasia of the lower oesophageal epithelium from stratified squamous to simple columnar epithelium. This change from the normal stratified squamous epithelium increases the risk of oesophageal cancer by 30-fold and is often caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Your Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is characterized by the transformation of the lower oesophageal epithelial cells from stratified squamous to simple columnar epithelium. This change from the normal stratified squamous epithelium increases the risk of oesophageal cancer by 30 times and is often associated with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Metaplasia is a reversible process where differentiated cells transform into another cell type. This change may occur as an adaptive response to stress, where cells sensitive to adverse conditions are replaced by more resilient cell types. Metaplasia can be a normal physiological response, such as the transformation of cartilage into bone. The most common type of epithelial metaplasia involves the conversion of columnar cells to squamous cells, which can be caused by smoking or Schistosomiasis. In contrast, metaplasia from squamous to columnar cells occurs in Barrett’s esophagus. If the metaplastic stimulus is removed, the cells will revert to their original differentiation pattern. However, if the stimulus persists, dysplasia may develop. Although metaplasia is not directly carcinogenic, factors that predispose to metaplasia may induce malignant transformation. The pathogenesis of metaplasia involves the reprogramming of stem cells or undifferentiated mesenchymal cells present in connective tissue, which differentiate along a new pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis. Where is the appendix typically located in the body?

      Your Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      The majority of appendixes are located in the retrocaecal position. In cases where removal of a retrocaecal appendix proves challenging, mobilizing the right colon can greatly enhance accessibility.

      Appendix Anatomy and Location

      The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.

      McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions

      McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old male patient reports experiencing mild jaundice following periods of fasting or...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient reports experiencing mild jaundice following periods of fasting or exercise. Upon examination, his complete blood count and liver function tests appear normal. What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: No treatment required

      Explanation:

      Gilbert Syndrome

      Gilbert syndrome is a common genetic condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, resulting in intermittent jaundice without any underlying liver disease or hemolysis. The bilirubin levels are usually less than 6 mg/dL, but most patients exhibit levels of less than 3 mg/dL. The condition is characterized by daily and seasonal variations, and occasionally, bilirubin levels may be normal in some patients. Gilbert syndrome can be triggered by dehydration, fasting, menstrual periods, or stress, such as an intercurrent illness or vigorous exercise. Patients may experience vague abdominal discomfort and fatigue, but these episodes resolve spontaneously, and no treatment is required except supportive care.

      In recent years, Gilbert syndrome is believed to be inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there are reports of autosomal dominant inheritance. Despite the mild symptoms, it is essential to understand the condition’s triggers and symptoms to avoid unnecessary medical interventions. Patients with Gilbert syndrome can lead a normal life with proper care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old patient is scheduled for a right hemicolectomy to treat a caecum...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient is scheduled for a right hemicolectomy to treat a caecum carcinoma. Which of the following vessels will need to be high ligated for optimal oncological control?

      Your Answer: Ileo-colic artery

      Explanation:

      During a right hemicolectomy, the caecum is supplied by the ileo-colic artery which requires high ligation. It is generally recommended to preserve the middle colic artery when resecting a caecal lesion. It should be noted that the SMA does not directly supply the caecum.

      The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions

      The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.

      The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis and is referred...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis and is referred for urgent endoscopy, which reveals a 1.5cm ulcer in the first portion of the duodenum. He has a history of generalised anxiety disorder, but takes no prescription or over the counter medications and has no known drug allergies. Lately, he has been experiencing increased fatigue and bloating. On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and he has no fever. What is the most probable cause of this man's ulcer?

      Your Answer: Helicobacter pylori

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulceration can be caused by various factors, including Helicobacter pylori infection, regular use of NSAIDs, and Crohn’s disease. However, in this particular case, the most likely cause of the patient’s duodenal ulcer is Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium produces enzymes that neutralize stomach acid, allowing it to survive in the stomach and weaken the protective barrier of the stomach and duodenum. Contrary to popular belief, a high-stress job or spicy foods are not the cause of peptic ulcer disease, although they may exacerbate the symptoms. Regular use of NSAIDs is a strong risk factor for peptic ulcer disease, but the patient does not have any of the risk factors for NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease. Crohn’s disease may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, but it is less likely to be the cause of this man’s duodenal ulcer. Diagnosis of duodenal ulceration can be done through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      98.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 78-year-old man is assessed by his GP at his assisted living facility....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is assessed by his GP at his assisted living facility. The nursing staff reports that he has been experiencing frequent loose stools for the past few days and appears to be holding his stomach in pain. There are no signs of dehydration.

      The patient has a medical history of advanced vascular dementia and has had multiple bacterial chest infections recently. He is allergic to penicillin.

      The GP requests a stool sample, conducts blood tests, and prescribes oral vancomycin for the patient.

      What are the expected findings on stool microscopy?

      Your Answer: Gram-negative rods

      Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacilli

      Explanation:

      The causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis following recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use is Clostridium difficile, a gram-positive bacillus. This woman’s clinical presentation is consistent with C. diff infection, as she has experienced multiple episodes of loose stool with abdominal pain and has risk factors such as residing in a care home and recent antibiotic use for chest infections. While gram-negative comma-shaped bacteria like Vibrio cholerae can cause cholera, it is not found in the UK and is therefore unlikely to be the cause here. Gram-negative rods like Escherichia coli or Campylobacter jejuni can cause diarrhoeal illnesses, but are more associated with bloody diarrhoea and food poisoning, which do not match this woman’s symptoms. Gram-positive rods like Bacillus cereus can cause vomiting or diarrhoeal illness from contaminated food, but antibiotics are not beneficial and vancomycin would not be needed. Given the woman’s risk factors and symptoms, C. diff is the most likely cause.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the GP with a complaint of dull abdominal...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the GP with a complaint of dull abdominal pain that has been bothering her for the past 3 months. The pain is usually worse on the left side and sometimes eases after passing stool. She also reports having more diarrhea than usual. Last week, she had an episode of fresh red bleeding from the back passage. She denies any changes in her diet and has a past medical history of total abdominal hysterectomy, osteoarthritis, and basal cell carcinoma. On examination, her abdomen is mildly tender in the left iliac fossa, and rectal examination is normal. Her BMI is 27 kg/m², and she drinks a large whisky every evening. The GP urgently refers her for investigations, and she is diagnosed with diverticulosis. What feature of her history puts her at the greatest risk for diverticulosis?

      Your Answer: Low-fibre diet

      Explanation:

      Intestinal diverticula are more likely to develop in individuals with a low fibre diet. This patient’s diet appears to be lacking in fruits and vegetables, which increases their risk. While smoking has been linked to diverticulosis, there is no evidence to suggest that alcohol consumption is a risk factor. Although obesity is associated with an increased risk, this patient’s BMI is not in the obese range. Diverticulosis is more prevalent in men than women, and abdominal surgery is not a known risk factor.

      Diverticulosis is a common condition where multiple outpouchings occur in the bowel wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. It is more accurate to use the term diverticulosis when referring to the presence of diverticula, while diverticular disease is reserved for symptomatic patients. Risk factors for this condition include a low-fibre diet and increasing age. Symptoms of diverticulosis can include altered bowel habits and colicky left-sided abdominal pain. A high-fibre diet is often recommended to alleviate these symptoms.

      Diverticulitis is a complication of diverticulosis where one of the diverticula becomes infected. The typical presentation includes left iliac fossa pain and tenderness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and signs of infection such as pyrexia, raised WBC, and CRP. Mild attacks can be treated with oral antibiotics, while more severe episodes require hospitalization. Treatment involves nil by mouth, intravenous fluids, and intravenous antibiotics such as a cephalosporin and metronidazole. Complications of diverticulitis include abscess formation, peritonitis, obstruction, and perforation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Mr Stent is a 56-year-old man who has been scheduled for a laparoscopic...

    Incorrect

    • Mr Stent is a 56-year-old man who has been scheduled for a laparoscopic right hemicolectomy. However, he has several comorbidities that were discovered during the anaesthetic clinic. These include constipation, a latex allergy, coronary artery disease, moderately raised intracranial pressure due to a benign space occupying brain tumour, and a protein C deficiency. Considering his medical history, which of the following is an absolute contraindication to laparoscopic surgery?

      Your Answer: Thrombophilia

      Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Laparoscopic surgery should not be performed in patients with significantly raised intracranial pressure. It is important to understand the indications, complications, and contraindications of both laparoscopic and open surgery. Thrombophilia can be managed with anticoagulation, constipation is not a contraindication but may increase the risk of bowel perforation, a patient with a latex allergy should have all latex equipment removed and the theatre cleaned, and a patient with coronary artery disease may be at higher risk during anaesthesia but this will be assessed before surgery in the anaesthetics clinic.

      Risks and Complications of Laparoscopy

      Laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that involves the insertion of a small camera and instruments through small incisions in the abdomen. While it is generally considered safe, there are some risks and complications associated with the procedure.

      One of the general risks of laparoscopy is the use of anaesthetic, which can cause complications such as allergic reactions or breathing difficulties. Additionally, some patients may experience a vasovagal reaction, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate in response to abdominal distension.

      Another potential complication of laparoscopy is extra-peritoneal gas insufflation, which can cause surgical emphysema. This occurs when gas used to inflate the abdomen during the procedure leaks into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and discomfort.

      Injuries to the gastro-intestinal tract and blood vessels are also possible complications of laparoscopy. These can include damage to the common iliacs or deep inferior epigastric artery, which can cause bleeding and other serious complications.

      Overall, while laparoscopy is generally considered safe, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks and complications associated with the procedure. Patients should discuss these risks with their healthcare provider before undergoing laparoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of distension and pain on...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of distension and pain on the right side of her abdomen. She has a BMI of 30 kg/m² and has been diagnosed with type-2 diabetes mellitus. Upon conducting liver function tests, it was found that her Alanine Transaminase (ALT) levels were elevated. To investigate further, a liver ultrasound was ordered to examine the blood flow in and out of the liver. Which of the following blood vessels provides approximately one-third of the liver's blood supply?

      Your Answer: Hepatic artery proper

      Explanation:

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the chest about 10cm below the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the chest about 10cm below the left nipple. Upon arrival at the emergency department, an abdominal ultrasound scan reveals a significant amount of intraperitoneal bleeding. Which of the following statements regarding the probable location of the injury is false?

      Your Answer: The right kidney is closely related posteriorly.

      Correct Answer: The quadrate lobe is contained within the functional right lobe.

      Explanation:

      The most probable location of injury in the liver is the right lobe. Hence, option B is the correct answer as the quadrate lobe is considered as a functional part of the left lobe. The liver is mostly covered by peritoneum, except for the bare area at the back. The right lobe of the liver has the largest bare area and is also bigger than the left lobe.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      81.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old female with known type 1 diabetes and Graves' disease presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female with known type 1 diabetes and Graves' disease presents to the GP with worsening fatigue. She describes a history of headaches, shortness of breath and palpitations. Blood tests are taken and the results are displayed below.

      Haemoglobin 79 g/dl
      MCV 103 fl
      White cell count 4.2 mmol/l
      Platelets 220 mmol/l

      What is the most likely vitamin or mineral deficiency in this patient?

      Your Answer: Iron

      Correct Answer: B12

      Explanation:

      Anaemia is characterized by classic symptoms such as headaches, shortness of breath, and palpitations. The primary nutritional factors that can cause anaemia are deficiencies in B12, Folate, and Iron.

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.

      Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      150.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for angiography after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for angiography after experiencing a recent NSTEMI. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes a day since he was 15 years old and complains of foot pain when walking. During his stay, he develops worsening abdominal pain and bloody stools. After receiving fluids, a CT scan reveals pneumatosis and abnormal wall enhancement, indicating ischaemic colitis. Which part of the bowel is typically affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis commonly affects the splenic flexure, which is a watershed area for arterial supply from the superior and inferior mesenteric artery. The descending colon is supplied by the left colic branch of the inferior mesenteric artery, while the hepatic flexure is supplied by the right colic branch of the superior mesenteric artery. The rectum receives arterial blood from the inferior mesenteric artery, middle rectal artery (from internal iliac artery), and inferior rectal artery (from the internal pudendal artery). The sigmoid colon is the second most common site for ischaemic colitis and is also a watershed area known as ‘Sudeck’s point’.

      Understanding Ischaemic Colitis

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.

      When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Sarah, a 70-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 70-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin. Upon examination, the doctor observes that the lump becomes more prominent when the patient coughs. Considering Sarah's age and the location of the lump, the doctor diagnoses her with a direct inguinal hernia. What structure did Sarah's bowel pass through to be classified as a direct inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Femoral canal

      Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle

      Explanation:

      Hesselbach’s triangle is a weak area in the anterior abdominal wall through which direct inguinal hernias can travel. Indirect inguinal hernias occur when the bowel passes through the inguinal canal via the deep inguinal ring. Femoral hernias occur when a portion of the bowel enters the femoral canal through the femoral ring. The failure of the processus vaginalis to close during embryonic development increases the risk of developing an indirect inguinal hernia.

      Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias

      Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.

      To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.

      In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.

    His wife provides a history...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old construction worker presents with a haematemesis.

      His wife provides a history that he has consumed approximately six cans of beer per day together with liberal quantities of whiskey for many years. He has attempted to quit drinking in the past but was unsuccessful.

      Upon examination, he appears distressed and disoriented. His pulse is 110 beats per minute and blood pressure is 112/80 mmHg. He has several spider naevi over his chest. Abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen with ascites.

      What would be your next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Haematemesis in a Patient with Alcohol Abuse

      When a patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with symptoms of chronic liver disease and sudden haematemesis, the possibility of bleeding oesophageal varices should be considered as the primary diagnosis. However, other potential causes such as peptic ulceration or haemorrhagic gastritis should also be taken into account. To determine the exact cause of the bleeding, an urgent endoscopy should be requested. This procedure will allow for a thorough examination of the gastrointestinal tract and enable the medical team to identify the source of the bleeding. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who has been admitted with pneumonia. She...

    Correct

    • Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who has been admitted with pneumonia. She is frail and receiving antibiotics and fluids intravenously. She has no appetite and a Speech And Language Therapy (SALT) review concludes she is at risk of aspiration.

      Her past medical history includes hypertension and angina.

      What would be the most appropriate nutritional support option for Mrs. Smith?

      Your Answer: Nasogastric tube (NG tube)

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Parenteral Nutrition

      Parenteral nutrition is a method of feeding that involves delivering nutrients directly into the bloodstream through a vein. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the use of parenteral nutrition in patients who are malnourished or at risk of malnutrition.

      To identify patients who are malnourished, healthcare professionals should look for a BMI of less than 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, or a BMI of less than 20 kg/m2 with unintentional weight loss of more than 5% over 3-6 months. Patients who have eaten little or nothing for more than 5 days, have poor absorptive capacity, high nutrient losses, or high metabolism are also at risk of malnutrition.

      If a patient has unsafe or inadequate oral intake or a non-functional gastrointestinal tract, perforation, or inaccessible GI tract, healthcare professionals should consider parenteral nutrition. For feeding periods of less than 14 days, feeding via a peripheral venous catheter is recommended. For feeding periods of more than 30 days, a tunneled subclavian line is recommended. Continuous administration is recommended for severely unwell patients, but if feed is needed for more than 2 weeks, healthcare professionals should consider changing from continuous to cyclical feeding. In the first 24-48 hours, no more than 50% of the daily regime should be given to unwell patients.

      For surgical patients who are malnourished with an unsafe swallow or non-functional GI tract, perforation, or inaccessible GI tract, perioperative parenteral feeding should be considered.

      Overall, these guidelines provide healthcare professionals with a framework for identifying patients who may benefit from parenteral nutrition and the appropriate methods for administering it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of painless left-sided facial weakness, along with difficulty speaking and a drooping mouth. She expresses concern about having a stroke, but her medical history is unremarkable. Upon further examination, you rule out a stroke and suspect that she may be experiencing Bell's palsy, an unexplained paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What signs would you anticipate discovering during the examination?

      Your Answer: Normal corneal reflex

      Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve’s chorda tympani branch is responsible for providing taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by unilateral facial nerve weakness or paralysis, which can result in impaired taste sensation in the anterior tongue.

      Upper motor neuron lesions typically spare the forehead, as alternative nerve routes can still provide innervation. In contrast, lower motor neuron lesions like Bell’s palsy can cause forehead paralysis.

      While ptosis may occur in Bell’s palsy, it typically presents unilaterally rather than bilaterally.

      Although patients with Bell’s palsy may complain of tearing eyes, tear production is actually decreased due to loss of control of the eyelids and facial muscles.

      The facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex, so an abnormal corneal reflex may be observed in Bell’s palsy.

      Nerve Supply of the Tongue

      The tongue is a complex organ that plays a crucial role in speech and taste. It is innervated by three different cranial nerves, each responsible for different functions. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue receive general sensation from the lingual branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) and taste sensation from the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). On the other hand, the posterior one-third of the tongue receives both general sensation and taste sensation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).

      In terms of motor function, the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is responsible for controlling the movements of the tongue. It is important to note that the tongue’s nerve supply is essential for proper functioning, and any damage to these nerves can result in speech and taste disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      64.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old male develops profuse, bloody diarrhoea after taking antibiotics. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male develops profuse, bloody diarrhoea after taking antibiotics. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea is suspected. What would be the expected findings during a colonoscopy?

      Your Answer: Pseudomembranous colitis

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhoea is a common occurrence after taking certain antibiotics such as clindamycin, amoxicillin, ampicillin, and 3rd generation cephalosporins. This is because antibiotics eliminate the normal gut bacteria, making the bowel susceptible to invasion by Clostridium difficile bacterium.

      The overgrowth of Clostridium difficile can lead to diarrhoea and the development of pseudomembranous colitis, which is characterized by yellow plaques that can be easily dislodged during colonoscopy.

      Ischaemic colitis, on the other hand, is caused by ischaemia to the bowel and is likely to result in ischaemic bowel.

      Microscopic colitis has two subtypes, namely lymphocytic colitis and collagenous colitis. These rare conditions are associated with chronic watery non-bloody diarrhoea and a normal colon appearance during colonoscopy, but biopsies reveal inflammatory changes.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old woman presents to her physician complaining of upper abdominal pain, fatigue,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to her physician complaining of upper abdominal pain, fatigue, and unintentional weight loss over the past 4 months. During the physical examination, a mass is palpated in the epigastric region. The doctor suspects gastric cancer and refers the patient for an endoscopy. What type of cell would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Signet ring

      Explanation:

      The patient is diagnosed with gastric adenocarcinoma, which is a type of cancer that originates in the stomach lining. The presence of signet ring cells in the biopsy is a concerning feature, indicating an aggressive form of adenocarcinoma.

      Chief cells are normal cells found in the stomach lining and are not indicative of any pathology in this case.

      Megaloblast cells are abnormally large red blood cells that are not expected to be present in a gastric biopsy. They are typically associated with conditions such as leukaemia.

      Merkel cells are benign cells found in the skin that play a role in the sensation of touch.

      Mucous cells are normal cells found in the stomach lining that produce mucus.

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease visits his gastroenterologist for a routine checkup. During the appointment, he inquires about the underlying cause of his condition. Which gene variations have been associated with Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: COL1A1

      Correct Answer: NOD-2

      Explanation:

      The development of Crohn’s disease is connected to a genetic abnormality in the NOD-2 gene.

      Phenylketonuria is linked to the PKU mutation.

      Cystic fibrosis is associated with the CFTR mutation.

      Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is connected to the COL1A1 mutation.

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man and his wife visit their primary care physician. The man's...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man and his wife visit their primary care physician. The man's wife has noticed a change in the size of his chest and suspects he may be developing breast tissue. She mentions that his nipples appear larger and more prominent when he wears tight-fitting shirts. The man seems unconcerned. He has been generally healthy, with a medical history of knee osteoarthritis, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. He cannot recall the names of his medications and has left the list at home.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for his gynecomastia?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Correct Answer: Ranitidine

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia can be caused by H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine, which is a known drug-induced side effect. Clomiphene, an anti-oestrogen, is not used in the treatment of gynaecomastia. Danazol, a synthetic derivative of testosterone, can inhibit pituitary secretion of LH and FSH, leading to a decrease in estrogen synthesis from the testicles. In some cases, complete resolution of breast enlargement has been reported with the use of danazol.

      Histamine-2 Receptor Antagonists and their Withdrawal from the Market

      Histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonists are medications used to treat dyspepsia, which includes conditions such as gastritis and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. They were previously considered a first-line treatment option, but have since been replaced by more effective proton pump inhibitors. One example of an H2 receptor antagonist is ranitidine.

      However, in 2020, ranitidine was withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA) in products from multiple manufacturers. This led to concerns about the safety of the medication and its potential to cause cancer. As a result, patients who were taking ranitidine were advised to speak with their healthcare provider about alternative treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      31
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (16/30) 53%
Passmed