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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is brought to the Emergency department after being found in the street.

      On examination, he appears dishevelled and drowsy, with a pulse of 116 bpm and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.

      His blood tests reveal a pH of 7.29 (7.36-7.44), PaO2 of 12.0 kPa (11.3-12.6), PaCO2 of 3.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), standard bicarbonate of 18 mmol/L (20-28), base excess of −9 mmol/L (+/−2), lactate of 1.6 mmol/L (0.5-2.2), blood glucose of 3.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and urine dipstick Ketones+++.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Correct Answer: Starvation ketosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic Acidosis in a Starving Patient

      This patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis due to starvation, which is evident from the positive ketones found in his urine dipstick. His medical history suggests that he may be an alcoholic and homeless. As a result of his starvation, his body has switched to ketone metabolism. However, he is not diabetic, and his lactate levels are normal.

      To treat this condition, the patient needs to receive IV dextrose to reverse the ketosis and correct his acidosis. However, it is important to note that the patient must receive thiamine first to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which can be triggered by IV glucose.

      Overall, this patient’s condition highlights the importance of proper nutrition and medical care, particularly for those who may be homeless or struggling with addiction. By addressing his metabolic acidosis and providing him with the necessary treatment, healthcare providers can help improve his overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her voice, increased body hair, and clitoral enlargement. Ultrasonography shows a tumour in the left ovarian hilus, and her 17-ketosteroid excretion is elevated. The histopathology confirms a diagnosis of hilus cell tumour, with large, lipid-laden tumour cells. Which cells in the male reproductive system are homologous to the affected cells?

      Your Answer: Epithelial cells in epididymis

      Correct Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      Homologous Cells in Male and Female Reproductive Systems

      The male and female reproductive systems have homologous cells that perform similar functions. Leydig cells, also known as pure Leydig cell tumors, are found in both males and females. In females, these cells are located in the ovarian hilus and secrete androgens, causing masculinization when a tumor arises. Sertoli cells, on the other hand, have a female homologue called granulosa cells, both of which are sensitive to follicle-stimulating hormone. Epithelial cells in the epididymis have a vestigial structure in females called the epoophoron, which is lined by cells similar to those found in the epididymis. Spermatocytes have female homologues in oocytes and polar bodies, while spermatogonia have female homologues in oogonia. Understanding these homologous cells can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of reproductive system disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In a clinical trial of statin therapy for the secondary prevention of ischaemic...

    Correct

    • In a clinical trial of statin therapy for the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease, it was found that the therapy reduced cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over a period of five years.

      Assuming standard therapy as the baseline, what is the number of patients that need to be treated with statin therapy to prevent one death over five years?

      Your Answer: 25

      Explanation:

      The Effectiveness of a Drug in Reducing Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality

      The drug has been found to decrease the likelihood of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, one death could be prevented. This information highlights the potential benefits of this drug in reducing mortality rates in individuals who have experienced a myocardial infarction. It is important to note, however, that this drug may not be suitable for everyone and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The surgeon informs her that one of the stones is quite large and is currently lodged in the bile duct, about 5 cm above the transpyloric plane. The surgeon explains that this plane is a significant anatomical landmark for several abdominal structures.
      What structure is located at the level of the transpyloric plane?

      Your Answer: Uncinate process of the pancreas

      Correct Answer: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The transpyloric plane, also known as Addison’s plane, is an imaginary plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body. It is situated halfway between the jugular notch and the superior border of the pubic symphysis and serves as an important anatomical landmark. Various structures lie in this plane, including the pylorus of the stomach, the first part of the duodenum, the duodeno-jejunal flexure, both the hepatic and splenic flexures of the colon, the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the hila of the kidneys and spleen, the ninth costal cartilage, and the spinal cord termination. Additionally, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery and the point where the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein join to form the portal vein are located in this plane. The cardio-oesophageal junction, where the oesophagus meets the stomach, is also found in this area. It is mainly intra-abdominal, 3-4 cm in length, and houses the gastro-oesophageal sphincter. The ninth costal cartilage lies at the transpyloric plane, not the eighth, and the hila of both kidneys are located here, not just the superior pole of the left kidney. The uncinate process of the pancreas, which is an extension of the lower part of the head of the pancreas, lies between the superior mesenteric vessel and the aorta, and the neck of the pancreas is situated along the transpyloric plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are about to prescribe amiodarone for a geriatric patient.

    From the following,...

    Correct

    • You are about to prescribe amiodarone for a geriatric patient.

      From the following, which laboratory index is the most crucial to monitor?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Monitoring thyroid function is crucial when using amiodarone due to the potential for thyroid dysfunction. Therefore, thyroid function tests are the most suitable option for assessing the side effects of amiodarone. Other tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, lipid profile, and creatine kinase are less relevant as they are not typically impacted by amiodarone.

      Amiodarone is a medication that can have several adverse effects on the body. One of the most common side effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Additionally, the use of amiodarone can lead to the formation of corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, and a ‘slate-grey’ appearance. Other potential adverse effects include thrombophlebitis and injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is important to note that amiodarone can also interact with other medications, leading to potentially dangerous outcomes. For example, the medication can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, which can result in an increased INR. Additionally, amiodarone can increase digoxin levels, which can lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients who are taking amiodarone and to be aware of potential drug interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old female patient reports experiencing tingling sensations around her mouth and hands,...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female patient reports experiencing tingling sensations around her mouth and hands, as well as numbness in her feet. She has a history of anorexia nervosa and her current BMI is 15. Additionally, she has been experiencing occasional, unresolved contractions in her arms and legs. Tapping the inferior portions of her cheekbones causes facial spasms. What electrolyte abnormality is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Tetany in Anorexia Nervosa Patients

      Patients with anorexia nervosa are at risk of electrolyte abnormalities, which can lead to symptoms of peripheral neuropathy such as pins and needles. However, some patients may experience tetany, which is a sign of existing nerve excitability. Tetany results from a low level of calcium extracellularly, which increases the permeability of neuronal membranes to sodium ion, causing a progressive depolarization and increasing the possibility of action potentials. This is highlighted by Chvostek’s signs, which is a sign of tetany whereby tapping the inferior portions of the cheekbones produces facial spasms.

      Hypocalcaemia is the most common cause of tetany, but low levels of magnesium can also cause it. In cases of hypocalcaemia with coexisting hypomagnesemia, magnesium should be corrected first. This is especially true in cases of hypocalcaemia refractory to treatment, whereby magnesium levels should be checked. Magnesium depletion decreases the release of PTH and causes skeletal resistance to PTH. Therefore, tetany in anorexia nervosa patients is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure proper treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of central, tearing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of central, tearing chest pain that is not radiating. She reports having food poisoning and vomiting every hour for the past day. She describes the vomit as liquid without blood. The patient is alert, appears thin, and has dry mucous membranes. She has no relevant medical or family history, is a non-smoker, drinks 8 units of alcohol per week, and works as a cleaner. During ECG placement, the doctor notices crepitus over her chest wall, and the ECG reveals sinus tachycardia. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Boerhaave's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous emphysema is a possible finding in cases of Boerhaave’s syndrome, which involves a rupture of the oesophagus. This condition should be considered when a patient presents with chest pain, as it has a high mortality rate. The presence of subcutaneous emphysema and a history of vomiting make Boerhaave’s syndrome the most likely cause. The tear in the oesophagus allows air to travel up the mediastinum’s fascial planes and into the subcutaneous tissues, resulting in the characteristic ‘rice krispies’ crepitus.

      Aortic dissection is a potential differential diagnosis for chest pain that feels like tearing. However, this type of pain typically radiates to the back, and the patient would likely have risk factors such as a connective tissue disorder, vasculitis, or trauma. The vomiting history makes aortic dissection less likely.

      Mallory-Weiss tear is another possible cause of chest pain resulting from a partial-thickness tear of the oesophagus due to repeated vomiting. However, this condition would be more likely if the patient’s vomit contained blood suddenly, which is not the case in this scenario. Additionally, Mallory-Weiss tear would not present with subcutaneous emphysema as the tear is only partial thickness.

      Mediastinitis is a potential complication of Boerhaave’s syndrome, which occurs when the mediastinum becomes infected. The patient would likely be systemically unwell and septic.

      Myocardial infarction is another possible cause of central chest pain, but it is less likely in this case due to the vomiting history, lack of risk factors, and absence of ECG findings. Myocardial infarction would also not present with subcutaneous emphysema.

      Boerhaave’s Syndrome: A Dangerous Rupture of the Oesophagus

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a serious condition that occurs when the oesophagus ruptures due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This rupture is typically located on the left side of the oesophagus and can cause sudden and severe chest pain. Patients may also experience subcutaneous emphysema, which is the presence of air under the skin of the chest wall.

      To diagnose Boerhaave’s syndrome, a CT contrast swallow is typically performed. Treatment involves thoracotomy and lavage, with primary repair being feasible if surgery is performed within 12 hours of onset. If surgery is delayed beyond 12 hours, a T tube may be inserted to create a controlled fistula between the oesophagus and skin. However, delays beyond 24 hours are associated with a very high mortality rate.

      Complications of Boerhaave’s syndrome can include severe sepsis, which occurs as a result of mediastinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze,...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze, leading to a diagnosis of bronchiolitis. What is a triggering factor that can cause a more severe episode of bronchiolitis, rather than just an increased likelihood of developing the condition?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Correct Answer: Underlying congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis can be more severe in individuals with congenital heart disease, particularly those with a ventricular septal defect. Fragile X is not associated with increased severity, but Down’s syndrome has been linked to worse episodes. Formula milk feeding is a risk factor for bronchiolitis, but does not affect the severity of the disease once contracted. While bronchiolitis is most common in infants aged 3-6 months, this age range is not indicative of a more severe episode. However, infants younger than 12 weeks are at higher risk. Being born at term is not a risk factor, but premature birth is associated with more severe episodes.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past 6 months. On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa often have normal BMI, despite purging behavior. Symptoms associated with vomiting include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who desires social connections but is too shy to form relationships due to fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is associated with decreased dietary intake, with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. They also suffer from early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating, without purging behavior. Patients with binge eating disorder often experience distress and weight gain.

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is characterized by a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social transition (living as their preferred gender) or medical transition (hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming).

      Understanding Common Mental Health Disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with bothersome urinary symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with bothersome urinary symptoms. He reports difficulty with urination, including a weak stream and the need to strain. These symptoms are causing increased pain in his abdominal incisional hernia. Additionally, he experiences significant post-void dribbling, requiring the use of incontinence pads.

      Upon examination, the physician notes a significantly enlarged prostate that is smooth with a clear median sulcus. A urine dipstick test is unremarkable. The patient's blood test reveals a prostate-specific antigen level of 1 ng/mL (normal range <4 ng/mL).

      What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Solifenacin and tamsulosin

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin and finasteride

      Explanation:

      If a man is experiencing bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and has an enlarged prostate, combination therapy with an alpha-1 antagonist and a 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor is recommended. This is the case for the man in this scenario, who is presenting with typical symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia and has confirmed findings on examination and a negative prostate-specific antigen. Tamsulosin, an alpha-1 antagonist, is effective in reducing smooth muscle tone of the prostate and bladder, and is indicated for moderate to severe voiding symptoms. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, prevents further enlargement of the prostate by blocking the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, and is indicated for significantly enlarged prostates.

      The options of duloxetine and finasteride, referral for multiparametric MRI of the prostate, referral to urology, and solifenacin and tamsulosin are incorrect. Duloxetine is only used for stress incontinence in women, and solifenacin is used for overactive bladder, which presents with urgency and frequency rather than voiding symptoms. Referral for multiparametric MRI of the prostate is only necessary when prostate cancer is suspected, which is not the case for this man. Referral to urology is unnecessary as benign prostatic hyperplasia can be managed by a general practitioner.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A woman complains of persistent indigestion that has not responded to over the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman complains of persistent indigestion that has not responded to over the counter ranitidine. She is started on a proton pump inhibitor, and the dose is then increased without effect. Gastrin levels are measured at 100,000 (NR <200 pmol/l).

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Correct Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rare but Beloved Medical Conditions in Examinations

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, also known as gastrinoma, is a rare medical condition caused by a tumour that secretes gastrin. This leads to excessive acid production that is not easily treated with proton pump inhibitors, except in high doses. Another rare medical condition is insulinoma, which causes hypoglycaemia due to excessive insulin production. Lastly, Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a combination of iron deficiency anaemia and oesophageal webs that cause difficulty in swallowing. These medical conditions are not commonly encountered in clinical practice, but they are much beloved in medical examinations. It is important for medical students to be familiar with these conditions and their symptoms in order to provide accurate diagnoses and treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones and pustules. She has three slight acne scars to her left cheek. The lesions are multiple and prominent but do not extend beyond the face. She has not tried any medications for the acne to date and is requesting your advice on treatment. You note that she last attended for an emergency contraception prescription, which was in the last 6 weeks. She does not use any regular contraception and does not want to commence contraception as she indicates she is no longer sexually active. She says that she does not feel overly self-conscious about her acne but wants something to help improve the appearance of the spots.
      Which treatment plan is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Topical application of benzoyl peroxide alone

      Correct Answer: Topical application of clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acne Vulgaris: A Comprehensive Guide

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects many individuals, particularly during adolescence. It is characterized by blocked hair follicles and sebaceous glands, resulting in inflammatory and non-inflammatory lesions on the face, back, and chest. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, with the latter causing scarring and significant distress to the patient.

      There are several treatment options available for acne vulgaris, depending on the severity of the condition. For mild to moderate acne, topical benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed as monotherapy. However, for moderate acne with a risk of scarring, a combination therapy of a topical antibiotic and benzoyl peroxide, such as clindamycin aqueous solution, is recommended.

      In cases of extensive acne on the back or shoulders, or if there is a significant risk of scarring or skin pigmentation, an oral antibiotic may be considered for an 8-week period. However, it is important to note that oral antibiotics should be used judiciously to avoid the development of antibiotic resistance.

      For severe acne or acne causing severe distress to the patient, referral to a dermatologist for treatment with isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin is a retinoid that is used for systemic treatment of severe acne. However, it should only be given to women on contraception as it is teratogenic.

      In conclusion, the treatment of acne vulgaris requires a tailored approach based on the severity of the condition and the risk of scarring or other complications. A combination of topical and oral therapies, as well as referral to a dermatologist when necessary, can help to effectively manage this chronic skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44.5
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  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old man presents with thick, demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with thick, demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. He has had these skin lesions on and off over the last 2 years. The lesions become less severe during summer, aggravate at the time of stress and recur at the site of skin trauma. Histopathological examination of the skin biopsy specimen shows epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils inside the epidermis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Seborrheic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Psoriasis, Lichen Planus, Seborrheic Dermatitis, Lichen Simplex Chronicus, and Tinea Corporis are all common skin conditions with distinct characteristics.

      Psoriasis is identified by thick, well-defined, erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees. The Koebner phenomenon, the occurrence of typical lesions at sites of trauma, is often seen in psoriasis. Exposure to ultraviolet light is therapeutic for psoriatic skin lesions, which is why the lesions become less severe during summer. Pruritus is not always present in psoriasis.

      Lichen Planus is characterised by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red to violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.

      Seborrheic Dermatitis manifests with itching, ill-defined erythema, and greasy scaling involving the scalp, nasolabial fold or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.

      Lichen Simplex Chronicus is characterised by skin lichenification in the area of chronic itching and scratching. Epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis with intraepidermal neutrophils are features of psoriasis, not lichen simplex chronicus.

      Tinea Corporis is a ringworm characterised by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined, active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematous and scaly with papules, vesicles and pustules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.8
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/m²...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/m² and is interested in bariatric surgery. There are no co-morbidities or contraindications for surgery.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Dietary management plan for 6 months before referral

      Correct Answer: Refer for bariatric surgery

      Explanation:

      Bariatric Surgery as a First-Line Option for Patients with High BMI

      Patients with a BMI greater than 50 kg/m² can be referred to bariatric surgery as a first-line option, provided they have no contraindications. If the patient has medical conditions that are affected by weight, surgery can be considered at a BMI greater than 35 kg/m². There are no restrictions on referral for bariatric surgery based on BMI, but the decision will involve an anaesthetic risk assessment based on multiple factors.

      Referral for bariatric surgery in patients with a BMI greater than 40 kg/m² does not require them to have a medical condition affected by their weight. However, for patients with a BMI greater than 35 and up to 40 kg/m², a medical condition affected by weight is required for referral. A dietary management plan may benefit the patient, but the request for surgical consideration does not need to be delayed for a further 6 months.

      While awaiting surgical assessment, Orlistat could be trialled, but this does not need to delay the referral. In summary, bariatric surgery can be considered as a first-line option for patients with a high BMI, and referral should be made without delay, taking into account the patient’s medical history and anaesthetic risk assessment.

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight through lifestyle changes and medication, the risks and costs of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend early referral for bariatric surgery for very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2, especially if they have other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive, primarily malabsorptive, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than other procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11.5
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  • Question 15 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a cold....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a cold. She has been experiencing a fever, runny nose, headache, and a dry cough for a few days. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature has not gone down, which worries her mother. The patient is alert, comfortable, and well-hydrated. During the examination, her temperature is 38.9ºC, heart rate is 110 bpm, blood pressure is 90/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute. Her chest is clear, throat is slightly red, and there are no signs of tonsillitis. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, and her ears are non-tender. There are no rashes, photophobia, or neck stiffness. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Initiate sepsis six protocol

      Explanation:

      Children over the age of 12 have vital signs similar to adults. However, if a child presents with symptoms of sepsis, such as a high temperature, elevated heart rate, low blood pressure, and increased respiratory rate, it is important to initiate the sepsis six protocol and conduct further investigations to determine the source of infection. In such cases, it is not appropriate to send the child home or administer additional doses of antipyretics. Aspirin should not be given to children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics should be administered if there is a suspected bacterial infection causing sepsis.

      Age-appropriate Vital Signs for Children

      Paediatric vital signs vary depending on the age of the child. The table below provides age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. For children under one year old, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute is considered normal. For children between the ages of one and two, a heart rate of 100-150 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 25-35 breaths per minute is normal. Children between the ages of two and five should have a heart rate of 90-140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 25-30 breaths per minute. For children between the ages of five and twelve, a heart rate of 80-120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20-25 breaths per minute is normal. Finally, for children over the age of twelve, a heart rate of 60-100 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 15-20 breaths per minute is considered normal. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these age-appropriate vital sign ranges in order to properly assess the health of children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman and her husband come to the genetic counselling clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman and her husband come to the genetic counselling clinic with concerns about the chance of their baby inheriting an autosomal-recessive genetic condition. The woman is a carrier of the condition, but her husband's carrier status is unknown. Neither the woman nor her husband show any symptoms of the condition. The carrier rate of the condition is 1 in 100 in the general population. What is the likelihood of their baby being affected by the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 400

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Probability of Inheriting Autosomal-Recessive Conditions

      Autosomal-recessive conditions require the presence of two mutated alleles in order for the disease phenotype to present. If one parent is a known carrier of the mutated allele, there is a 1 in 2 chance that the allele will be passed on to any children. However, if the carrier rate in the general population is 1 in 100, the probability of the other parent having the recessive allele is also 1 in 100. This means the chance of a baby being affected by the condition is 1 in 400. If the father is also known to be a carrier, the chance of the child having the condition increases to 1 in 4. If the father is definitely not a carrier, the child will not be affected by the condition, but the father still has a 1 in 100 chance of carrying a recessive gene. Understanding these probabilities can help individuals make informed decisions about genetic testing and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy eye with...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy eye with watery discharge on one side. The patient reports feeling generally healthy, without changes to their vision or fever symptoms. They wear contact lenses but have not had an optician appointment recently.

      During the examination, the patient's right eye shows injected conjunctiva, but there is no noticeable swelling or redness around the eye. The application of topical fluorescein does not reveal any corneal staining.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise she should not wear contact lenses for the duration of her symptoms

      Explanation:

      During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn. In this case, the 15-year-old is likely experiencing viral conjunctivitis and should refrain from wearing contact lenses until symptoms have subsided. It is important to note that not having seen an optician recently may affect the patient’s lens prescription, but it does not increase their susceptibility to infection or more severe conditions.

      While warm compresses can be helpful for styes or chalazion, they are not as effective for viral conjunctivitis. In this case, the fluorescein test did not show any corneal stains, indicating that the patient does not require a referral to ophthalmology. However, if a contact lens wearer with these symptoms had corneal staining, they would need to visit eye casualty as this would suggest a corneal injury.

      Although topical antihistamine eye drops may be appropriate for allergic conjunctivitis, the unilateral nature of the patient’s symptoms makes this diagnosis less likely. Topical chloramphenicol is the preferred treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis, but the watery discharge in this case suggests viral conjunctivitis instead.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 18 - Which drugs are classified as protease inhibitors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which drugs are classified as protease inhibitors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Darunavir, Ritonavir, and Telaprevir

      Explanation:

      Protease Inhibitors: A Breakthrough in HIV and Hepatitis C Treatment

      Protease inhibitors are a class of drugs that block the activity of the viral enzyme called protease, which is essential for the maturation of the virus. Initially used for the treatment of HIV, protease inhibitors are now also used for the treatment of hepatitis C infections. Telaprevir is a protease inhibitor specifically designed for hepatitis C virus.

      Abacavir and rilpivirine are two other drugs used for HIV treatment. Abacavir is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), while rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). Protease inhibitors are often used as second-line therapy for HIV treatment, with ritonavir commonly used as a booster with other protease inhibitors.

      For hepatitis C treatment, protease inhibitors such as telaprevir, boceprevir, simeprevir, and danoprevir are used in combination with interferon and ribavirin. These drugs inhibit NS3/4A protease, which is a promising development in hepatitis C management. They are said to decrease the treatment duration, but their high cost is a major limiting factor for their use.

      In conclusion, protease inhibitors have revolutionized the treatment of HIV and hepatitis C infections. While they are not without limitations, they offer hope for patients with these chronic viral diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of chronic pain and morning stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of chronic pain and morning stiffness in her hands that lasts for a few minutes. These symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past ten years. She applies diclofenac gel to her hands, which provides relief from the pain. During the examination, the doctor observes squaring of her thumbs on both sides.
      What is the probable diagnosis based on the given presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is often characterized by stiffness that worsens after long periods of inactivity, such as sleep. This stiffness typically lasts only a few minutes, unlike inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, which can cause morning stiffness lasting up to an hour. One distinctive feature of hand osteoarthritis is squaring of the thumbs, specifically in the carpometacarpal joint. Pain associated with hand osteoarthritis tends to be worse with activity and relieved by rest. Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine and can also cause morning stiffness, but this stiffness is typically felt in the back rather than the hands. Osteoporosis itself does not cause pain or stiffness, but it can lead to bone fractures and is more commonly associated with large joint osteoarthritis than hand osteoarthritis. Reiter’s syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is characterized by conjunctivitis, urethritis, and oligoarthritis, typically affecting the knee. Squaring of the thumbs is not a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis, which is instead associated with swan-neck deformity, ulnar deviation, and subluxation of the carpal bones, among other symptoms.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to you with complaints of bloating, unintended weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to you with complaints of bloating, unintended weight loss, dyspareunia, and an elevated CA-125. What is the most appropriate term to describe the initial spread of this cancer, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Local spread within the pelvic region

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer typically spreads initially through local invasion, rather than through the lymphatic or hematological routes. This patient’s symptoms, including IBS-like symptoms, irregular vaginal bleeding, and a raised CA125, suggest ovarian cancer. The stages of ovarian cancer range from confined to the ovaries (Stage 1) to spread beyond the pelvis to the abdomen (Stage 3), with local spread within the pelvis (Stage 2) in between. While lymphatic and hematological routes can also be involved in the spread of ovarian cancer, they tend to occur later than local invasion within the pelvis. The para-aortic lymph nodes are a common site for lymphatic spread, while the liver is a common site for hematological spread.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a midline neck lump that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes in with a midline neck lump that has been present for a long time and measures 3 cm. The lump has been causing occasional pain. Upon protruding his tongue, there is upward movement of the swelling. What is the most probable histological diagnosis for this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal Cysts

      A thyroglossal cyst is a common type of mass that can be found in the midline of the neck. It is typically located at or below the hyoid bone, but it can also be found anywhere from the foramen caecum to the thyroid gland. This type of cyst is most commonly seen in children, and it is often asymptomatic. However, patients may experience recurrent inflammation and infection.

      One of the most notable characteristics of a thyroglossal cyst is that it moves up when the tongue is protruded. This can be a helpful diagnostic tool for healthcare providers. While this type of cyst is most commonly seen in childhood, patients may present with symptoms up to the age of 30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes and goes but leaves a dull ache behind. The problem has been present for around 2 weeks and is getting worse. The pain is most noticeable at mealtimes. In the last day, the swelling has become fixed and he reports an unpleasant taste in his mouth. He smokes five cigarettes a day and drinks ten units of alcohol a week, usually on a Saturday night. On examination, there is a smooth, tender swelling in the superior part of the left anterior triangle and, on inspection of the oral cavity, there is poor dentition and pus present just behind the lower incisors.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Submandibular Gland Infection: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A submandibular gland infection is often caused by the presence of a stone in the left submandibular duct, which can lead to a secondary infection due to the stasis of gland secretions. Stones are more common in the submandibular gland due to the length and tortuosity of the duct. Symptoms include a smooth, tender swelling, pain worse at mealtimes, and pus behind the lower incisors. Management involves antibiotics to treat the infection and referral to an ENT or oral surgeon for stone removal, which can usually be done under local anesthesia. In some cases, excision of the entire submandibular gland may be necessary. It is important to note that the presence of bacterial infection indicates an ongoing issue beyond just the stone. Other conditions, such as gingivostomatitis and dental abscess, can cause similar symptoms but have different underlying causes. Mumps, on the other hand, can cause swelling of the parotid gland, not the submandibular gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 23 - During a home visit to a 58-year-old patient with a lower respiratory tract...

    Incorrect

    • During a home visit to a 58-year-old patient with a lower respiratory tract infection, who is housebound due to motor neurone disease, you review her medications. What new regular medication/s should you contemplate starting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to provide daily vitamin D supplements to all patients who are confined to their homes.

      Vitamin D Supplementation and Testing Guidelines

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent guidelines have provided clarity on who should take supplements. The Chief Medical Officer’s letter in 2012 and the National Osteoporosis Society’s UK Vitamin D guideline in 2013 recommend that pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and people who are not exposed to much sun should take a daily supplement containing 10µg of vitamin D. Babies fed with formula milk do not need to take a supplement if they are taking more than 500ml of milk a day, as formula milk is fortified with vitamin D.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, or for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and people who are at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, these guidelines provide clear recommendations for vitamin D supplementation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, who found her on the bathroom floor. She is ataxic, appears confused and her speech is slurred, however she does not smell of alcohol. She says she 'took something' because she wanted to end her life. She has vomited twice.

      On the blood gas, there is a metabolic acidosis.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fomepizole

      Explanation:

      Fomepizole is an effective treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity as it inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, slowing down the production of toxic metabolites. Ethanol can also be used if fomepizole is not available. Symptoms of ethylene glycol poisoning include ataxia, vomiting, dysarthria, and metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap. In severe cases, convulsions and coma can occur. Atropine is used to treat organophosphate poisoning, which can cause anxiety, restlessness, headache, muscle weakness, respiratory failure, and bronchospasm with bronchial secretions. Flumazenil is used to treat benzodiazepine overdose, which can cause drowsiness, dizziness, ataxia, coma, and respiratory depression. Glucagon is used to treat beta blocker overdose, which can cause sinus bradycardia, hypotension, and coma.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with signs of pneumonia....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with signs of pneumonia. Upon examination, a right middle lobe pneumonia is detected on his chest X-ray. Where is the optimal location to auscultate breath sounds from the affected lobe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-axillary line, 5th intercostal space

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are divided into lobes by the pleura, with the right lung having three lobes and the left lung having two. The lobes are separated by the oblique and horizontal fissures. The oblique fissure separates the inferior and superior lobes and runs from the spine of T3 to the sixth rib. The horizontal fissure is only present in the right lung and separates the superior and middle lobes. It starts in the oblique fissure near the back of the lung and runs horizontally forward, cutting the front border at the level of the fourth costal cartilage.

      Auscultation of the lungs is similar on both sides of the posterior chest wall, with the lower two-thirds corresponding to the inferior lobes and the upper third corresponding to the superior lobe. On the anterior chest wall, the area above the nipples corresponds to the superior lobes, with the apices being audible just above the clavicles. The area below the nipples corresponds to the inferior lobes. The middle lobe of the right lung is the smallest and is wedge-shaped, including the lower part of the anterior border and the anterior part of the base of the lung. It is best heard in the axilla, but can also be heard in the back or at the lateral margin of the right chest (anterior axillary line).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned refugee who recently arrived in the United Kingdom and has no medical history.

      Her foster parents have brought her to the clinic as they have noticed that she becomes easily breathless on exertion or after a bath and squats down to catch her breath. During these times, they notice that her lips turn blue.

      Upon examination, you find that she is on the 10th centile for height and weight, her lips are slightly dusky, she has good air entry bilaterally in her chest, and she has a normal heart rate at rest with a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge with an associated thrill.

      A chest x-ray reveals decreased vascular markings and a normal-sized heart. Electrocardiography (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation and deep S waves in V5 and V6.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a common cyanotic congenital heart condition characterized by four abnormalities. Symptoms are determined by the degree of shunting of deoxygenated blood from right to left, which is influenced by the degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOTO) and other ways blood can get to the lungs. Squatting can relieve cyanotic episodes by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. The child in question has a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge in keeping with the turbulent flow of blood across the stenosed RVOT. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the history of squatting is highly suggestive of TOF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome is administered 300 mg of aspirin....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient experiencing acute coronary syndrome is administered 300 mg of aspirin. How does aspirin work to produce an antiplatelet effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - Which of the options below is not a cause of mid-diastolic murmur? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below is not a cause of mid-diastolic murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Heart Murmurs

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat. Aortic stenosis, a condition where the aortic valve narrows, causes an ejection systolic murmur. On the other hand, left atrial myxomas and right atrial myxomas, which are rare tumors, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur by blocking the valve orifice during diastole. Mitral stenosis, which is often the result of rheumatic fever or a congenital defect, causes mid-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, tricuspid stenosis, which is also commonly caused by rheumatic fever, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur. the causes of heart murmurs is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 22-month-old toddler has been hospitalized after experiencing a significant rectal hemorrhage that...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-month-old toddler has been hospitalized after experiencing a significant rectal hemorrhage that necessitated a blood transfusion. Despite the bleeding, the child seems calm and free of discomfort.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital disorder that can cause malformation in the small intestine. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to acid release and ulceration of the small intestine. This condition is the most common cause of gastrointestinal bleeding requiring transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years, presenting with symptoms such as bright red rectal bleeding, constipation, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain.

      Other conditions that can cause bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract include oesophagitis, which is typically caused by acid reflux and presents with heartburn, and anal fissures, which are often painful or itchy and commonly occur in those who have been constipated. However, these conditions are not typically associated with transfusion.

      Necrotising enterocolitis is another condition that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding and severe illness, but it is more common in neonates, particularly those born prematurely. Meckel’s diverticulum remains the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring transfusion in young children.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.

      In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.

      To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a history of intermittent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a history of intermittent dysphagia to both solids and liquids for the past 6 months. She reports that food often gets stuck during meals and she has to drink a lot of water to overcome this. The doctor orders a chest X-ray and barium swallow, which reveal a dilated oesophagus, lack of peristalsis, and bird-beak deformity.
      What diagnosis is consistent with these symptoms and test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a condition where the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing, causing difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. The cause is often unknown, and diagnosis involves various tests such as chest X-ray, barium swallow, oesophagoscopy, CT scan, and manometry. Treatment options include sphincter dilation using Botox or balloon dilation, and surgery if necessary. Oesophageal web is a thin membrane in the oesophagus that can cause dysphagia to solids and reflux symptoms. Chagas’ disease, scleroderma, and diffuse oesophageal spasm are other conditions that can cause similar symptoms but have different causes and treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (1/4) 25%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/3) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
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