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Question 1
Incorrect
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Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?
Your Answer: 2nd Meiotic Division
Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions
Explanation:During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 2
Correct
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The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is?
Your Answer: Transport the ovum towards the uterus
Explanation:Cilia are small hair line projections in the fallopian tube. Their main function is to transport the egg through he fallopian tube towards the uterus. It is present in many other tubular organs and its function varies accordingly to the organ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:
Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)
Explanation:Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring. Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?
Your Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery
Explanation:Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.
Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.
The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.
In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?
Your Answer: CTPA
Correct Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.
Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility rate?
Your Answer: 12.50%
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a known risk factor in causing tubal infertility due to its role in tubal damage. The tubal infertility rate after one episode of PID is thought to be about 12.5%. After two episodes the risk increases to 25%, and 50% after three episodes. The usual causative agents are chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG?
Your Answer: 30%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:About 97% of the testosterone that is secreted loosely binds to the SHBG and circulates in the blood for several hours in this bound state until it is transported to the target organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history of light vaginal bleeding. Her past medical history reveals she had a lumpectomy, postoperative radiotherapy, adjuvant chemotherapy and tamoxifen therapy 3 years ago as treatment for an oestrogen receptor-positive breast malignancy. She was prescribed tamoxifen in a dose of 10mg per day to take for the next five years. Since she completed her chemotherapy three years ago, she has no menstrual periods. What is the most probable cause of her current bleeding?
Your Answer: An endometrial cancer produced by the tamoxifen.
Correct Answer: Endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.
Explanation:The most likely cause of her bleeding is an endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.
Tamoxifen is often prescribed to decrease risk of breast cancer recurrence in premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive cancers.
As with any medication, it has known side effects, which include endometrial polyp formation, subendometrial oedema and, rarely, endometrial carcinoma.
A polyp or carcinoma can cause uterine bleeding, but a polyp is more likely to occur.
Routine endometrial thickness screening is not recommended in all women taking tamoxifen. However, in cases of abnormal bleeding, ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness, hysteroscopy and curettage are indicated to assess the endometrium in more detail.
Tamoxifen is not associated with endometrial atrophy.
Endometrial metastasis from a breast cancer is rare, and tamoxifen would not usually induce follicular development in a woman who has had chemotherapy and resultant amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?
Your Answer: Perinatal mortality
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) ?
Your Answer: Increased ovarian volume >10cm3
Explanation:The Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of PCOS is based on a score of two out of the three criteria:
1) Oligo or anovulation
2) Hyperandrogenism – clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
3) on ultrasound – contain 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter and/or have an increased volume of 10 cm3 or greater. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The vulva is mainly supplied by which one of the following vessels?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal artery
Correct Answer: Pudendal artery
Explanation:Vulva is defined by the area which is located outside the female vagina and comprises of the labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, mons pubis and Bartholin glands. It is supplied by the vestibula branch of pudental artery.
Inferior hemorrhoidal artery supplies the lower part of the rectum.
Femoral artery is the continuation of external iliac artery and supplies most of the leg. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?
Your Answer: Monitor her symptoms until after delivery
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
– An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
– When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
– Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
– Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
– If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in her second pregnancy, presents with a breech presentation. She previously delivered a baby girl weighing 3.8kg via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Ultrasound examination this time shows a breech presentation with extended legs. She wishes to deliver vaginally if it is possible. Which is the most appropriate next step to take?
Your Answer: Await spontaneous onset of labour.
Explanation:The most suitable step would be to wait for spontaneous onset of labour. This woman would be able to deliver vaginally in 3 situations. The first would be if the foetus is estimated to weigh less than 3800g (first child weight 3800g). Another would be if the foetus is in a frank or complete breech presentation and lastly if the rate of labour progress is satisfactory and breech extraction is unnecessary. RCOG (Royal College of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists) guidelines recommends that women should be informed that elective Caesarean section for the delivery of a breech baby would have a lower risk of perinatal mortality than a planned vaginal delivery. This is because with an elective Caesarean section, we would be able to avoid stillbirth following 39 weeks of gestation as well as intrapartum and vaginal breech delivery risks. The ideal mode of delivery of a breech foetus when labour starts or at least close to term is a Caesarean section as the risks towards the foetus would be significantly increased in a vaginal delivery. The obstetrician is responsible to ensure that there are no other abnormalities that could complicate this even further such as footling presentation, low estimated birth weight (less than 10th centile), hyperextended neck on ultrasound, evidence of fetal distress and high estimated birth weight (>3.8kg). Provided that there is a normal progression of events, fetal risks during both labour and delivery should be low if such factors are absent. Hence, it is right to await the onset of labour to occur spontaneously in this case. In order to exclude a knee presentation with fetal head extension or a footling breech, ultrasound examination has to be done. These are linked to a high fetal risk if the mother attempts vaginal delivery. X-ray pelvimetry is advisable but is not essential in fetal size assessment since its accuracy is roughly 20%. In this case, it is not indicated since there is evidence that her pelvis is of adequate size as she had already delivered a 3.9kg baby prior. It is best to avoid induction of labour in breech cases for numerous reasons (need for augmentation, cord prolapse).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs. What would you advice her?
Your Answer: Progesterone only pill
Explanation:Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.
The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).
Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Regarding Venous Thromboembolism (VTE) in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?
Your Answer: Relative risk of VTE in pregnancy is 2 to 3 fold
Correct Answer: Relative risk of VTE in pregnancy is 4 to 6 fold
Explanation:Venous thromboembolic disease (VTE) is the most common cause of direct maternal death in the UK. In the most recent triennium, there were 41 fatalities, giving a maternal mortality rate of 1.94 per 100 000 – more than twice that of the next most common cause, pre-eclampsia. As pregnancy is a hyper coagulable state. There are alterations in the fibrinolytics and thrombotic pathways. There is also an increased production of clotting factors during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 16
Correct
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A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinicfor a check-up. A cervical screening test is performed by the doctor. HPV Type Non-16/18 is detected in her cervical cytology. Squamous cells and other abnormalities were found to be absent in the reflex liquid-based cytology. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?
Your Answer: Repeat Cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:A cervical screening test was performed on this patient, and the result revealed the presence of the Human Papilloma Virus Type non-16/18. Reflex liquid base cytology was conducted, but no further abnormalities were seen. In this case, the patient should be offered a 12-month repeat cervical screening cytology. If the patient’s repeated cervical screening cytology after 12 months revealed LSIL, she should be referred for a colposcopy.
If HPV is discovered at 12 months, regardless of the LBC result, some women may be at higher risk of having high-grade abnormalities and should be referred to colposcopy. These include:
– women 2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
– women who identify as being of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
– women aged 50 years or older.Summary of recommended actions based on the level of risk
Intermediate danger:
– HPV non-16/18 positive, intermediate risk (with negative or low-grade cytology)
If feasible, repeat the HPV test after 12 months.
A three-to-six-month delay would be acceptable. Delays of longer than six months are discouraged.
Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) – Treated as Higher risk.High-risk:
HPV non-16/18 positive on follow-up HPV test (with negative or low-grade cytology)
Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.If your patient is: 2 years or more past due for screening at the time of the initial screening, and identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander aged 50 or older, they may be at higher risk and should be referred to a professional at once for additional evaluation.
HPV 16/18 positive with any of the following non–16/18 positive: a glandular anomaly in high-grade cytology high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) cancer. Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.
Currently, several colposcopy facilities are experiencing strong demand and extended wait times. If you are concerned that your patient will be delayed, you should call the specialist or clinic to which your patient has been referred.
On the Cure Test Pathway, wherever possible, continue testing as planned. A woman who has been treated for HSIL (CIN2/3) should have a 12-month follow-up co-test and annual tests after that. She can resume standard 5-yearly screening after receiving two consecutive negative co-tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately
Your Answer: 30ml/min
Correct Answer: 750ml/min
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to labor unit at 39 weeks of gestation, due to regular uterine contractions. Her cervix is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetus’ vertex at +1 station. Initially the fetal heart rate was 150 bpm, as the labor progressed, it falls to 80 bpm without any changes in the mother’s general condition. Which among the following options would be the best next step in management of this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiotocography
Explanation:Bradycardia of <100 bpm for more than 5 minutes or <80 for more than 3 minutes is always considered abnormal. The given case describes fetal bradycardia detected on fetal heart auscultation and the most common causes for severe bradycardia are prolonged cord compression, cord prolapse, epidural and spinal anesthesia, maternal seizures and rapid fetal descent. Immediate management including identification of any reversible causes for the abnormality and initiation of appropriate actions like maternal repositioning, correction of maternal hypotension, rehydration with intravenous fluid, cessation of oxytocin, tocolysis for excessive uterine activity, and initiation or maintenance of continuous CTG should be considered in clinical situations where abnormal fetal heart rate patterns are noticed. Consideration of further fetal evaluation and delivery if a significant abnormality persists are very important. The next step in this scenario where the baby is in 1+ station, with an abnormal fetal heart rate detected on auscultation would be to perform a confirmatory cardiotocography (CTG) and if the CTG findings confirm the condition despite initial measures obtained, prompt action should be taken. Cord compression or prolapse should come on the top of the differential diagnoses list as the the mother shows normal general conditions, but since the cervix is 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal head is already engaged, cord prolapse would be unlikely; therefore, repeating vaginal exam is not as important as confirmatory CTG. However a vaginal exam should be done, if the scenario indicates any possibility of cord prolapse, to exclude cord compression or prolapse. NOTE– In cases of severe prolonged bradycardia, immediate delivery is recommended, if the cause cannot be identified and corrected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaphase
Explanation:Mitosis is the process during which cell division occurs. It is divided into 4 stages:
– The first stage is the prophase during which the chromosomes condense, mitotic spindles form and the chromosomes pair which each other.
– The second stage is the metaphase during which the chromatids align at the equatorial plane.
– The third stage is the anaphase during which the chromatids are separated into 2 daughter chromosomes.
– The fourth phase is the telophase during which the chromatids decondense and a new nuclear envelop forms around the each of the daughter chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the process during which the cell cytoplasm divides. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which HPV subtypes are chiefly associated with causing cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 16 and 18
Explanation:HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV. As well as cervical cancer they are associated with cancers of the oropharynx and anogenital region.
There are over 100 genotypes of HPV including several other high risk HPV types. Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18
HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are low risk and cause anogenital warts.
Typically 70% of HPV infections are cleared within 1 year and 90% are cleared within 2 years
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release
Explanation:Oxytocin acts via the G protein receptors and the calcium-calmodulin complex. It activates phospholipase C which produces IP3 to further trigger the calcium-calmodulin complex increasing intracellular Ca ion release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Face presentation
Explanation:Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Luteal phase deficiency is characterised by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has inadequate luteal progesterone production
Explanation:Luteal phase occurs after the ovulation. Luteal defect means that the luteal phase is shorter than 10 days and women will find it difficult to sustain the pregnancy. There is decreased progesterone, LH and FSH production in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive
Explanation:The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected. A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative. Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.
Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
– If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
– If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.
– Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
– Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:
If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.
If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.
If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.
If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 2 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 45%
Explanation:The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 2 gene is 45% and of ovarian cancer is 15%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases up to 40%
Explanation:Changes in the cardiovascular system in pregnancy are profound and begin early in pregnancy, such that by eight weeks’ gestation, the cardiac output has already increased by 20%. The primary event is probably peripheral vasodilatation. This is mediated by endothelium-dependent factors, including nitric oxide synthesis, upregulated by oestradiol and possibly vasodilatory prostaglandins (PGI2). Peripheral vasodilation leads to a 25–30% fall in systemic vascular resistance, and to compensate for this, cardiac output increases by around 40% during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A patients MSU comes back showing heavy growth of E.coli that is resistant to trimethoprim, amoxicillin and nitrofurantoin. You decide to prescribe a course of Cephalexin. What is the mechanism of action of Cephalexin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: inhibit peptidoglycan cross-links in bacterial cell wall
Explanation:Cephalosporins are beta lactum drugs, like penicillin. They act by inhibiting the cross linkage of the peptidoglycan wall in bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures does the broad ligament contain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterine artery
Explanation:The broad ligament is one of the secondary supporting structures of the uterus which attaches the lateral portion of the uterus to the pelvic sidewall. The broad ligament primarily serves a protective layer for important structures including the fallopian tubes, the ovaries, the ovarian arteries, and the uterine arteries, the round and ovarian ligaments, and the infundibulopelvic ligaments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevention of thrombosis
Explanation:The properties of oestrogen:
Structure: Stimulates endometrial growth, maintenance of vessels and skin,
reduces bone resorption, increases bone formation, increases uterine growth
Protein synthesis: Increases hepatic synthesis of binding proteins
Coagulation: Increases circulating levels of factors II, VII, IX, X, antithrombin III and plasminogen; increases platelet adhesiveness
Lipid: Increases HDL and reduces LDL,increases triglycerides, reduces
ketone formation, increases fat deposition
Fluid balance: Salt and water retention
Gastrointestinal: Reduces bowel motility, increases cholesterol in bile -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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