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  • Question 1 - A middle-aged man presents with a lesion on his penis - clinically this...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man presents with a lesion on his penis - clinically this is suggestive of syphilis. On questioning he is in a relationship with another man.

      With regard to syphilis, which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Secondary syphilis presents with a pathognomonic rash

      Correct Answer: He should be managed in primary care setting

      Explanation:

      Syphilis on the Rise Among Men Who Have Sex with Men

      There has been a recent increase in syphilis cases, particularly among men who have sex with men. Confirming the diagnosis requires multiple tests and thorough contact tracing, making it important to refer cases to a specialist center. Testing for HIV is also recommended, as the two conditions are often associated. While serology can be conducted in a primary care setting if syphilis is suspected, secondary syphilis can present with a range of different rashes, including a non-itchy macular-papular rash that often affects the palms and soles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      100.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a routine...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about the medications she is taking for her different health conditions and their potential impact on her breastfeeding baby. Which medications are safe for her to continue taking?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding is generally safe with most anti-epileptic drugs, including the commonly prescribed Lamotrigine. This drug is often preferred for women as it doesn’t affect their ability to bear children. However, Carbimazole and Diazepam’s active metabolite can be passed on to the baby through breast milk and should be avoided. Isotretinoin’s effect on breastfed infants is not well studied, but oral retinoids should generally be avoided while breastfeeding.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      63.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his recent diagnosis of Crohn's disease. He presented eight months ago with weight loss and a change in bowel habit, and was referred to the Gastroenterology Department. The diagnosis was confirmed and he was successfully treated as an inpatient. At the time, he declined maintenance therapy but has since become very worried about this decision and would like to start the treatment. What is the most suitable agent to maintain remission in this patient?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Medications for Maintaining Remission in Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects the digestive tract. While some patients may choose not to take medication to maintain remission, others may opt for drug therapy. The two main options are azathioprine and mercaptopurine, but it is important to measure thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity before using these drugs. Sulfasalazine is effective in maintaining remission for ulcerative colitis but has limited efficacy for Crohn’s disease. Methotrexate may be considered if other drugs fail or are not tolerated. Metronidazole is used for perianal disease but not for maintaining remission. Conventional corticosteroids like prednisolone or budesonide should not be used for long-term maintenance due to the risks associated with prolonged steroid use. Preventative treatment may be particularly appropriate for those with adverse prognostic factors such as early age of onset, perianal disease, corticosteroid use at presentation, and severe illness at presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      71.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
    Select from the list the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this drug.

      Your Answer: While taking the drug there may be large variations in motor function

      Explanation:

      Levodopa: The Most Effective Drug for Parkinson’s Disease

      Levodopa is the most effective drug for treating Parkinson’s disease (PD). It replenishes depleted striatal dopamine, the lack of which causes PD symptoms. Levodopa is given with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor to limit side-effects such as nausea, vomiting, and cardiovascular effects. Benserazide and carbidopa are the dopa-decarboxylase inhibitors used with levodopa.

      Levodopa therapy should start at a low dose and increase gradually. The final dose should be the lowest possible that controls symptoms. Intervals between doses should suit the patient’s needs. Nausea and vomiting with co-beneldopa or co-careldopa are rarely dose-limiting and can be controlled with domperidone.

      Levodopa treatment can cause motor complications such as response fluctuations and dyskinesias. Response fluctuations involve large variations in motor performance, with normal function during an ‘on’ period, and restricted mobility during an ‘off’ period. End-of-dose deterioration with progressively shorter duration of benefit also occurs. Freezing of gait and falls may be problematic. Modified-release preparations may help with end-of-dose deterioration or immobility or rigidity at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      154.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Ramsey Hunt syndrome ...

    Incorrect

    • Ramsey Hunt syndrome

      Your Answer: Reassure him he has eustachian tube dysfunction and it should resolve soon

      Correct Answer: Refer under 2-week wait to ENT for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      If an adult presents with unilateral middle ear effusion, it could be a sign of nasopharyngeal cancer. In such cases, the appropriate action would be to refer the patient for an urgent 2-week wait ENT appointment to investigate the possibility of cancer. This is especially important if the patient is of East Asian origin and the effusion is not related to an upper respiratory tract infection. Other options, such as arranging a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses, do not address the urgent need to rule out cancer and should not be done in primary care. Further investigations, such as nasal endoscopy or MRI, may be arranged by the specialist to confirm or rule out the possibility of nasopharyngeal cancer.

      Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

      Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.

      To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday morning after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday morning after having unprotected sex on Saturday. She is worried about the possibility of an unintended pregnancy and wants to know the most effective method to prevent it. Her last menstrual cycle was two weeks ago.

      What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for copper coil (IUD) insertion

      Explanation:

      For this patient who has had unprotected intercourse within the last 72 hours and is seeking the most effective form of emergency contraception, the recommended course of action is to arrange for a copper coil (IUD) insertion. The copper coil is highly effective in preventing pregnancy for up to five days (120 hours) after intercourse, whether or not ovulation has occurred, by preventing fertilization or implantation. If there are concerns about sexually transmitted infections, antibiotics can be given at the same time. It is important to note that the patient has not missed the window for emergency contraception, as both the copper coil and ulipristal acetate are licensed for use up to five days after intercourse, while levonorgestrel emergency contraception can be taken up to 72 hours after intercourse. However, given that the patient is presenting 72 hours after intercourse and may have already ovulated, levonorgestrel emergency contraception or ulipristal acetate may not be as effective as the copper coil and therefore the copper coil is the most appropriate choice.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 76-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine check-up and...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine check-up and medication review. His history includes congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis and dementia. He is allergic to penicillin. He was admitted to the hospital one month ago suffering from acute exacerbation of congestive cardiac failure. During his admission, his medications were adjusted.
      Two weeks following discharge, he attended an out-of-hours clinic and was treated for a sore throat. He says he has been well overall since then other than having pains in his knees, which he has been treating with over-the-counter painkillers. The treating doctor decides to take some routine bloods.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 54 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 43 IU/l < 40 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 323 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
      Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 299 IU/l 7–33 IU/l
      Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused the abnormalities in this patient’s liver function tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abnormal Liver Function Tests

      Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication use. In this case, the patient displays a cholestatic picture with a rise in alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels exceeding the rise in alanine aminotransferase levels. Here is a differential diagnosis of potential causes:

      Erythromycin: This medication can cause cholestatic hepatotoxicity, which may have been used to treat the patient’s sore throat.

      Digoxin: While digoxin is a potentially toxic drug, it doesn’t typically cause hepatotoxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity may include arrhythmias, gastrointestinal disturbance, confusion, or yellow vision.

      Methotrexate: Hepatotoxicity is a well-known side effect of methotrexate use, but it would be expected to see higher ALT levels in this case.

      Paracetamol: Overdosing on paracetamol can cause hepatotoxicity, but it would typically present as hepatocellular damage with a predominant rise in transaminases.

      Rosuvastatin: Statins may cause abnormalities in liver function tests, but cholestatic hepatotoxicity is rare and would not typically present with a disproportionate rise in transaminases.

      In conclusion, the patient’s abnormal liver function tests may be attributed to erythromycin use, but further investigation is necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old patient comes to you with a one month history of right...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient comes to you with a one month history of right blurry vision. You previously saw this patient three years ago when they presented with a right gritty eye that did not affect their vision.
      Upon examination, you diagnose the patient with a right, peripheral, pterygium. The patient's left eye remains healthy with no complaints.
      During the ocular examination, you notice that the pterygium has now encroached further onto the corneal surface, reaching the limbus landmark and partially obstructing the patient's field of vision.
      What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer patient routinely to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      Pterygium and Visual Disturbances

      Pterygium, a growth of tissue on the conjunctiva of the eye, can cause visual disturbances by physically encroaching on the visual axis or inducing astigmatism. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent vision loss. The best management option is to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for surgical removal of the pterygium. While optometrist referral and new glasses may provide temporary relief, they do not address the underlying issue and may not be a long-term solution. It is important to address pterygium early to prevent further visual impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man presents to you with concerns that he may be losing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to you with concerns that he may be losing his mind. He reports experiencing peculiar odors (such as burnt rubber) and frequently feeling jamais vu. No one else detects any unusual smells during these episodes. He remains fully conscious and has excellent recall of the events. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophreniform attack

      Explanation:

      Understanding Simple Partial Seizures

      A simple partial seizure is a type of seizure where consciousness is usually not lost during the attack. However, other symptoms such as muscle twitching, numbness, or tingling sensations may occur. This type of seizure is considered simple because it only affects a small part of the brain.

      It is important to note that if consciousness is impaired during the seizure, it is then classified as a complex partial seizure. It is crucial to understand the difference between the two types of seizures as they may require different treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP after receiving abnormal liver function test results...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP after receiving abnormal liver function test results from a private medical screening. Despite consuming approximately 40 units of alcohol per week, he is asymptomatic and in good health. The following results were obtained:

      - Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
      - ALP: 100 u/l
      - ALT: 67 u/l
      - γGT: 110 u/l
      - Albumin: 40 g/l

      All other blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, and fasting glucose, were normal. A liver screen was arranged, which revealed the following:

      - Hepatitis B: Negative
      - Hepatitis C: Negative
      - Serum ferritin: 550 microg/L (normal range: 25-300 microg/L)
      - Immunoglobulins: Normal
      - Ultrasound liver: Fatty changes
      - Transferrin saturation: 41% (normal range: <50%)

      What is the most likely underlying cause of the elevated ferritin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      The elevated ferritin level can be attributed to the patient’s excessive alcohol consumption, as the typical transferrin saturation rules out iron overload as a potential cause.

      Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body

      Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it for later use. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be synthesized in larger quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.

      There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of patients) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of patients). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (which can occur after repeated transfusions).

      On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can be an indication of iron deficiency anemia. Since iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state. It is important to note that the best test for determining iron overload is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old overweight woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper-quadrant pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old overweight woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper-quadrant pain after eating. She drinks around 13 units of alcohol per week.
      She undergoes some blood tests:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 90 IU/l 11–50 IU/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 48 IU/l 4–45 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 48 IU/l < 40 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 240 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 23 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
      Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
      Prothrombin time (PT) 12 s 12–14.8 s
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Liver Enzyme Results: Differential Diagnosis

      When interpreting liver enzyme results, it is important to consider the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient with elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) levels:

      Gallstones: A cholestatic picture with a more significant rise in ALP and GGT over alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) suggests an obstructive or cholestatic condition. Accompanied by right upper-quadrant pain after eating, gallstones are the most likely diagnosis.

      Alcohol abuse: Disproportionate elevation of GGT compared to other liver enzymes may indicate alcohol abuse or alcoholic liver disease. In this case, the ALP is also elevated to the same extent as the GGT, but the patient drinks below the recommended alcohol intake per week.

      Paget’s disease: Paget’s disease may cause bone pain and elevated ALP levels. However, the accompanying rise in GGT provides a sensitive indicator of hepatobiliary disease, which is not associated with skeletal disease.

      Pancreatitis: Although raised GGT levels have been reported in pancreatic disease, the accompanying derangement of other liver enzymes suggests a liver or biliary cause.

      Viral hepatitis: A cholestatic picture with more significant rises in ALP and GGT over ALT and AST is not typical of acute hepatitis, which presents with a hepatocellular picture.

      In summary, interpreting liver enzyme results requires careful consideration of the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old female with epilepsy is well controlled on sodium valproate 600 mg...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with epilepsy is well controlled on sodium valproate 600 mg twice daily and had been taking oral contraceptives for three years.

      She presented to her general practitioner 12 weeks pregnant.

      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She is at increased risk of anaemia in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants and Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, taking Anticonvulsants can increase the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus. However, it is important to note that the benefits of preventing seizures outweigh the risks associated with treatment. Therefore, it is recommended that the drug be continued during pregnancy. To minimize the risks, it is advised to take folate supplements. It is also important to note that sodium valproate is not an enzyme inducer and will not speed up the metabolism of the pill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who recently moved to the United Kingdom (UK) from India visits his General Practitioner complaining of a painless penile ulcer that has been gradually increasing in size over the past year. Upon examination, the doctor observes a solitary ulcer on the glans and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but more common in Asia and Africa, particularly in India. The most common type of penile cancer is squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC), which typically presents as a non-healing ulcer in men in their sixth decade. Behçet’s disease is a multisystem disorder that presents with recurrent painful oral and genital ulcers, along with other symptoms such as malaise, myopathy, headaches, and fevers. Adenocarcinoma is a less common type of penile cancer that tends to appear flatter and scalier than SCC. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) and syphilis are both sexually transmitted infections that can cause genital ulceration, but they present with different symptoms and require different treatments. HSV causes painful ulceration and tender lymphadenopathy, while syphilis presents with a painless chancre and painless inguinal lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 15 - A toddler is brought in for a development review. The child has a...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought in for a development review. The child has a vocabulary of approximately 50 single words, some two-word phrases and many of the words can be easily understood by strangers.
      Which of the following is the most likely age range for this child if development is normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18-24 months

      Explanation:

      Speech Development Milestones in Children: From 12-42 Months

      Speech development in children is a gradual process that varies from child to child. It starts with responding to sounds and progresses to babbling and saying simple words like mama and dada. By 18-24 months, children have a vocabulary of 50 or more words and can use some two-word phrases. By 24-30 months, their vocabulary expands to about 300 words, including names. Between two and three years, children can form sentences of three to five words and use pronouns, plurals, and past tense. By three to four years, they can use three to six words per sentence, ask and answer questions, and tell stories. It’s important to note that speech delay affects between 6% and 19% of children, and early detection and intervention can prevent educational, emotional, and social problems. Serious causes of delayed speech include deafness, learning disability, and autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 16 - A 78-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing bothersome widespread pruritus. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing bothersome widespread pruritus. He is also jaundiced and has refused a biliary stent. Despite trying various emollients, including one with menthol, he has not found relief.
      What medication would be the most suitable to test for this patient's pruritus symptoms?
      Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxyzine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treating the underlying cause of pruritus if possible. However, in palliative care patients, symptom management is the primary focus. For widespread pruritus, sedating antihistamines like hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine may be used. Gamma-aminobutyric (GABA) drugs like gabapentin and pregabalin may also be considered, but consultation with a specialist is recommended. Topical calamine lotion has limited evidence for effectiveness and is not recommended by NICE. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus and is not appropriate for palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with generalised pruritus. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with generalised pruritus. She has metastatic disease from endometrial carcinoma and is not jaundiced. What is the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollient

      Explanation:

      Managing Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients: Causes and Treatment Options

      Pruritus, or severe itching, is a common symptom in palliative care patients with advanced disease. It can be caused by various factors such as uraemia, cholestasis, opioids, solid tumors, and hematologic disorders. Dry skin is also a common accompanying factor in all causes of pruritus. Therefore, regular skin lubrication is a crucial part of managing pruritus in palliative care patients.

      Topical agents such as levomenthol cream, lidocaine ointment, capsaicin, and topical corticosteroids can also be helpful in managing pruritus. However, the use of H1 receptor antagonists (antihistamines) is not always effective as they only work in cases where histamine release occurs in the skin, which is not the primary cause of pruritus in palliative care patients.

      Cholestasis is one of the causes of pruritus, but the pathogenesis is still unclear. Lowering the level of bile acids with cholestyramine is often ineffective as there is no correlation between the level of bile acids and the severity of pruritus. Serotonin may have a role in pruritus secondary to malignant disease, cholestasis, uraemia, and opioids. Therefore, medications such as paroxetine, mirtazapine, and ondansetron can be used to manage pruritus in palliative care patients.

      In conclusion, managing pruritus in palliative care patients requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the underlying causes and provides symptomatic relief. Regular skin lubrication and the use of topical agents and medications such as paroxetine, mirtazapine, and ondansetron can be helpful in managing pruritus in palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion. She has missed her last three periods and took a pregnancy test which came out positive. Her boyfriend is also 16 years old. It is probable that she will need a surgical termination of pregnancy due to her gestation. However, she doesn't wish to inform her parents. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explore why she doesn't want her parents to know, discuss her options and if she wishes refer her for a termination of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Although she is a minor, she can provide consent for medical intervention but cannot refuse it. Her right to confidentiality must be respected regardless of her age.

      If she decides to undergo a surgical termination of pregnancy, it will require hospitalization, and it is unlikely that she can keep it a secret from her parents. Therefore, it is best to address this issue sensitively from the beginning. If a doctor has ethical objections to abortion, they should refer her to another doctor.

      Referring her for counseling will only cause further delay in an already overdue abortion.

      As previously discussed, the patient’s confidentiality must be upheld.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old man is found to have a raised cholesterol level on routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is found to have a raised cholesterol level on routine blood tests. His blood pressure is normal; he is not diabetic, and his QRISK®3 score is 15%. He drinks 12 units of alcohol per week.
      What would be the most appropriate management option in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start 20 mg atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Management of High Cholesterol – Dosage and Referral Guidelines

      Explanation:

      When managing high cholesterol, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure appropriate treatment. According to NICE guidelines, lipid-lowering therapy should be offered if the QRISK®3 score is > 10%. For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, a dose of 20 mg atorvastatin is indicated.

      While lifestyle advice is important, drug treatment should be offered to modify cholesterol levels for patients at high risk of atherosclerosis. Referral to the Lipid Clinic is only necessary if the patient has not tolerated three different types of statin or has a family history of familial hypercholesterolaemia.

      For this patient, a higher dose of statins is not necessary as he has not had any episode of arterial disease. Therefore, he should be started on a lower dose of statins, such as 20 mg atorvastatin. If his cholesterol level doesn’t respond, the dose may need to be increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had sexual intercourse 3 days ago and is currently not using any form of birth control. After discussing her options, you both agree that she will take EllaOne (Ulipristal Acetate) and start a progestin-only pill for ongoing contraception.

      What guidance should you provide to this woman regarding the use of these contraceptives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take EllaOne today and then start combined oral contraceptive pill 5 days later

      Explanation:

      Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before beginning regular hormonal contraception. It is crucial to note that the effectiveness of EllaOne decreases if progestogen is used within 5 days after taking it. Therefore, it is essential to start hormonal contraceptives 5 days after taking EllaOne. Starting the combined oral contraceptive pill at the same time or less than 5 days after taking EllaOne would be incorrect. It is a misconception that EllaOne is only effective if the combined oral contraceptive pill has already been started. Taking EllaOne 14 days after the start of the last menstrual period is also incorrect. The copper coil could be inserted as an effective form of contraception 5 days after the expected date of ovulation, but EllaOne must be taken within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 21 - A 6-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother and stepfather....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother and stepfather. He has a 2-month history of intermittent abdominal pain. The pain is colicky in nature and periumbilical. His appetite is slightly reduced. He is not constipated. The pain is causing him to miss some school, but he also experiences it at the weekend. The patient is otherwise normal and his height and weight are on the 50th centile.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Functional abdominal pain is a common condition among children, affecting up to 25% of them. It is characterized by pain in the abdominal area that is not caused by any organic factors. Symptoms that may indicate a non-organic cause include pain near the belly button, absence of other gastrointestinal symptoms, no disturbance in sleep, normal physical examination, and the child’s overall well-being. In most cases, a thorough history, examination, and explanation are sufficient to manage the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, referral to a pediatrician and further investigations may be necessary to rule out organic causes. School refusal is a psychological disorder that causes severe anxiety in children when attending school or being separated from their parents. Abdominal pain may be a symptom, but it is not usually experienced on weekends. Abdominal migraine is characterized by sudden episodes of intense pain in the periumbilical area, lasting for at least an hour, accompanied by anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia, or pallor. Intussusception is a rare condition that occurs mostly in infants aged five to ten months, making it unlikely to be the diagnosis for this patient. Irritable bowel syndrome is also unlikely as the patient has no changes in bowel habits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 22 - Samantha is a 50-year-old factory worker whose hearing has been gradually declining over...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 50-year-old factory worker whose hearing has been gradually declining over the past 4 years. She has been exposed to loud noises in her workplace for many years.

      Samantha finally decided to visit her doctor 3 months ago, as she was hesitant to seek help, and her hearing has now severely deteriorated. After undergoing audiology testing, she was diagnosed with bilateral sensorineural hearing loss.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of hearing aids

      Explanation:

      Before considering a cochlear implant, both children and adults must undergo an assessment by a multidisciplinary team. As part of this assessment, they should have tried using an acoustic hearing aid for at least three months. Cochlear implantation is recommended for individuals with severe to profound deafness who do not receive sufficient benefit from hearing aids.

      Mark should try to avoid noisy environments, including his current workplace, to prevent further damage to his hearing. However, it is not advisable for him to immediately stop working. Instead, he should discuss his situation with his occupational health team to explore options for working in a quieter environment.

      While education on sign language and lip reading may be helpful, it is important to note that adults who become deaf are unlikely to become proficient in sign language.

      It is incorrect to tell Mark that nothing more can be done. He may be eligible for a trial of hearing aids and referral for a cochlear implant if necessary.

      A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.

      Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.

      The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.

      Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 23 - Linda is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing symptoms of poor concentration,...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing symptoms of poor concentration, hot flashes, and low mood for the past 9 months. Despite making lifestyle changes, Linda is still struggling to manage her symptoms. She has come to you seeking advice on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and is eager to start treatment soon.

      Linda has a medical history of controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes, both of which are relatively well managed. Her BMI is 31 kg/m² and there is no family history of VTE.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing Linda's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      Transdermal HRT is a safer option than oral HRT for women at risk of VTE, according to NICE guidelines. Sharon’s BMI puts her at risk of VTE, so prescribing oral HRT would not be appropriate. Recommending lifestyle changes would not be effective as Sharon has already tried this. Seeking specialist advice is unnecessary as starting transdermal HRT in primary care is safe and reasonable. While antidepressants can be considered for menopausal symptoms, it is not necessary in this case as HRT is a viable option for Sharon.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 24 - For which countries is malaria prophylaxis recommended for travel? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which countries is malaria prophylaxis recommended for travel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chile

      Explanation:

      Malaria Prevention for Travellers

      Antimalarials are recommended for travellers visiting Ghana due to the high risk of contracting the disease. However, the risk is very low in Brunei and preventative measures such as avoiding mosquito bites are advised instead of medication.

      For those travelling to Ghana, the Public Health England recommended regime includes mefloquine, doxycycline or atovaquone plus proguanil. However, antimalarial prophylaxis is not required for any of the other destinations listed.

      In addition to medication, there are many other ways to reduce the risk of infection. It is important to wear long-sleeved clothes and cover exposed skin, especially during high-risk times after dusk. Repellents such as skin sprays and vaporisers can also be effective, as well as using mosquito nets while sleeping. It is also important to be cautious near water and swampland. By taking these precautions, travellers can greatly reduce their risk of contracting malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old woman presents with painless pitting oedema of the right lower leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with painless pitting oedema of the right lower leg. It has been present for 2 months. She has noticed some abdominal bloating and has lost a little weight. There is no calf tenderness, or erythema. She has well-controlled hypertension and takes amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic examination

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Causes of Leg Swelling: Importance of History and Examination

      Leg swelling can be caused by a variety of factors, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. Bilateral swelling is often linked to systemic conditions, while unilateral swelling is more commonly due to local causes. In cases of unilateral swelling, a pelvic mass should be considered as a potential cause. While a recent deep vein thrombosis is unlikely in this patient, a careful history and examination, along with appropriate tests, are necessary to determine the underlying cause. Symptomatic treatments should not be used without a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his left eye spreading across his forehead. During the headache, he has difficulty speaking. Three minutes later he has developed clumsiness in his right hand, and two minutes after that he describes his right leg as ‘feeling heavy’. His speech and limb symptoms have disappeared after 20 minutes, but his headache persists for six hours. He suffered from migraines as a teenager but has not had an attack in over 15 years. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neurological Symptoms: Differential Diagnosis

      When presented with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of transient symptoms accompanied by a prolonged headache history, migraine with aura is a likely possibility. The aura may be visual, sensory, motor, or a combination of these and typically lasts less than 60 minutes.

      While a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) could explain the neurological symptoms, it is unlikely to account for the prolonged headache history. A berry aneurysm, on the other hand, would not cause transient symptoms and would more likely result in a sudden-onset severe headache if ruptured.

      Cluster headaches, which are accompanied by autonomic symptoms on the same side of the head as the pain, are more common in smokers but would not explain the transient neurological symptoms.

      Finally, a subarachnoid haemorrhage typically presents as a sudden-onset severe headache, which is not consistent with the rapid resolution of the neurological symptoms in this case.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of neurological symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 24-year-old male visits his GP 3 weeks after a car accident, worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male visits his GP 3 weeks after a car accident, worried about experiencing heightened anxiety, fatigue, and headaches. He had undergone a CT scan of his brain immediately after the incident, which showed no anomalies. After 6 months, his symptoms have disappeared. What was the probable cause of his initial symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-concussion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder typically has a delayed onset of symptoms and a protracted course.

      Understanding Post-Concussion Syndrome

      Post-concussion syndrome is a condition that can occur after a person experiences even a minor head injury. It is characterized by a range of symptoms that can persist for weeks or even months after the initial injury. The most common symptoms of post-concussion syndrome include headaches, fatigue, anxiety or depression, and dizziness.

      Individuals who experience post-concussion syndrome may find that their symptoms interfere with their daily activities and quality of life. They may struggle to concentrate or remember things, and they may feel irritable or moody. In some cases, post-concussion syndrome can also cause sleep disturbances or sensitivity to light and noise.

      While the exact cause of post-concussion syndrome is not fully understood, it is believed to be related to changes in brain function that occur after a head injury. Treatment for post-concussion syndrome may involve a combination of medications, therapy, and lifestyle changes to manage symptoms and promote healing. With proper care, many people with post-concussion syndrome are able to recover fully and return to their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the anterior triangle of his neck, located in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is movable, fluctuant, painless, has no visible punctum, and doesn't shift with swallowing.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing a Branchial Cyst from Other Neck Swellings

      A swelling located in front of the anterior border of the sternomastoid muscle at the junction of its upper and middle thirds is likely a branchial cyst, which is a remnant of the second branchial cleft. It commonly appears in the second or third decade of life and may enlarge during upper respiratory tract infections. The cyst can range in size from 1-10 cm and is typically painless, although it may become tender during an acute stage. Unlike an infected lymph node, there is no overlying punctum, and it is not attached to any underlying structures. Ultrasound can confirm the cystic nature of the lesion. An enlarged thyroid lobe is an incorrect diagnosis as it moves with swallowing. A sebaceous cyst usually has an overlying punctum, and a thyroglossal cyst is typically located midline and rises with swallowing or tongue protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of appetite of recent origin. Her serum creatinine is 230 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and urea is 13.5 mmol/l (2.5-6.5 mmol/l). She has taken diclofenac for pain relief for several years.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this side-effect of diclofenac.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is likely to be reversible if the drug is stopped

      Explanation:

      The Renal Risks of NSAIDs

      One of the most common renal problems is sodium retention, which leads to water retention and oedema. This issue is particularly concerning for patients with pre-existing heart failure, as it can worsen their condition. Additionally, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone, especially in patients with diabetes, heart failure, or multiple myeloma. If the patient is taking potassium-sparing diuretics or ACE inhibitors, the hyperkalaemia may be more severe.

      NSAIDs can cause two types of acute renal failure. The first is haemodynamically mediated, where inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis can lead to reversible renal ischemia, a fall in GFR, and acute renal failure. The second is direct toxic effects on the kidney, such as acute tubular necrosis and acute interstitial nephritis. Adverse renal effects are generally reversible upon discontinuation of NSAID treatment. Glomerulosclerosis, typically caused by diabetes, can also be caused by drug-induced glomerular disease, including that caused by NSAIDs.

      High-dose NSAID use may significantly increase the risk of accelerated renal function decline in patients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, caution should always be exercised when using NSAIDs, and they should be given at the lowest effective dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 30 - A 15-year-old boy presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent nighttime cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent nighttime cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath for several months. He has a history of hay fever and eczema. On examination, the patient appears well at rest with normal vital signs. Mild expiratory wheezing is noted, and his peak expiratory flow rate is 85% of predicted. A recent spirometry test was negative.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for this patient is asthma with a mild exacerbation, even if the spirometry test result is negative. Further investigation is necessary, and a fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A FeNO result of >35ppb would be diagnostic for this patient. Another spirometry test is unlikely to provide more clarity. Treatment for this patient includes a salbutamol reliever inhaler and a preventer inhaler. A respiratory referral is not necessary at this time since there are no complications to the diagnosis or treatment. Although the patient is atopic, there are no concerning risk factors in the history or examination that warrant a chest x-ray.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
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