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  • Question 1 - An 88-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with central crushing chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) in the ambulance shows 3 mm ST elevation in the anterior leads consistent with a STEMI. His wife says he has a history of ischaemic heart disease and congestive cardiac failure. He has a cardiac arrest in the ED secondary to ventricular fibrillation. Despite resuscitation using advanced cardiac life support, he dies. His wife asks what will happen to his body.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management for this deceased patient?

      Your Answer: Fill in the death certificate stating cause of death in part 1 as cardiac arrest

      Correct Answer: Refer to the coroner

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Filling out a Death Certificate

      When filling out a death certificate, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accuracy and completeness. If the death was sudden and unexpected, it should be referred to the coroner. In part 1 of the certificate, the specific disease, illness, or complication that led to death should be stated, not a mode of dying. Terms such as cardiac arrest, old age, and coma are not suitable for part 1. In part 2, any conditions that may have contributed to the death should be listed, but terms such as heart failure, liver failure, and kidney failure are not acceptable. By following these guidelines, death certificates can provide valuable information for medical research and public health purposes.

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      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 2 - Based on the most recent guidance regarding cosmetic surgery from the General Medical...

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    • Based on the most recent guidance regarding cosmetic surgery from the General Medical Council, (GMC), which of the following statements is true if we consider the latest age criteria?

      Your Answer: The person undertaking the procedure must not delegate the responsibility of discussing it with the patient and seeking their consent

      Explanation:

      Understanding GMC Guidelines for Cosmetic Procedures

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided guidelines for cosmetic procedures that must be followed by all medical professionals. It is important to understand these guidelines, even as a junior doctor, as you may be asked to be involved in cosmetic procedures.

      Firstly, the person performing the procedure must be the one to discuss it with the patient and obtain their consent. Consent must be obtained by someone with the experience to perform the procedure and answer any questions the patient may have. For cosmetic procedures, the doctor performing the procedure must seek consent themselves.

      While cosmetic procedures can be performed on patients under 18 years old, certain conditions must be met. The procedure must be in the best interest of the child, the environment must be suitable for young people, and advertising must not target children directly.

      It is important to discuss the procedure with the patient’s GP, but only with the patient’s consent. If the patient does not want their GP involved, this must be recorded in the notes and the surgeon should consider whether the procedure should still go ahead.

      Cosmetic services must not be provided as a prize, according to the GMC guidelines. Injectable cosmetic medicines, such as Botox, cannot be prescribed by telephone. A physical examination of the patient must be carried out before prescribing these medicines.

      In conclusion, understanding the GMC guidelines for cosmetic procedures is crucial for all medical professionals. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of patients undergoing cosmetic procedures.

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      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 3 - An 85-year-old woman visits her GP with her daughter to discuss advance care...

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    • An 85-year-old woman visits her GP with her daughter to discuss advance care planning. She has a history of a stroke three years ago with dense hemiplegia, ischaemic heart disease and COPD on home oxygen. She has had several recent hospital admissions for exacerbations. She has a very limited quality of life and desires to be managed palliatively at home for future exacerbations.
      What is required to establish the legal validity of an advance directive?

      Your Answer: A witnessed signature

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Limitations of Advance Directives

      Advance directives are legal documents that allow individuals to make decisions about their future medical care in case they become unable to communicate their wishes. However, it is important to understand their limitations.

      One limitation is that advance directives cannot be used to request specific medical treatments. They only allow individuals to refuse certain treatments they do not want. Additionally, advance directives cannot be used to request something that is illegal, such as assisted suicide.

      Another limitation is that advance directives cannot be used to refuse treatment for a mental health condition. Doctors are empowered to treat such conditions under Part 4 of the Mental Health Act.

      It is also important to note that advance directives do not allow individuals to choose someone to make decisions for them, unless that person is given lasting power of attorney (LPA).

      Understanding these limitations can help individuals make informed decisions about their future medical care and ensure that their wishes are properly documented.

      Limitations of Advance Directives in Medical Decision Making

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      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman in hospital with terminal cancer has suddenly deteriorated over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman in hospital with terminal cancer has suddenly deteriorated over the last week. She can no longer communicate her decisions with regard to her health care. She had previously made an advanced decision that stated she did not want to be put on a ventilator.
      In which one of the following scenarios would the advanced decision be considered valid?

      Your Answer: The decision was communicated verbally only

      Correct Answer: The decision may stand valid even if not made via a solicitor

      Explanation:

      Validity of Advanced Directives: Factors to Consider

      When creating an advanced directive, it is important to ensure that it is valid and legally binding. Here are some factors to consider:

      1. Solicitor involvement: While it is not necessary to involve a solicitor in creating an advanced directive, it is advisable to do so to ensure that all wishes are documented clearly in accordance with the Mental Capacity Act.

      2. Witnessing: The decision to refuse life-sustaining treatment must be both signed by the patient AND witnessed in the presence of someone else who can vouch for its authenticity. If the directive was not witnessed, it is not valid.

      3. Age: A person must be aged 18 or over to make an advanced decision, so being 17 would invalidate the directive.

      4. LPA decisions: When deciding between decisions stated on an advanced directive and those made by a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA), it is the decision that was made most recently which takes priority. In this case, as the advanced directive was created before the LPA was appointed, it is the best interest’s decision made by the LPA that is considered.

      5. Written documentation: The decision must be written down, a verbal decision is not acceptable and will not be considered valid.

      By considering these factors, individuals can ensure that their advanced directives are valid and legally binding.

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      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 5 - Who sets the rules on treatment and investigation of 16-year olds who lack...

    Incorrect

    • Who sets the rules on treatment and investigation of 16-year olds who lack capacity to consent in Scotland?

      Your Answer: The decision regarding young person’s competence in R v Gillick

      Correct Answer: Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000

      Explanation:

      Overview of Scottish Legislation and Guidance for Capacity and Welfare

      In Scotland, there are several pieces of legislation and guidance in place to safeguard the welfare and manage the finances of individuals who lack capacity due to mental disorder or inability to communicate. The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 provides the framework for this, while the Age of Legal Capacity (Scotland) Act 1991 presumes that all individuals aged 16 and over have the capacity to consent to treatment unless there is evidence to the contrary.

      The Children’s Act (Scotland) 1995 sets out the duties and powers available to public authorities to support children and their families and intervene when a child’s welfare requires it. The Scotland’s Commissioner for Children and Young People guidance explains the rights of young people under the age of 18.

      In addition, the decision regarding young person’s competence in R v Gillick established the concept of Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines, which are used to assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and understand the implications of those decisions.

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  • Question 6 - An 88-year-old man is admitted with severe community-acquired pneumonia, CURB-65 score is 4....

    Correct

    • An 88-year-old man is admitted with severe community-acquired pneumonia, CURB-65 score is 4. He has been an inpatient on the ward where you are working as an FY1 for two weeks. His condition has progressively worsened, and the decision is made to switch to a palliative approach of management. He passes away the following morning, with his wife by his side. You confirm his death on the ward. He has a past medical history of ischaemic heart disease, mesothelioma, hypertension, type 2 diabetes and benign prostate hypertrophy (BPH).
      Which of the following should you do when completing his death certificate?

      Your Answer: Complete part 1 stating community-acquired pneumonia, complete part 2 stating ischaemic heart disease type 2 diabetes and mesothelioma.

      Explanation:

      Completing a Death Certificate

      When completing a death certificate, it is important to accurately state the cause of death in part 1. If there were other conditions that were not part of the main causal sequence of death but likely played a role in hastening the death, they should be listed in part 2. However, it is not necessary to list the patient’s entire medical history in part 2. The form should be completed by the doctor who attended to the patient during their last illness and is familiar with their medical history, investigations, and treatment. Access to relevant medical records and investigation results is also important.

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      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old is brought in by her friend to the Emergency Department (ED)....

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old is brought in by her friend to the Emergency Department (ED). She is intoxicated, and you suspect that she has taken an overdose of an unknown drug. Her friend leaves before you can gather any additional information from her.
      Despite your best resuscitation efforts, the patient ultimately passes away. Upon reviewing her medical records, you discover that she has no prior medical or psychiatric history and has never been hospitalized before.
      In terms of medicolegal considerations, who should you notify first in this situation?

      Your Answer: The coroner

      Explanation:

      Roles and Responsibilities in a Suspicious Death Case

      In cases where a death is deemed suspicious or unnatural, it is important to involve the appropriate authorities. In the case of a patient who has taken an overdose and passed away, the following individuals may be involved:

      1. The Coroner: The death should be referred to the coroner as there are reasonable grounds to believe that the death is suspicious. The coroner may request a post-mortem.

      2. The Pathologist: If a post-mortem is carried out, the pathologist will be involved in determining the cause of death.

      3. The Police: The police will likely be involved in investigating the circumstances surrounding the death.

      4. The On-Call Registrar: The on-call registrar may already be aware of the situation, but the priority should be informing the coroner.

      5. The Registrar for Births and Deaths: The next of kin should be traced and informed, and the registrar for births and deaths will be informed when the death certificate is issued.

      Overall, it is important to follow proper procedures and involve the appropriate authorities in cases of suspicious or unnatural deaths.

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      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting erratic behavior,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting erratic behavior, causing concern among her neighbors who fear for her safety. Despite attempts to reach out to her at home, she has not responded. To ensure she can be assessed in a place of safety, which Section of the Mental Health Act would be most appropriate to issue?

      Your Answer: Section 5(2)

      Correct Answer: Section 135

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act

      The Mental Health Act provides legal frameworks for the assessment, treatment, and detention of individuals with mental health disorders. Here are the different sections of the Act and how they apply in different situations:

      Section 135: This section allows the police to break into a person’s property if they refuse to be assessed and their safety is at risk. A court order is required before the person can be sectioned under Section 135. The police can then assess the person with an approved mental health practitioner and a doctor in their home or in a place of safety.

      Section 2: This section allows for the admission of a person for assessment for up to 28 days if necessary. However, the immediate concern is gaining access to the person’s property to assess whether this is required.

      Section 3: This section can be used if, after assessment, it is determined that the person needs to be admitted for treatment for up to six months.

      Section 5(2): This section can only be used by a doctor to detain someone for 72 hours when they are already in hospital voluntarily. It is not applicable to a person in their private property.

      Section 136: This section allows the police to remove a person from a public place who appears to have a mental health disorder. It is not applicable to a person in their own private property.

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      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital two weeks ago, having collapsed at...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital two weeks ago, having collapsed at home. He has a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease and has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) in the past. During admission, he was found to be short of breath and tachycardic, with an irregular heart rate. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed a narrow complex tachycardia, with absent P waves. He is now medically fit for discharge.
      What advice should you give to this patient about driving?

      Your Answer: He will need to see his General Practitioner (GP) in two weeks to ensure he is fit to start driving

      Correct Answer: He will need to have been successfully treated for four weeks before he can start driving again

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guidelines for Driving After Atrial Fibrillation Treatment

      After being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation (AF), a patient must be successfully treated for four weeks before resuming driving, according to guidelines. There is no need to inform the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) if the underlying cause of the collapsing episode is known. The patient can return to driving as soon as they are ready, but driving short distances initially is not a safe option. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and the public.

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      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 10 - A medical registrar is obtaining consent from a 42-year-old patient with longstanding ulcerative...

    Incorrect

    • A medical registrar is obtaining consent from a 42-year-old patient with longstanding ulcerative colitis who is listed for a surveillance colonoscopy that afternoon.
      Regarding consent, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: You need consent to perform an emergency appendicectomy on an 11-year-old child

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic privilege can allow you to withhold information from a patient in certain, very specific situations

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic privilege allows doctors to withhold information from patients in certain situations where disclosure could cause serious harm or if the patient is not emotionally stable enough to handle the information. It is important to discuss these situations with senior colleagues and document the reasons for withholding information. Contrary to popular belief, patients should be informed of common and serious complications of treatment, regardless of the likelihood of occurrence. A signed consent form does not protect doctors from negligence claims, as they have a duty of care to inform patients. In emergency situations, such as an appendectomy for a child, consent may not be required, but it is still preferable to discuss the case with all parties involved. Patients who are heavily intoxicated may not have the capacity to refuse life-saving treatment, and it is necessary to wait until they are sober to discuss treatment options or proceed with urgent treatment.

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      • Ethics And Legal
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Ethics And Legal (4/10) 40%
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