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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements regarding bronchiolitis is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding bronchiolitis is true?

      Your Answer: Peak incidence is 3-6 months of age

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2374
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found collapsed on the streets. She appears confused, ataxic, and is slurring her speech. The patient is very emotional and does not respond to any questions. The initial assessment reveals tachycardia and hypertension. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score = 13 (E4V4M5). An ABCDE approach is taken to stabilize the patient, and an arterial blood gas (ABG) and blood test are carried out.

      The results of the blood test are as follows:
      - pH 7.28
      - pCO2 3.6 kPa
      - pO2 11.4 kPa
      - HCO3- 20 mmol/L
      - Na+ 132 mmol/L
      - K+ 4.1 mmol/L
      - Chloride 94 mmol/L
      - Glucose 4.1 mmol/L
      - Urea 7.7 mmol/L
      - Ethanol 20 mmol/L ( <17.4 mmol/L)
      - Serum osmolality 301 mOsm/kg (275-295 mOsm/kg)

      Note: The estimated serum osmolality can be calculated as 2 x (Na+ + K+) + urea + glucose + (ethanol/4). Normal osmolar gap = -3 to 10. Normal anion gap = 10-18 mmol/L (assuming K+ is used as part of the calculation).

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Acute ethanol intoxication

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol toxicity

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with a metabolic acidosis, low pH, low bicarbonate, and partial respiratory compensation should have their anion gap calculated to determine the cause. In this case, the anion gap is raised, indicating a possible toxic alcohol ingestion. The serum osmolality should also be measured, and the expected serum osmolarity calculated. If the difference between the two is high, it indicates an abnormal, unmeasured solute, known as the osmolar gap. In this case, the osmolar gap is raised, further supporting the diagnosis of ethylene glycol poisoning. Other potential causes, such as methanol, renal failure, diabetic ketoacidosis, and lactic acidosis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s presentation and laboratory results. It is important to note that ethanol ingestion may be present in cases of ethylene glycol poisoning, but it alone would not explain the symptoms. Ethylene glycol is commonly found in antifreeze and can be used as a method of attempted suicide.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman presents with severe vomiting to the Emergency Department. She was...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with severe vomiting to the Emergency Department. She was given a course of antibiotics a few days earlier (amoxicillin and metronidazole) for a sinus infection. You understand that she has had a few glasses of wine earlier in the day for a family gathering.
      Investigations: Urine 2+ blood, no protein
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 142 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 170 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 9.8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 125 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her vomiting?

      Your Answer: Disulfiram reaction

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Disulfiram Reaction: A Potential Side-Effect of Certain Drugs

      The disulfiram reaction is a well-known side-effect of certain drugs, including metronidazole, chloral hydrate, griseofulvin, and disulfiram itself. This reaction occurs when the activity of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is blocked, leading to a significant increase in serum acetaldehyde levels following alcohol ingestion. Symptoms of the disulfiram reaction include vomiting, headache, dizziness, confusion, anxiety, and hypotension, as well as a sulfurous or garlic odor on the breath. Patients who are prescribed metronidazole or related drugs should be warned of this potential side-effect.

      While viral and bacterial gastroenteritis can also cause vomiting and diarrhea, the close relationship between alcohol and metronidazole makes the disulfiram reaction the more likely cause in this scenario. Gram-negative sepsis is unlikely given the absence of sepsis symptoms and normal white blood cell count. Understanding the disulfiram reaction is important for healthcare professionals to properly diagnose and manage this potential side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Word salad

      Correct Answer: Clanging

      Explanation:

      Language Disturbances in Mental Illness

      Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.

      These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9
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  • Question 5 - A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital with jaundice and altered consciousness. He had been previously admitted for ascites and jaundice. Upon investigation, his bilirubin levels were found to be 44 µmol/L (5.1-22), serum albumin levels were 28 g/L (40-50), and his prothrombin time was 21 seconds (13 seconds). The patient had a fluid thrill in his abdomen and exhibited asterixis. Although he was awake, he was unable to distinguish between day and night. What is the patient's Child-Pugh score (CTP)?

      Your Answer: 12

      Explanation:

      The Child-Turcotte-Pugh score (CTP) is used to assess disease severity in cirrhosis of liver. It consists of five clinical measures, each scored from 1 to 3 according to severity. The minimum score is 5 and maximum score is 15. Once a score has been calculated, the patient is graded A, B, or C for severity. The CTP score is primarily used to decide the need for liver transplantation. However, some criticisms of this scoring system highlight the fact that each of the five categories is given equal weighting, which is not always appropriate. Additionally, in two specific diseases, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), the bilirubin cut-off levels in the table are markedly different.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain for...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain for the past 2 days and vomiting for the past 24 hours. She has a medical history of hypertension, glaucoma, and hysterectomy 20 years ago. During the examination, her abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s history of previous intra-abdominal surgery, it is highly probable that they are suffering from small bowel obstruction caused by adhesions. Symptoms typically include early vomiting and later absolute constipation. Treatment involves administering IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric tube. Diagnostic tests such as an abdominal x-ray to check for dilated bowel loops and an erect chest x-ray to detect pneumoperitoneum may be necessary. If conservative treatment fails to improve the patient’s condition, a CT scan may be required to determine the location and type of obstruction. Close collaboration with the surgical team is also recommended.

      Imaging for Bowel Obstruction

      Bowel obstruction is a condition that requires immediate medical attention. One of the key indications for diagnosing this condition is through imaging, particularly an abdominal film. The imaging process is done to identify whether the obstruction is in the small or large bowel.

      In small bowel obstruction, the maximum normal diameter is 35 mm, and the valvulae conniventes extend all the way across. On the other hand, in large bowel obstruction, the maximum normal diameter is 55 mm, and the haustra extend about a third of the way across.

      A CT scan is also used to diagnose small bowel obstruction. The scan shows distension of small bowel loops proximally, such as the duodenum and jejunum, with an abrupt transition to an intestinal segment of normal caliber. Additionally, a small amount of free fluid intracavity may be present.

      In summary, imaging is a crucial tool in diagnosing bowel obstruction. It helps identify the location of the obstruction and the extent of the damage. Early detection and treatment of bowel obstruction can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man with colorectal carcinoma, Dukes stage D, has severe pain from...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with colorectal carcinoma, Dukes stage D, has severe pain from bony metastases. He has undergone courses of radiation therapy and intravenous infusion of bisphosphonates, which have failed to control his pain. He is currently taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. When previously given opiate analgesia, he became very drowsy and poorly responsive. His pain score is 9/10 at rest and he becomes very distressed when being moved by nursing staff.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: Give the patient opiate medications to control the pain despite the risk of sedation

      Explanation:

      Pain Management in Palliative Care

      In palliative care, the primary goal is to provide aggressive comfort care and achieve symptom control. When it comes to managing pain, the first priority should be to control it, even if it means risking sedation and respiratory depression. This is especially true for patients with a limited life expectancy, where quality of life is of utmost importance.

      Relaxation techniques may not be effective in resolving complex pain, so other interventions should be considered. Radiotherapy may not be helpful if it did not work previously. Similarly, bisphosphonates may not be suitable if they did not work before. Stronger nonsteroidal medications may also not be beneficial if the patient is already taking an NSAID as an adjuvant therapy.

      In summary, pain management in palliative care requires a tailored approach that prioritizes symptom control and quality of life. Healthcare providers should consider the patient’s individual needs and preferences when deciding on the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary...

    Incorrect

    • The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?

      Your Answer: 1 per 10 million donations

      Correct Answer: 1 per 1 million donations

      Explanation:

      Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion

      Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left side of her hand and forearm. Upon examination, there is no indication of muscle wasting, but there is slight weakness in finger adduction and flexion. Reflexes are normal. Sensory testing reveals a decrease in pinprick sensation in the tips of the ring and little fingers and over the hypothenar eminence.
      What is the location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Ulnar neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between nerve lesions: Ulnar neuropathy, C6/C7 root lesion, carpal tunnel syndrome, radial neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy

      When assessing a patient with neurological symptoms in the upper limb, it is important to differentiate between different nerve lesions. An ulnar neuropathy will affect the small muscles of the hand, except for a few supplied by the median nerve. Sensory loss will be felt in the ring and little fingers, as well as the medial border of the middle finger.

      A C6/C7 root lesion will cause weakness in elbow and wrist flexion/extension, as well as finger extensors. Sensory loss will be felt in the thumb and first two fingers, but not the lateral border of the ring finger. Reflexes for biceps and triceps will be lost.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, causing atrophy of the thenar eminence and paraesthesiae in the lateral three and a half digits.

      A radial neuropathy will cause a wrist drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the hand.

      Finally, a peripheral neuropathy will be symmetrical, with loss of sensation over both hands and weakness in distal muscles.

      By understanding the specific symptoms associated with each nerve lesion, healthcare professionals can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which bone fracture is most effectively diagnosed using an oblique radiological view? ...

    Correct

    • Which bone fracture is most effectively diagnosed using an oblique radiological view?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      Scaphoid Injuries and Diagnosis

      The scaphoid is the carpal bone that is most commonly injured in the wrist, with only distal radius fractures being more frequent. These injuries are often misdiagnosed as sprained wrists, and they are most commonly seen in young men. To diagnose a scaphoid injury, routine radiographs are taken, including anteroposterior, lateral, and oblique views. The AP view is done with a mildly clenched fist and the wrist in ulnar deviation, while the lateral view is done with the wrist in a neutral position.

      When the scaphoid is injured, the lateral view will show a disruption of the alignment of the distal radius, lunate, and capitate bones, which should be collinear. If radiographs are negative despite clinical suspicion of a scaphoid fracture, the patient’s wrist is immobilized and radiographs are repeated in two weeks. If plain films continue to be negative but clinical suspicion remains, further imaging should be pursued.

      Bone scan and computed tomography have been used with about equal accuracy to detect occult fractures, while polytomography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can also be used, although they are more expensive. MRI can demonstrate much more anatomy and, because of increasing affordability, may soon become the standard for visualizing occult fractures and ligament disruptions. Overall, early and accurate diagnosis of scaphoid injuries is crucial for proper treatment and prevention of long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Radiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the mode of action of fibrates in the management of hyperlipidemia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of fibrates in the management of hyperlipidemia?

      Your Answer: Inhibit hepatic secretion of VLDL

      Correct Answer: Stimulate increased action of the enzyme lipoprotein lipase

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of Action and Side Effects of Fibrates

      Fibrates are a class of drugs used to treat high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in the blood. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve increased lipoprotein lipase (LPL) activity, which leads to the breakdown and removal of triglycerides from the blood and their storage in adipose and muscle cells. Fibrates also increase PPAR-alpha activity, which reduces triglyceride production by the liver, increases fatty acid oxidation, and may have anti-inflammatory and anti-atherogenic effects.

      However, fibrates are not without side effects. They may cause hypoglycemia, reduce fibrinogen levels, and increase the risk of rhabdomyolysis, especially in patients with renal impairment or those taking statins. Mild gastrointestinal symptoms and myalgia are also common.

      Despite these side effects, fibrates have been shown to markedly reduce serum triglycerides and LDL cholesterol levels, while also increasing HDL cholesterol levels. However, there is no consistent evidence linking fibrates to improved mortality rates or reduced risk of coronary heart disease.

      In conclusion, fibrates are a useful class of drugs for managing high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in the blood. However, their mechanism of action is not fully understood, and they may cause side effects such as hypoglycemia and rhabdomyolysis. Patients taking fibrates should be monitored closely for these side effects and their effectiveness in reducing cholesterol levels should be regularly assessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is a clinical characteristic of acromegaly? ...

    Correct

    • What is a clinical characteristic of acromegaly?

      Your Answer: Prominent supraorbital ridge

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly: Causes, Symptoms, and Complications

      Acromegaly is a condition that results from the overproduction of growth hormone (GH) caused by a pituitary tumour. This leads to the growth of soft tissues, which manifests in various clinical features such as enlarged hands, a prominent supraorbital ridge, protruding jaw, enlarged tongue, and carpal tunnel syndrome. Other symptoms include oily skin and tingling sensations. The tumour may also cause visual field disturbances and hypopituitarism due to its mass effect.

      If left untreated, acromegaly can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiomyopathy, hyperglycaemia/diabetes mellitus, and bowel tumours. Cardiomyopathy is a significant cause of mortality in untreated acromegaly. While pituitary adenoma is the most common cause of GH excess, ectopic secretion of GH-releasing hormone from neoplasia such as a carcinoid tumour of the lung is a rare cause.

      In summary, acromegaly is a condition that results from the overproduction of GH caused by a pituitary tumour. It leads to various clinical features and can cause complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent long-term health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - As an orthopaedic ward doctor, you are examining a 24-year-old man who was...

    Correct

    • As an orthopaedic ward doctor, you are examining a 24-year-old man who was brought in by ambulance after falling from a tree branch. He reports dislocating his left hip after landing on it while flexed and abducted. The dislocation was reduced under general anaesthetic. During the current assessment, the patient reports experiencing pain primarily in the posterior area of his left thigh, which radiates down to the posterior and lateral regions of his leg. Upon gait assessment, a left foot drop was observed. Which nerve is most likely affected due to this injury?

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are indicative of a hip dislocation, which is consistent with their reported injury. It is common for the sciatic nerve to be damaged or stretched during a posterior hip dislocation, as it runs behind the femur. The pain experienced by the patient follows the path of the sciatic nerve, and the foot drop is a result of damage to the common peroneal nerve, which is supplied by the sciatic nerve. While femoral nerve injury is also possible with a posterior hip dislocation, it would result in different symptoms such as loss of sensation in the front and inside of the thigh and weakness in hip flexion and knee extension. The obturator nerve and pudendal nerve are unlikely to be affected in this case, as they would cause different symptoms such as weakness in thigh abduction or sensory impairment to the external genitalia and bladder/bowel dysfunction, respectively.

      Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications

      Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.

      There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, without leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.

      The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.

      Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are participating in a morbidity and mortality meeting following the death of...

    Incorrect

    • You are participating in a morbidity and mortality meeting following the death of a patient on the 30th day after birth. The classification of the patient's death is being debated. What is the appropriate classification for this case?

      Your Answer: Early perinatal death

      Correct Answer: Neonatal death

      Explanation:

      Neonatal death is the term used to describe the death of a baby within the first 28 days of life. This classification is important for public health interventions and is a common topic in exams. Miscarriage, on the other hand, is defined as the death of a fetus before 24 weeks of gestation in the UK, or before 28 weeks globally. Puerperal death refers to the death of a mother within the first 6 weeks after giving birth. Perinatal death is a broader term that includes stillbirths and deaths within the first week of life, often resulting from obstetric events. Early neonatal death refers to death within the first week of life, while late neonatal death refers to death after 7 days but before 28 days of life.

      Perinatal Death Rates and Related Metrics

      Perinatal mortality rate is a measure of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths within seven days per 1,000 births after 24 weeks of gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. This figure is usually broken down into 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.

      Maternal mortality rate, on the other hand, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths during pregnancy, labor, and six weeks after delivery by the total number of maternities and multiplying the result by 1000. Meanwhile, the stillbirth rate is determined by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live and stillborn) and multiplying the result by 1000. Lastly, the neonatal death rate is computed by dividing the number of babies who died between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1000.

      These metrics are important in assessing the quality of perinatal care and identifying areas for improvement. By monitoring these rates, healthcare providers can work towards reducing perinatal deaths and improving maternal and neonatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 47-year-old man with HIV and a CD4 count of 46 is found...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man with HIV and a CD4 count of 46 is found to have 'owl's eye' inclusion bodies on histological tissue staining. Which virus is this finding suggestive of?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV and Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      CMV is a virus that typically affects individuals with a weakened immune system. While a CD4 count of less than 400 is often used as a threshold for diagnosis, CMV disease is rare in HIV-positive patients unless their CD4 count drops below 50. A positive PCR result can confirm a diagnosis of CMV, which should be treated with ganciclovir. On the other hand, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which have a distinct owl’s eye appearance.

      In summary, CMV and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are two distinct medical conditions that require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. While CMV is an opportunistic virus that affects immunocompromised individuals, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that can affect anyone. By the key differences between these two conditions, healthcare professionals can provide more effective care to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An adolescent is seeking genetic counselling. His mother has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is...

    Incorrect

    • An adolescent is seeking genetic counselling. His mother has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is inherited as autosomal recessive. He has a brother with PKU.
      What is the likelihood that he carries the disease?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Phenylketonuria (PKU) Inheritance and Carrier Probability

      Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive inherited condition that affects the body’s ability to break down phenylalanine. Inheritance of PKU follows a specific pattern, where the affected allele must be inherited from both parents for the disease to manifest.

      If a person’s mother has PKU, she must be homozygous for the affected allele. If the person’s brother also has PKU, their father must be at least a carrier (heterozygous). Therefore, if the person seeking genetic counseling does not have PKU, there is a 100% certainty that they are a carrier.

      The probability of a baby born to this family having PKU is 50%, and the probability of them being a carrier is also 50%. However, as an asymptomatic teenager seeking counseling, the odds of being a carrier are 100%.

      PKU is an inborn error of metabolism that can lead to learning disabilities if not detected and treated early. It is tested for shortly after birth using the Guthrie test and can be managed by removing phenylalanine from the diet.

      Understanding the inheritance pattern and carrier probability of PKU is crucial for genetic counseling and early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 9-year-old patient comes in with a history of increasing polyuria and polydipsia...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old patient comes in with a history of increasing polyuria and polydipsia over the past eight months, along with diffuse bone pain. During the examination, the patient displays exophthalmos, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and indications of mastoiditis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Langerhans cell histiocytosis

      Explanation:

      Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis: A Rare Disorder with Unknown Cause

      Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a rare disorder that is characterized by the abnormal proliferation of histiocytes, resulting in the development of granulomatous lesions in various organs. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it can range in severity. One of the symptoms of Langerhans cell histiocytosis is bone pain, which can be accompanied by features of skull involvement. In some cases, patients with this disorder may also have diabetes insipidus.

      Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a complex condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is important for patients with symptoms of this disorder to seek medical attention as soon as possible. Treatment options may include chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and surgery, depending on the severity of the condition and the organs affected. With proper treatment, many patients with Langerhans cell histiocytosis are able to manage their symptoms and lead normal, healthy lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with bright red rectal bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with bright red rectal bleeding. The bleeding started several hours ago after he has been to the toilet to defecate and he states that if he had to guess he has lost around 'a mug's worth' of blood. He is normally fit and well and has no significant past medical history. His observations are BP 115/84 mmHg, heart rate 74/min, temperature 37.3ºC, respiration rate 12/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air.

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Supportive management

      Explanation:

      When a patient with acute PR bleeds is haemodynamically stable, the primary treatment approach is supportive management. In this scenario, the patient is likely suffering from haemorrhoids. Supportive management involves providing analgesia for pain relief, regular monitoring of the patient’s condition, and administering fluids and oxygen as necessary.

      If the patient shows signs of haemodynamic compromise, intravenous fluids and/or blood transfusions may be necessary. Endoscopy is a useful tool for identifying the underlying cause of the bleed. Colonoscopy is typically used in elective settings, while flexible sigmoidoscopy is effective in identifying haemorrhoids as the source of the bleed.

      Understanding Lower Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, also known as colonic bleeding, is characterized by the presence of bright red or dark red blood in the rectum. Unlike upper gastrointestinal bleeding, colonic bleeding rarely presents as melaena type stool. This is because blood in the colon has a powerful laxative effect and is rarely retained long enough for transformation to occur. Additionally, the digestive enzymes present in the small bowel are not present in the colon. It is important to note that up to 15% of patients presenting with hematochezia will have an upper gastrointestinal source of haemorrhage.

      Right-sided bleeds tend to present with darker coloured blood than left-sided bleeds. Haemorrhoidal bleeding, on the other hand, typically presents as bright red rectal bleeding that occurs post defecation either onto toilet paper or into the toilet pan. However, it is very unusual for haemorrhoids alone to cause any degree of haemodynamic compromise.

      There are several causes of lower gastrointestinal bleeding, including colitis, diverticular disease, cancer, and angiodysplasia. The management of lower gastrointestinal bleeding involves prompt correction of any haemodynamic compromise. Unlike upper gastrointestinal bleeding, the first-line management is usually supportive. When haemorrhoidal bleeding is suspected, a proctosigmoidoscopy is reasonable as attempts at full colonoscopy are usually time-consuming and often futile. In the unstable patient, the usual procedure would be an angiogram, while in others who are more stable, a colonoscopy in the elective setting is the standard procedure. Surgery may be necessary in some cases, particularly in patients over 60 years, those with continued bleeding despite endoscopic intervention, and those with recurrent bleeding.

      In summary, lower gastrointestinal bleeding is a serious condition that requires prompt attention. It is important to identify the cause of the bleeding and manage it accordingly to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      possible left upper lobe fibrosis
      Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis

      A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      83.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 62-year-old man is recuperating in the hospital after experiencing a stroke. During...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man is recuperating in the hospital after experiencing a stroke. During the examination, it is revealed that he has a right homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the location of the lesion responsible for this visual field impairment?

      Your Answer: Left temporal (lower) optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Optic Radiation Lesions and Visual Field Defects

      The optic radiation is a crucial pathway for visual information processing in the brain. Lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in specific visual field defects.

      Left Temporal (Lower) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a quadrantanopia, affecting the upper quadrants of the contralateral visual field.

      Left Parietal (Upper) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would result in a right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.

      Left Occipital Visual Cortex: A lesion in this area would cause a right contralateral homonymous hemianopia, with central sparing.

      Right Parietal (Upper) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a left homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.

      Right Temporal (Lower) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a left homonymous superior quadrantanopia.

      Understanding these specific visual field defects can aid in localizing lesions in the optic radiation and visual cortex, leading to better diagnosis and treatment of neurological conditions affecting vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP practice, reporting a rash and itching that...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP practice, reporting a rash and itching that have persisted for a few weeks. She feels fine otherwise and has no additional symptoms. Her medical history includes hypertension, a heart attack, and type 2 diabetes. Amlodipine, losartan, aspirin, bisoprolol, and metformin are among her medications.
      During the examination, a urticarial rash is present throughout her body.
      Which of her medications is the probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Aspirin is the most frequent culprit for causing urticaria, followed by penicillins, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and opiates. While all the medications listed as options may cause a skin reaction, none of them are commonly associated with urticaria. The BNF lists cutaneous reactions as a side effect for most medications. Amlodipine may cause peripheral oedema, constipation, or diarrhoea, while bisoprolol may lead to dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. Losartan may cause abdominal pain, dizziness, or diarrhoea, and metformin may cause constipation, diarrhoea, nausea, or vomiting.

      Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that cause urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, NSAIDs, and opiates. These drugs can trigger an allergic reaction in the body, leading to the development of hives. It is important to note that not everyone who takes these drugs will experience urticaria, and the severity of the reaction can vary from person to person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe bony pain. Despite being treated with increasing doses of opioids as an outpatient, he now reports experiencing intense pain in his right shoulder that worsens with movement. This pain is distinct from the metastatic bone pain he has been experiencing in his lower limbs. There is no history of trauma. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Arrange a bone scan

      Correct Answer: Arrange a shoulder x ray and give him a broad arm sling

      Explanation:

      Managing Bony Pain in Patients with Metastatic Carcinoma

      The common assumption is that all bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma is solely due to bone metastases. However, it is important to consider other possible causes, especially if the pain is worsened by movement and has a different character from known bone metastases. Patients with advanced malignancy are prone to low-force fractures, particularly in the neck of the humerus, even without a history of trauma.

      Before increasing opioid dosage or adding NSAIDs, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and immobilize the fracture site. A broad arm sling can often provide sufficient pain relief. Bisphosphonates should not be used unless hypercalcemia has been confirmed. When a fracture is suspected, an x-ray is a simpler investigation modality than a bone scan or MRI. However, an MRI may be necessary to provide detail if a pathological fracture requires surgical repair, such as a neck of femur fracture associated with metastatic deposit.

      While dexamethasone can be used as an adjunct in pain management, it should not be the next step. Proper diagnosis and immobilization of the fracture site should be the primary focus in managing bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old retired teacher is receiving Palliative Care for advanced carcinoma of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired teacher is receiving Palliative Care for advanced carcinoma of the liver. The patient has been prescribed ondansetron to alleviate symptoms of nausea and vomiting and wants to know about the potential side-effects of the medication.
      What is a typical side-effect of ondansetron?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Ondansetron

      Ondansetron is a medication commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting. However, like any medication, it can have side effects. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects before taking ondansetron.

      Constipation is the most common side effect of ondansetron. This is because the medication is broken down through the cytochrome P450 system in the liver. Other common side effects include dizziness and headache. It is also possible for ondansetron to cause QT prolongation, which can lead to fatal heart arrhythmias. Before prescribing ondansetron, it is important to check whether patients are on other potentially QT-prolonging medications.

      While ondansetron can cause constipation in some patients, it is not a direct cause of diarrhea. However, overflow constipation may present as diarrhea.

      Cough is not a common side effect of ondansetron. It may cause a dry mouth, but coughing is more commonly associated with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.

      Palpitations and arrhythmias associated with ondansetron are uncommon. However, constipation is a common side effect.

      Rarely, ondansetron may be associated with immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as a skin rash. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to speak with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness in his right leg. Upon examination, there is weakness in ankle eversion and inversion and loss of dorsiflexion in the big toe. Knee reflexes are normal, and ankle jerks are present with reinforcement. He has also experienced a loss of sensation in his first toe. Where is the lesion located?

      Your Answer: Right lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

      Correct Answer: Right L5 root

      Explanation:

      Nerve Lesions and Their Effects on Motor and Sensory Function in the Lower Limb

      The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles that work together to allow movement and sensation. When a nerve is damaged or compressed, it can lead to a variety of symptoms depending on the location and severity of the lesion. In the lower limb, there are several nerves that can be affected, each with its own unique pattern of motor and sensory deficits.

      Right L5 Root Lesion

      A lesion at the L5 nerve root will cause weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, and inversion, as well as loss of sensation over the medial border of the right foot. This specific pattern of motor and sensory pathology is only possible with an L5 nerve root lesion.

      Right Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in weakness of ankle dorsiflexors, foot evertor (but not invertor) and extensor hallucis longus, and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot, the medial border of the foot, and the anterolateral side of the lower leg. The ankle reflex will be preserved.

      Right Femoral Nerve Lesion

      A lesion at the femoral nerve, which incorporates roots L2, L3, and L4, will cause weakness of the hip flexors and knee extensors, as well as loss of the knee reflex.

      Right Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve, the largest nerve in the human body, is made from roots L4 to S2. Damage to this nerve will result in weakness in all muscles below the knee, loss of the ankle reflex, and sensory loss over the foot and the posterolateral aspect of the lower leg.

      Right Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh Lesion

      The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh has no motor supply and causes sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the thigh.

      In conclusion, understanding the effects of nerve lesions on motor and sensory function in the lower limb is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of lower abdominal pain. She also complains of nausea and vomiting, and has not had a bowel movement for 24 hours. She has mild dysuria and her LMP was 20 days ago. She smokes 15 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination she is stable, with pain in the left iliac fossa. Urinary pregnancy and dipstick are both negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Correct Answer: Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Typical symptoms of acute appendicitis, such as being young, experiencing pain in the lower right abdomen, and having associated symptoms, were observed. Urinary tests ruled out the possibility of a urinary tract infection or ectopic pregnancy. Mittelschmerz, also referred to as mid-cycle pain, was also considered.

      Possible Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain

      Right iliac fossa pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. One of the most common causes is appendicitis, which is characterized by pain radiating to the right iliac fossa, anorexia, and a short history. On the other hand, Crohn’s disease often has a long history, signs of malnutrition, and a change in bowel habit, especially diarrhea. Mesenteric adenitis, which mainly affects children, is caused by viruses and bacteria and is associated with a higher temperature than appendicitis. Diverticulitis, both left and right-sided, may present with right iliac fossa pain, and a CT scan may help in refining the diagnosis.

      Other possible causes of right iliac fossa pain include Meckel’s diverticulitis, perforated peptic ulcer, incarcerated right inguinal or femoral hernia, bowel perforation secondary to caecal or colon carcinoma, gynecological causes such as pelvic inflammatory disease and ectopic pregnancy, urological causes such as ureteric colic and testicular torsion, and other conditions like TB, typhoid, herpes zoster, AAA, and situs inversus.

      It is important to consider the patient’s clinical history, physical examination, and diagnostic tests to determine the underlying cause of right iliac fossa pain. Prompt diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been inserted through the left fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line.
      As well as the intercostal muscles, which other muscle is likely to have been pierced?

      Your Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Chest Drains: Understanding the Anatomy

      The human body is a complex system of muscles, bones, and organs that work together to keep us alive and functioning. When it comes to chest drains, understanding the anatomy of the surrounding muscles is crucial for successful placement and management. Let’s take a closer look at some of the key muscles involved.

      Serratus Anterior
      The serratus anterior muscle is located on the lateral chest and plays a vital role in protracting the scapula and contributing to rotation. It is likely to be pierced with most chest drains due to its position, with its lower four segments attaching to the fifth to eighth ribs anterior to the mid-axillary line.

      Latissimus Dorsi
      The latissimus dorsi muscle is a back muscle involved in adduction, medial rotation, and extension of the shoulder. It is not pierced by a chest drain.

      External Oblique
      The external oblique muscle is located in the anterior abdomen and is not involved with a chest drain.

      Pectoralis Major
      The pectoralis major muscle is situated in the anterior chest and is not affected by a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line. It flexes, extends, medially rotates, and adducts the shoulder.

      Pectoralis Minor
      The pectoralis minor muscle lies inferior to the pectoralis major on the anterior chest. It is a small muscle and is not usually pierced with a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the muscles surrounding the chest is essential for successful chest drain placement and management. Knowing which muscles are likely to be pierced and which are not can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of intense left flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. A urinalysis reveals the presence of blood in his urine. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that he may have a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) confirms the presence of a likely stone in his left ureter. What imaging technique is best suited for visualizing a renal stone in the ureter?

      Your Answer: Intravenous urography (IVU)

      Correct Answer: Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB

      Explanation:

      Imaging Tests for Urological Conditions

      Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB is recommended by the European Urology Association as a follow-up to initial ultrasound assessment for diagnosing stones, with a 99% identification rate. Micturating cystourethrogram is commonly used in children to diagnose vesicoureteral reflux. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) KUB is not beneficial for renal stone patients due to its high cost. Plain radiography KUB may be useful in monitoring patients with a radio-opaque calculus. Intravenous urography (IVU) is less superior to non-contrast CT scan due to the need for contrast medium injection and increased radiation dosage to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence. She experiences this...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence. She experiences this symptom throughout the day and has noticed that her urine flow is weak when she does manage to go voluntarily. During the examination, the GP detects a distended bladder despite the patient having just urinated before the appointment. What is the probable diagnosis for this woman's condition?

      Your Answer: Urinary overflow incontinence

      Explanation:

      The patient, an elderly woman, is experiencing urinary incontinence as evidenced by the palpable bladder even after urination. While prostate problems are a common cause of urinary overflow incontinence, this is not applicable in this case as the patient is a woman. Other possible causes include nerve damage resulting in a neurogenic bladder, which can be a complication of diabetes, chronic alcoholism, or pelvic surgery. The absence of a sudden urge to urinate rules out urge incontinence, while overactive bladder syndrome, a type of urge incontinence, is characterized by incontinence, frequent urination, and nocturia, which are not present in this case. Stress incontinence, which is associated with increased intraabdominal pressure, is also not observed. Therefore, a diagnosis of mixed incontinence is not warranted.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old para 1+0 has arrived at term in labor. During a vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old para 1+0 has arrived at term in labor. During a vaginal examination, the occiput is palpable posteriorly (near the sacrum). What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: If instrumentation is necessary, a ventouse is associated with the most successful outcomes

      Correct Answer: The fetal head may rotate spontaneously to an OA position

      Explanation:

      1: The occiput posterior (OP) position during delivery is feasible, but it may result in a longer and more painful labor.
      2: If labor progress is slow, augmentation should be considered.
      3: The use of Kielland’s forceps is linked to the most favorable outcomes, but it requires specialized skills.
      4: Typically, women in the OP position will feel the urge to push earlier than those in the occiput anterior (OA) position.

      Labour is divided into three stages, with stage 2 being from full dilation to delivery of the fetus. This stage can be further divided into two categories: passive second stage, which occurs without pushing, and active second stage, which involves the process of maternal pushing. The active second stage is less painful than the first stage, as pushing can mask the pain. This stage typically lasts around one hour, but if it lasts longer than that, medical interventions such as Ventouse extraction, forceps delivery, or caesarean section may be necessary. Episiotomy, a surgical cut made in the perineum to widen the vaginal opening, may also be required during crowning. However, this stage is associated with transient fetal bradycardia, which is a temporary decrease in the fetal heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      86.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

      Your Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a widely used tool to assess the severity of brain injuries. It is scored between 3 and 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 the best. The scale comprises three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The verbal response is scored from 1 to 5, with 1 indicating no response and 5 indicating orientation.

      A score of 13 or higher on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a mild brain injury, while a score of 9 to 12 indicates a moderate injury. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      3.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (1/5) 20%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/3) 33%
Palliative Care (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Radiology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Urology (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed