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Question 1
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old woman in surgery.
She has had three miscarriages in the last 18 months and has been told she has antiphospholipid syndrome. She says she was told that she would need treatment early in any future pregnancy and she has now had a positive pregnancy test.
What is the treatment for antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?Your Answer: High dose heparin + low dose aspirin
Correct Answer: Low dose heparin + low dose aspirin
Explanation:Medication Protocol for Early Pregnancy
As soon as a pregnancy test comes back positive, it is recommended to prescribe aspirin 75 mg. This medication can help prevent blood clots and other complications during pregnancy. Once foetal heart activity is detected on an ultrasound scan, low dose self-administered subcutaneous heparin should be started. This medication can also help prevent blood clots and is especially important for women who have a history of blood clots or other risk factors. It is important to follow this medication protocol to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin which disappears when he is recumbent. It is accompanied by some discomfort.
He has a chronic cough due to smoking. He has had an appendicectomy previously.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Inguinal hernia
Correct Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Inguinal Hernia: A Likely Cause of a Lump in the Groin
Inguinal hernia is the most probable reason for a lump in the right groin of a patient in this age group. This type of hernia occurs when a part of the intestine protrudes through the external inguinal ring. It may go unnoticed for a while, cause discomfort or pain, and resolve when lying flat. Femoral hernias are more common in females, while an epigastric hernia or an incisional hernia following appendicectomy would be unlikely in this anatomical site.
This patient’s persistent cough due to smoking puts him at a higher risk of developing hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old lady with a rash on her arm. It started as a small red pimple on her right forearm but has grown into a painful deep ulcer. She has Crohn's disease but is currently not on any treatment for it. She takes the combined contraceptive pill and occasional ibuprofen for headaches.
You suspect she has pyoderma gangrenosum.Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum is related to disease activity
Correct Answer: Extra-intestinal manifestations are common affecting up to 35% of people with Crohn's disease
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is not linked to disease activity, can occur as a manifestation of Crohn’s disease outside of the intestines.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the likelihood of developing inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Inflammatory bowel disease relapse or exacerbation may be heightened by the use of NSAIDs.
Following an episode of infectious gastroenteritis, the risk of developing Crohn’s disease is increased by four times, particularly within the first year.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are asked to carry out a DNA paternity test on a patient whose absent father is refusing to pay maintenance. The father has arranged his own test, even though the patient is a minor.
Which of the following is TRUE regards this process?Your Answer: Buccal swabs are taken from the child only
Correct Answer: Buccal swabs should be taken from both the mother and child
Explanation:Understanding Paternity Testing: What You Need to Know
Paternity testing is a process that can determine whether a man is the biological father of a child. This is done by analyzing DNA samples from the man, the child, and ideally, the mother. Buccal swabs are the preferred method for collecting DNA samples, and testing is not available on the NHS. The consent of both parents is required for testing, and some companies offer motherless testing, which is less accurate. Blood grouping can sometimes exclude paternity, but it cannot be used to confirm it. It is important to understand the basics of paternity testing before pursuing it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a painless swelling of the scrotum on one side. The swelling enlarges during the day and diminishes overnight. On examination there is a smooth swelling, within which the testis can be felt. Transillumination is seen when a torch is held against the scrotum.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hydrocele
Explanation:Understanding Hydroceles and Hernias in Children
During fetal development, the testicle descends into the scrotum accompanied by a sac-like extension of peritoneum called the processus vaginalis (PV). If the PV fails to close, it can result in a communicating hydrocele, where only fluid can pass through, or a hernia, where other abdominal contents protrude.
To diagnose a hydrocele, transillumination of the scrotum can reveal fluid in the tunica vaginalis (TV). However, this test may not fully exclude a hernia, as bowel may also transilluminate. Hydroceles may appear to enlarge during the day and disappear at night due to gravity’s effect on filling.
Hernias may present with abdominal pain, constipation, or vomiting, and the lump may be more prominent when the child cries. Bowel sounds in the scrotum strongly suggest a hernia.
In infants, many hydroceles resolve spontaneously due to PV closure early after birth. Observation is often appropriate up to 12-18 months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female patient of yours has a history of bilateral dry eyes and was prescribed hypromellose in the past. She now reports persistent discomfort and grittiness in her eyes despite using hypromellose for over three months.
What would be your next course of action in managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Add topical ocular steroids and continue with her hypromellose
Correct Answer: Stop the hypromellose and try her on another type of ocular lubricant
Explanation:The Importance of Addressing Dry Eye in General Practice
Dry eye is a common condition that is often overlooked as a trivial problem. However, it can be an under-treated condition that causes discomfort and visual debility for patients. Unfortunately, many clinicians do not take the time to explore the patient’s genuine concerns and the impact of dry eyes on their mental health.
It is important to note that not all ocular lubricants are suitable or agreeable to all patients. Therefore, if one lubricant is not working, there are many others that can be tried before referring the patient to ophthalmology. This condition must be treated on a case-by-case basis to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
In conclusion, addressing dry eye in general practice is crucial to improving the quality of life for patients. By taking the time to understand their concerns and exploring different treatment options, clinicians can help alleviate discomfort and improve visual function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 7
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents with weight loss and is found to have a serum calcium concentration of 3.22 mmol/l (normal range 2.25-2.5 mmol/l). A skeletal survey is normal. A cancer with non-metastatic hypercalcaemia is suspected.
Which of the following substances is most likely to be secreted by the tumour in this case?Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)
Explanation:Understanding Hypercalcaemia in Cancer Patients: The Role of PTHrP
Hypercalcaemia is a common occurrence in cancer patients, affecting around 10-20% of cases. It is caused by increased bone resorption and calcium release from bone, which can be triggered by osteolytic metastases, tumour secretion of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP), and tumour production of calcitriol. Among these mechanisms, PTHrP secretion is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia in patients with non-metastatic solid tumours, also known as humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy. This condition should be suspected in patients with solid tumours and unexplained hypercalcaemia, as well as those with low serum PTH concentration. Diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring high serum PTHrP concentration. While hypercalcaemia is often associated with advanced cancer and poor prognosis, understanding its underlying mechanisms can help in developing effective treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Correct
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You come across a 79-year-old woman who has a medical history of diabetes, osteoarthritis, and hypertension. She experienced pain while bearing weight after twisting her leg while getting out of a car. The pain has reduced with simple analgesia. She also mentions a lump under her knee. During the examination, you notice a non-tender 4 cm lump just below the popliteal fossa that becomes tense when the leg is extended. The patient has full power throughout. What could be the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Baker's cyst
Explanation:The usual individual with a Baker’s cyst is someone who has arthritis or gout and has experienced a minor knee injury. When the knee is extended, Foucher’s sign indicates an increase in tension in the Baker’s cyst. It is important to consider the possibility of a DVT, which can imitate a Baker’s cyst. Furthermore, a DVT may coexist with a Baker’s cyst, and an ultrasound should be performed with a low threshold.
Knee Problems in Older Adults
As people age, they become more susceptible to knee problems. Osteoarthritis of the knee is a common condition in older adults, especially those who are overweight. It is characterized by severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling.
Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may occur due to twisting of the knee, often accompanied by a popping noise and rapid onset of knee effusion. A positive draw test is used to diagnose this condition. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as hitting the knee on the dashboard during a car accident.
Collateral ligament injuries are characterized by tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and are often accompanied by locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help older adults seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 78-year-old male attends clinic with his daughter who reports that her father has become disinterested and withdrawn.
Which of the following would favour a diagnosis of dementia rather than depression?Your Answer: Self-reported concern of poor memory
Explanation:Differentiating between Alzheimer’s and Depression
Urinary incontinence is an uncommon symptom associated with depression, but it is more typical of dementia or normal pressure hydrocephalus. On the other hand, impaired memory and concern over memory deficits can be found in both depression and dementia. Therefore, it can be challenging to differentiate between Alzheimer’s and depression based on these symptoms alone. Mayo Clinic suggests that a combination of symptoms and medical tests can help differentiate between the two conditions. Proper diagnosis and treatment can improve the quality of life for individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Mr. Johnson is a 65-year-old man with multiple sclerosis who has a long term catheter. He was admitted to hospital following a fall and discharged the next day. As part of his work up in the emergency department his urine was sent off for culture.
You receive a letter in your inbox with the urine culture results:
Escherichia coli sensitive to amoxicillin, nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim
You note that he is penicillin allergic. You call Mr. Johnson to find out how he is, however he denies any urinary symptoms or haematuria. There is no blockage and his catheter is draining well.
How will you best manage Mr. Johnson?Your Answer: Treat with a 3 day course of nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim
Correct Answer: No treatment needed
Explanation:NICE guidelines advise against the routine treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in catheterised patients. Treatment should only be given if the patient is experiencing symptoms. In such cases, a 7-day course of antibiotics may be prescribed, and the catheter may be changed if necessary. However, removal of the catheter is not an option for long-term catheterised patients. If sepsis is suspected, the patient should be referred to a hospital for intravenous antibiotics.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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