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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes is hospitalized and presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes is hospitalized and presents with elevated inflammatory markers, metabolic acidosis, leukocytosis, and an amylase level of 3480 U/L. Which medication is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Sitagliptin

      Correct Answer: Exenatide

      Explanation:

      Exenatide and Pancreatitis: A Review of the Evidence

      Exenatide is a medication that mimics the effects of the hormone GLP-1, which triggers insulin secretion in response to food intake. However, there is a rare but concerning association between exenatide and acute pancreatitis. A recent case-control study found that patients taking GLP-1 mimetics like exenatide had a higher risk of developing pancreatitis compared to those taking other diabetes drugs. As a result, patients starting on exenatide should be informed about the symptoms of pancreatitis and monitored closely for abdominal pain.

      While there is some controversy surrounding the association between gliptins and pancreatitis, the British National Formulary recommends discontinuing sitagliptin if acute pancreatitis is suspected. It is important to note that lactic acidosis, a potential side effect of metformin, should not be confused with pancreatitis, which is characterized by elevated levels of amylase. Overall, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risk of pancreatitis in patients taking exenatide and other GLP-1 mimetics, and take appropriate precautions to monitor and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with a known, long-standing history of alcohol misuse presents to the...

    Correct

    • A patient with a known, long-standing history of alcohol misuse presents to the clinic after her daughter became worried that she was confused. She is unable to recall what she has done over the past few days and explains how she arrived at the clinic, which the receptionist confirms to be not true. It is also challenging to take a history from her as she cannot recall any of her past medical histories.

      What vitamin deficiency is this patient suffering from?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is caused by an untreated thiamine deficiency, which is the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms. The patient is exhibiting retrograde amnesia, anterograde amnesia, and confabulation, which are all characteristic of Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      In contrast, folate deficiency would present with macrocytic anaemia, vitamin D deficiency would cause osteomalacia, and vitamin K deficiency would result in a disorder of secondary haemostasis. These conditions have different symptoms and underlying causes than Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.

      The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir when prescribed for suspected influenzae?...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir when prescribed for suspected influenzae?

      Your Answer: Neuraminidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Understanding the H1N1 influenzae Pandemic

      The H1N1 influenzae pandemic, also known as swine flu, emerged in Mexico in early 2009 and was declared a global pandemic by the World Health Organization (WHO) in June of the same year. This outbreak was caused by a new strain of the H1N1 virus, which is a subtype of the influenzae A virus and the most common cause of flu in humans. The pandemic posed a significant threat to certain groups, including patients with chronic illnesses, those on immunosuppressants, pregnant women, and young children under 5 years old.

      The symptoms of H1N1 influenzae are similar to those of a typical flu-like illness, including fever, myalgia, lethargy, headache, rhinitis, sore throat, cough, and diarrhea and vomiting. However, a minority of patients may develop acute respiratory distress syndrome, which can be life-threatening and require ventilatory support.

      Currently, there are two main treatments available for H1N1 influenzae: oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza). Oseltamivir is an oral medication that works as a neuraminidase inhibitor, preventing new viral particles from being released by infected cells. Common side effects of oseltamivir include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headaches. Zanamivir, on the other hand, is an inhaled medication that also works as a neuraminidase inhibitor. However, it may induce bronchospasm in asthmatics. Intravenous preparations of zanamivir are available for patients who are acutely unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      25.9
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  • Question 4 - A 89-year-old diabetic man with known vascular dementia is reporting a loss of...

    Correct

    • A 89-year-old diabetic man with known vascular dementia is reporting a loss of sensation on the left side of his body to his caregivers.

      During his cranial nerve examination, no abnormalities were found. However, upon neurological examination of his upper and lower limbs, there is a significant sensory loss to light touch, vibration, and pain on the right side. Additionally, he is unable to detect changes in temperature and his joint position sense is impaired on the right side. A CT head scan reveals an infarction in the region of the lateral thalamus on the left side.

      Which specific lateral thalamic nucleus has been affected by this stroke?

      Your Answer: Ventral posterior

      Explanation:

      Injury to the lateral section of the ventral posterior nucleus located in the thalamus can impact the perception of bodily sensations such as touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle? ...

    Correct

    • What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle?

      Your Answer: Acetyl-CoA

      Explanation:

      The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrion and involves the conversion of acetyl-CoA to oxaloacetate. This cycle produces six NADH, two FADH, and two ATP for each molecule of glucose. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs cycle, and water and carbon dioxide are end products. Acetic acid itself has no role in the cycle, but its acetyl group is used to form acetyl-CoA. Some anaerobic bacteria can convert sugars to acetic acid directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      5.2
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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old man experiences an urgent amputation due to severe sepsis and gangrene...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man experiences an urgent amputation due to severe sepsis and gangrene in his lower limbs. Following the surgery, he develops disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which clotting factor will be depleted the fastest during this process?

      Your Answer: Factor V and VIII

      Explanation:

      D-I-S-S-E-M-I-N-A-T-E-D

      R-Rewritten
      E-Explanations
      W-Widespread
      R-Reporting
      I-Information
      T-Transmission
      E-Exposure

      M-Multiple sources
      E-Extensive dissemination
      D-Distribution

      Rewriting and disseminating information can help to ensure that it is widely understood and accessible. This can be especially important in cases where there are multiple sources of information or when the information needs to be widely distributed. In some cases, such as with DIC, disseminating information can be critical for understanding and treating the condition.

      Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Condition of Simultaneous Coagulation and Haemorrhage

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a medical condition characterized by simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage. It is caused by the initial formation of thrombi that consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding. DIC can be caused by various factors such as infection, malignancy, trauma, liver disease, and obstetric complications.

      Clinically, bleeding is usually the dominant feature of DIC, accompanied by bruising, ischaemia, and organ failure. Blood tests can reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. The treatment of DIC involves addressing the underlying cause and providing supportive management.

      In summary, DIC is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and management, patients with DIC can recover and regain their health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - How would you define vigorous exercise? ...

    Correct

    • How would you define vigorous exercise?

      Your Answer: Exercising at 80% of maximal individual capacity

      Explanation:

      Exercise Intensity Levels

      Exercise intensity can be determined by comparing it to your maximum capacity or your typical resting state of activity. It is important to note that what may be considered moderate or intense for one person may differ for another based on their fitness and strength levels. Mild intensity exercise involves working at less than 3 times the activity at rest and 20-50% of your maximum capacity. Moderate intensity exercise involves working at 3-5.9 times the activity at rest or 50-60% of your maximum capacity. Examples of moderate intensity exercises include cycling on flat ground, walking fast, hiking, volleyball, and basketball. Vigorous intensity exercise involves working at 6-7 times the activity at rest or 70-80% of your maximum capacity. Examples of vigorous intensity exercises include running, swimming fast, cycling fast or uphill, hockey, martial arts, and aerobics. exercise intensity levels can help you tailor your workouts to your individual needs and goals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden worsening of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden worsening of his asthma symptoms. He is experiencing difficulty in speaking and breathing, with cyanosis of the lips and a respiratory rate of 33 breaths per minute. He reports feeling lightheaded. Although his airways are open, his chest sounds are faint upon auscultation. The patient is administered oxygen, nebulized salbutamol, and intravenous aminophylline.

      What is the mechanism of action of aminophylline?

      Your Answer: Activates phosphodiesterase inhibitor resulting in smooth muscle relaxation

      Correct Answer: Binds to adenosine receptors and blocks adenosine-mediated bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Aminophylline works by binding to adenosine receptors and preventing adenosine-induced bronchoconstriction. This mode of action is different from antihistamines like loratadine, which is an incorrect option. Theophylline, a shorter acting form of aminophylline, competitively inhibits type III and type IV phosphodiesterase enzymes responsible for breaking down cyclic AMP in smooth muscle cells, leading to possible bronchodilation. Additionally, theophylline binds to the adenosine A2B receptor and blocks adenosine-mediated bronchoconstriction. In inflammatory conditions, theophylline activates histone deacetylase, which prevents the transcription of inflammatory genes that require histone acetylation for transcription to begin. Therefore, the last three options are incorrect. (Source: Drugbank)

      Aminophylline infusions are utilized to manage acute asthma and COPD. In patients who have not received xanthines (theophylline or aminophylline) before, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg is administered through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least 20 minutes. For the maintenance infusion, 1g of aminophylline is mixed with 1 litre of normal saline to create a solution of 1 mg/ml. The recommended dose is 500-700 mcg/kg/hour, or 300 mcg/kg/hour for elderly patients. It is important to monitor plasma theophylline concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old man with stable angina undergoes an angiogram and is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with stable angina undergoes an angiogram and is found to have a 60% stenosis of the left main artery. The surgeons recommend a coronary artery bypass procedure. Which structure is likely to be supplied by the vessel used in this procedure?

      Your Answer: Thyroid gland

      Correct Answer: Thymus gland

      Explanation:

      The thymus receives its arterial supply from either the internal mammary artery or the pericardiophrenic arteries.

      During coronary artery bypass surgery, the internal thoracic artery, also referred to as the internal mammary artery, is utilized.

      The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function

      The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.

      The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old male presents to the hospital with recurrent nose bleeds, joint pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents to the hospital with recurrent nose bleeds, joint pain, chronic sinusitis, and haemoptysis for the past 3 days. During the examination, the doctor observes a saddle-shaped nose and a necrotic, purpuric, and blistering plaque on his wrist. The patient reports that he had a small blister a few weeks ago, which has now progressed to this. The blood test results suggest a possible diagnosis of granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and the patient is referred for a renal biopsy. What biopsy findings would confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lobular accentuation of enlarged glomeruli with mesangial hypercellularity

      Correct Answer: Epithelial crescents in Bowman's capsule

      Explanation:

      Glomerulonephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can present with various pathological changes. In rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, patients may present with respiratory tract symptoms and cutaneous manifestations of vasculitis. Renal biopsy will show epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule, indicating severe glomerular injury. Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized by a diffuse increase in mesangial cells and is not associated with respiratory tract symptoms or cutaneous manifestations of vasculitis. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis involves deposits in the intraglomerular mesangium and is associated with activation of the complement pathway and glomerular damage. It is unlikely to be the diagnosis in the scenario as it is not associated with vasculitis symptoms. A normal nephron architecture would not explain the patient’s symptoms and is an incorrect answer.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.

      To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.

      The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A familiar alcohol dependent woman arrives at the emergency department with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia...

    Incorrect

    • A familiar alcohol dependent woman arrives at the emergency department with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and confusion. She is administered IV pabrinex to rectify the probable vitamin deficiency causing her symptoms.

      What is the function of this vitamin within the body?

      Your Answer: Production of retinal

      Correct Answer: Catabolism of sugars and amino acids

      Explanation:

      Thiamine plays a crucial role in breaking down sugars and amino acids. When there is a deficiency of thiamine, it can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is commonly seen in individuals with alcohol dependence or malnutrition.

      The deficiency of thiamine affects the highly aerobic tissues of the brain and heart, resulting in conditions like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome or beriberi.

      Retinal production requires Vitamin A, while collagen synthesis needs Vitamin C. Vitamin D helps in increasing plasma calcium and phosphate levels.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of frequent bruising. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of frequent bruising. During the physical examination, an early-diastolic murmur is heard over the aortic region. The patient's skin is found to be highly elastic, and his joints exhibit greater extension than normal. Genetic testing is recommended, which confirms the suspected diagnosis of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Which collagen type is predominantly affected by this condition?

      Your Answer: Collagen type 1

      Correct Answer: Collagen type 3

      Explanation:

      The main cause of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a genetic defect in collagen type III, although a less common variant also affects collagen type V. Osteogenesis imperfecta is primarily caused by a defect in collagen type I, while Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with a defect in collagen type IV.

      Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile skin, easy bruising, and recurrent joint dislocation. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 48-year-old man who was previously diagnosed with prediabetes with an HbA1c of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man who was previously diagnosed with prediabetes with an HbA1c of 46 mmol/mol 18 months earlier, has a repeat HbA1c that comes back at 50 mmol/mol despite lifestyle measures and an education programme.

      You diagnose him with type 2 diabetes mellitus and discuss the next steps with him. You jointly agree to start an oral anti-hyperglycaemic agent to improve his diabetes control and suggest starting with metformin to increase insulin sensitivity.

      How does metformin exert its effect?

      Your Answer: Binding to and closing ATP-sensitive potassium (K-ATP) channels on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells

      Correct Answer: Activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)

      Explanation:

      Metformin activates the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) to improve insulin response and glucose uptake. GLP1 agonists enhance insulin release and reduce glucagon release by binding to GLP-1 receptors in the pancreas. Sulfonylureas close ATP-sensitive potassium (K-ATP) channels on pancreatic beta cells, leading to depolarization. Thiazolidinediones bind to peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma in adipocytes to promote adipogenesis and fatty acid uptake in peripheral fat. DPP-4 inhibitors block the action of DPP-4, which destroys incretin, a hormone that helps the body produce more insulin when needed and reduce glucose production by the liver when not needed.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old woman, who was seen 2 weeks ago, has returned with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, who was seen 2 weeks ago, has returned with difficulty in having a bowel movement. She has never experienced this before and last had a bowel movement 2 days ago. Her symptoms have persisted for the past 10 days, and she has not made any recent changes to her diet. Her blood test results from this morning are normal, and her results from last week are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 100 g/l
      - Platelets: 250 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 5 * 109/l
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 77 fL
      - Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) increased

      What is the most probable reason for her condition?

      Your Answer: Co-codamol

      Correct Answer: Ferrous fumarate

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient was diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia two weeks ago due to symptoms of tiredness and lethargy. The most common cause of anaemia in a woman of this age is menorrhagia. Treatment for this type of anaemia typically involves iron supplementation with ferrous fumarate, which can cause constipation and black tarry stools as a side effect. It is important to note that constipation is not a symptom of anaemia itself.

      There have been no recent changes to the patient’s diet, so reduced fluid intake is an incorrect answer. However, increasing fluid and fibre intake is a recommended conservative management approach.

      Co-codamol and amitriptyline are known to cause constipation, but they are not indicated for this patient and therefore are not relevant to her current condition.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume? ...

    Correct

    • What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume?

      Your Answer: 50 g

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Carbohydrates in the Diet

      Carbohydrates are essential for the body as they provide fuel for the brain, red blood cells, and the renal medulla. Although the average daily intake of carbohydrates is around 180 g/day, the body can function on a much lower intake of 30-50 g/day. During pregnancy or lactation, the recommended minimum daily requirement of carbohydrates increases to around 100 g/day.

      When carbohydrate intake is restricted, the body can produce glucose through gluconeogenesis, which is the process of making glucose from other fuel sources such as protein and fat. However, when carbohydrate intake is inadequate, the body produces ketones during the oxidation of fats. While ketones can be used by the brain as an alternative fuel source to glucose, prolonged or excessive reliance on ketones can lead to undesirable side effects. Ketones are acidic and can cause systemic acidosis.

      It is important to note that most people consume 200-400 g/day of carbohydrates, which is much higher than the recommended minimum daily requirement. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a balanced diet that includes carbohydrates in the appropriate amount to ensure optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the organism that causes the majority of cases of epiglottitis in...

    Correct

    • What is the organism that causes the majority of cases of epiglottitis in children who receive vaccinations in the UK?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B

      Explanation:

      Common Bacterial Infections in Children

      Epiglottitis is a serious infection of the epiglottis that can be life-threatening. It is usually caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB) and is characterized by symptoms such as sepsis, stridor, and airway obstruction. Early and controlled intubation is crucial in managing this condition. Fortunately, the introduction of HiB vaccination in the UK has significantly reduced the incidence of epiglottitis, making it a rare condition.

      Botulism is another bacterial infection that affects children. It is caused by the anaerobic C. botulinum, which produces a toxin that causes paralysis. Unlike HiB, there is no vaccine available for botulism.

      Diphtheria, a severe pharyngitis that causes massive swelling of the neck, is now rare in the UK. The vaccination schedule includes C. diphtheriae, which is the bacteria that causes this condition.

      Moraxella is a bacterial infection that causes respiratory tract and ear infections. Children are not vaccinated against it.

      Staph. aureus is another bacterial infection that affects children. It causes cellulitis and wound infections, among others. However, there is no vaccine available for this condition.

      In summary, while some bacterial infections such as epiglottitis and diphtheria have become rare in the UK due to vaccination, others such as botulism, Moraxella, and Staph. aureus still pose a risk to children. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old patient has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing a myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing a myocardial infarction. What is the most suitable combination of medication for the patient to be discharged with?

      Your Answer: Aspirin, beta blocker, diuretic, statin

      Correct Answer: Aspirin, beta blocker, ACE inhibitor and statin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Secondary Prevention of Myocardial Infarction

      According to the NICE guidelines on myocardial infarction (MI), patients who have suffered from a heart attack should be discharged with specific medications for secondary prevention. These medications include aspirin, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. The purpose of these medications is to prevent further cardiac events and improve the patient’s overall cardiovascular health.

      Aspirin is a blood thinner that helps to prevent blood clots from forming in the arteries, which can lead to another heart attack. ACE inhibitors help to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, which can help to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Beta-blockers also help to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, as well as slow down the heart rate. Statins are cholesterol-lowering medications that help to reduce the risk of plaque buildup in the arteries, which can lead to a heart attack.

      These medications are prescribed for tertiary prevention, which means they are used in conjunction with cardiac rehabilitation to help prevent future cardiac events. Cardiac rehabilitation typically involves exercise, education, and counseling to help patients make lifestyle changes that can improve their cardiovascular health.

      In summary, patients who have suffered from a heart attack should be discharged with aspirin, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins for secondary prevention. These medications, along with cardiac rehabilitation, can help to prevent future cardiac events and improve the patient’s overall cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is brought to the emergency department after falling at home. She reports experiencing a loss of sensation on her right side.

      Upon examination, you confirm the loss of sensation in the right arm and leg. Additionally, you note that the right arm has 3/5 power and the right leg has 2/5 power. In contrast, the limbs on the left side have 5/5 power and intact sensation.

      Based on these findings, which artery is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. This suggests that the stroke is likely affecting the anterior cerebral artery. Other symptoms that may occur with this type of stroke include behavioral abnormalities and incontinence.

      If the basilar artery is occluded, the patient may experience locked-in syndrome, which results in paralysis of all voluntary muscles except for those controlling eye movements.

      A stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery would typically result in more severe effects on the face and arm, rather than the leg. Other symptoms may include speech and visual deficits.

      A stroke affecting the posterior cerebral artery would primarily affect vision, resulting in contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

      Cerebellar infarcts, such as those affecting the superior cerebellar artery, can be difficult to diagnose as they often present with non-specific symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and dizziness.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65 year old man is scheduled for a lymph node biopsy on...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man is scheduled for a lymph node biopsy on the posterolateral aspect of his right neck due to suspected lymphoma. Which nerve is most vulnerable in this procedure?

      Your Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      The accessory nerve is at risk of injury due to its superficial location and proximity to the platysma muscle. It may be divided during the initial stages of a procedure.

      The Accessory Nerve and Its Functions

      The accessory nerve is the eleventh cranial nerve that provides motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. It is important to examine the function of this nerve by checking for any loss of muscle bulk in the shoulders, asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance, and turning their head against resistance.

      Iatrogenic injury, which is caused by medical treatment or procedures, is a common cause of isolated accessory nerve lesions. This is especially true for surgeries in the posterior cervical triangle, such as lymph node biopsy. It is important to be aware of the potential for injury to the accessory nerve during these procedures to prevent any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Cohen's kappa coefficient is utilized for measuring what? ...

    Correct

    • Cohen's kappa coefficient is utilized for measuring what?

      Your Answer: Inter-rater reliability

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Kappa Statistic for Measuring Interobserver Variation

      The Kappa statistic, also known as Cohen’s kappa coefficient, is a tool used to measure the level of agreement between two or more independent observers who are evaluating the same thing. This measure is particularly useful in situations where interobserver variation needs to be quantified, such as in medical research or clinical trials.

      The Kappa statistic can range from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating complete disagreement between observers and 1 indicating perfect agreement. This means that the closer the Kappa value is to 1, the more reliable the observations are. On the other hand, a Kappa value closer to 0 indicates that the observers have very different opinions or interpretations of the same thing.

      By using the Kappa statistic, researchers and clinicians can better understand the level of agreement between observers and make more informed decisions based on the results. It is important to note that the Kappa statistic is not a measure of the accuracy of the observations, but rather a measure of the level of agreement between observers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old male is injured by a gunshot to his right chest resulting...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male is injured by a gunshot to his right chest resulting in a right haemothorax that requires a thoracotomy. During the procedure, the surgeons opt to use a vascular clamp to secure the hilum of the right lung. What structure will be positioned most anteriorly at this location?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      At the base of the right lung, the phrenic nerve is located in the anterior position.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What grade of proof does a group of specialists provide, as per the...

    Correct

    • What grade of proof does a group of specialists provide, as per the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM)?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient with a history of diverticular disease presents to the surgical assessment...

    Correct

    • A patient with a history of diverticular disease presents to the surgical assessment unit with abdominal pain and a fever. Her white blood cell count is elevated, but she is otherwise stable. The diagnosis is diverticulitis. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics, a liquid diet and analgesia

      Explanation:

      The initial management approach for mild diverticulitis typically involves a combination of oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia.

      Understanding Diverticulitis

      Diverticulitis is a condition where an out-pouching of the intestinal mucosa becomes infected. This out-pouching is called a diverticulum and the presence of these pouches is known as diverticulosis. Diverticula are common and are thought to be caused by increased pressure in the colon. They usually occur in the sigmoid colon and are more prevalent in Westerners over the age of 60. While only a quarter of people with diverticulosis experience symptoms, 75% of those who do will have an episode of diverticulitis.

      Risk factors for diverticulitis include age, lack of dietary fiber, obesity (especially in younger patients), and a sedentary lifestyle. Patients with diverticular disease may experience intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Those with acute diverticulitis may experience severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, changes in bowel habits, and urinary symptoms. Complications may include colovesical or colovaginal fistulas.

      Signs of diverticulitis include low-grade fever, tachycardia, tender lower left quadrant of the abdomen, and possibly a palpable mass. Imaging tests such as an erect chest X-ray, abdominal X-ray, and CT scan may be used to diagnose diverticulitis. Treatment may involve oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia for mild cases. More severe cases may require hospitalization for intravenous antibiotics. Colonoscopy should be avoided initially due to the risk of perforation.

      In summary, diverticulitis is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and complications. Understanding the risk factors, symptoms, and signs of diverticulitis can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old man is having a carotid endarterectomy. In the neck, how many...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man is having a carotid endarterectomy. In the neck, how many branches does the internal carotid artery give off after being mobilised?

      Your Answer: 0

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following pertains to a placebo that induces unfavorable side effects?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pertains to a placebo that induces unfavorable side effects?

      Your Answer: A nocebo

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man was brought to the emergency department due to a respiratory...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man was brought to the emergency department due to a respiratory infection. After receiving antibiotics and showing signs of improvement, he suddenly collapsed before being released. An ECG was performed and revealed fast, irregular QRS complexes that seemed to be twisting around the baseline.

      Which antibiotic is the probable culprit for the aforementioned situation?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes can be caused by macrolides

      The probable reason for the patient’s collapse is torsades de pointes, which is identified by fast, irregular QRS complexes that seem to be ‘twisting’ around the baseline on the ECG. This condition is linked to a prolonged QT interval. In this instance, the QT interval was prolonged due to the use of clarithromycin, a macrolide antibiotic. None of the other medications have been found to prolong the QT interval.

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation and sudden death. There are several causes of a long QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other factors that can contribute to a long QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. The management of torsades de pointes typically involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 21-year-old female is admitted with suspected meningitis. The House Officer is about...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female is admitted with suspected meningitis. The House Officer is about to perform a lumbar puncture. What is the initial structure that the needle is likely to encounter upon insertion?

      Your Answer: Supraspinous ligament

      Explanation:

      Lumbar Puncture Procedure

      Lumbar puncture is a medical procedure that involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid. In adults, the procedure is typically performed at the L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace, which is located below the spinal cord’s termination at L1.

      During the procedure, the needle passes through several layers. First, it penetrates the supraspinous ligament, which connects the tips of spinous processes. Then, it passes through the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes. Next, the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, which may cause a give. Finally, the needle passes through the dura mater into the subarachnoid space, which is marked by a second give. At this point, clear cerebrospinal fluid should be obtained.

      Overall, the lumbar puncture procedure is a complex process that requires careful attention to detail. By following the proper steps and guidelines, medical professionals can obtain cerebrospinal fluid safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Liam, a 6-year-old boy, injures his arm and the doctors suspect damage to...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, a 6-year-old boy, injures his arm and the doctors suspect damage to the contents of the cubital fossa. Can you list the contents of the cubital fossa from lateral to medial?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve, biceps tendon, brachial artery, ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve, biceps tendon, brachial artery, median nerve

      Explanation:

      The cubital fossa contains the following structures in order from lateral to medial: radial nerve, brachial tendon, brachial artery, and median nerve. A helpful mnemonic to remember this order is Really Need Beer To Be At My Nicest. It is important to note that the ulnar nerve is not part of the contents of the cubital fossa.

      The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.

      There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.

      The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts. Her periods have also become very irregular and she has not menstruated in the past 4 months. On further questioning, she reports not being sexually active since having a miscarriage 9 months ago which required surgical management. On examination, there are no palpable masses in her breasts bilaterally, she demonstrates a small amount of milky white discharge from her left nipple which is collected for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity. She has no focal neurological deficits, cardiac, and respiratory examination is unremarkable, and her abdominal examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of this patient’s amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea is a prolactinoma, which inhibits the secretion of GnRH and leads to low levels of oestrogen. Further tests, including a urinary pregnancy test and blood tests for various hormones, should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis. Asherman’s syndrome, intraductal papilloma, and pregnancy are less likely causes, as they do not present with the same symptoms or do not fit the patient’s reported history.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating, reduced appetite, and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating, reduced appetite, and fatigue that have been worsening for four months. The GP refers her to gynaecology on a two-week-wait pathway for an ultrasound-guided biopsy, which confirms ovarian cancer. A staging CT scan reveals the spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes.

      Which lymph nodes are the most probable to be affected?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Metastatic ovarian cancer is often first detected in the para-aortic lymph nodes, as this is where the ovaries drain. The fundus of the uterus drains to the deep inguinal nodes through lymphatics that follow the round ligament. The inferior mesenteric nodes receive drainage from the upper part of the rectum, sigmoid colon, and descending colon. The body of the uterus drains to the iliac nodes through lymphatics that follow the broad ligament, while parts of the cervix may drain to the presacral nodes via lymphatics that follow the uterosacral fold.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
General Principles (4/7) 57%
Neurological System (4/5) 80%
Basic Sciences (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (2/3) 67%
Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Respiratory System (0/3) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Reproductive System (1/1) 100%
Passmed