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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old man with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches of skin on his antecubital fossae, lateral thighs, and popliteal fossae. The skin on his right thigh is weeping and inflamed. He reports feeling fatigued and wonders if he has had a fever. His vital signs are within normal limits. Based on your examination, you diagnose him with moderately severe eczema.
      What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin alone for 10 days with regular Diprobase® ointment

      Correct Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection

      Moderately severe eczema with evidence of superimposed infection requires a specific treatment regime. The severity of eczema is categorized into four categories: clear, mild, moderate, and severe. In this case, the patient has small areas of dry skin mainly in the flexures, and there is evidence of infected eczema/cellulitis with an erythematosus, weeping patch of skin in the lateral thigh.

      The treatment regime should include a regular emollient ointment, such as Diprobase®, applied generously to the skin multiple times a day. Additionally, a moderately potent topical corticosteroid, such as betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%, should be used sparingly on the inflamed areas once a day. The patient must be advised to apply the steroid first and allow 15-20 minutes for it to be absorbed before applying the emollient. Treatment should last 7-14 days and continue until 48 hours after the eczematous patches have cleared.

      Furthermore, oral antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of infected eczema. Oral flucloxacillin is considered first-line, and treatment usually lasts for a 10-day period.

      Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.7
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  • Question 2 - A 23-year-old woman injures her arm on a sharp object while hiking. Within...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman injures her arm on a sharp object while hiking. Within a few days, a small blister forms at the site of the injury, which eventually turns into an open sore. The sore has an uneven purple edge and quickly becomes wider and deeper. The woman experiences severe pain at the site of the sore.
      What is the probable medical diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: T1 diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition associated with Crohn’s disease. It is diagnosed based on clinical history and examination, and treatment options include topical or systemic steroid therapy. Coeliac disease is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to dermatitis herpetiformis, which causes itchy papules on the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, or knees. Pretibial myxoedema is a skin condition associated with Grave’s disease, characterized by waxy, discolored induration on the Pretibial areas. SLE is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to a facial butterfly rash. T1DM is not associated with pyoderma gangrenosum, but is linked to necrobiosis lipoidica and granuloma annulare, which cause tender patches and discolored plaques, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. More detailed history and examination reveals painful red papules on both shins of recent onset. He is otherwise well. Basic blood tests are normal.
      What rash does the patient have?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Rashes: A Comparison of Erythema Nodosum, Erythema Multiforme, Kaposi’s Sarcoma, Tinea Corporis, and Steven-Johnson’s Syndrome

      Erythema nodosum is a rash characterized by painful red papules caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat. It is commonly seen on the extensor surfaces of the lower limbs and can be linked to various conditions such as streptococcal and tuberculous infection, inflammatory bowel disease, lymphoma, drug-related causes, and sarcoidosis.

      Erythema multiforme, on the other hand, presents with typical target lesions on the extremities. It is an uncommon condition that can be mistaken for other skin rashes.

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is an AIDS-defining malignancy caused by human herpes virus 8. It appears as red/purple papules on the skin or mucosal surfaces. However, the description of the rash, normal blood results, and an otherwise healthy patient make this diagnosis unlikely.

      Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection transmitted from common pets or human-to-human. It presents as an erythematosus, scaly ring-like rash with central clearing.

      Steven-Johnson’s syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme with multiple erythematosus macules on the face and trunk, epidermal detachment, and mucosal ulceration. It is a rare condition that can cause significant morbidity and mortality.

      In summary, differentiating between these skin rashes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the underlying cause of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crusted edges

      Correct Answer: Telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Characteristics and Warning Signs

      Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of skin cancer, typically found in sun-exposed areas such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. A basal cell carcinoma often appears as a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, or fine vessels on the surface. It may also be an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. While basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize, they can be locally invasive and destructive. Pigmentation is a feature of melanocytic lesions, but basal cell carcinomas may rarely show pigmentation. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden increases in size should be referred for further assessment. Other warning signs include crusted edges and unprovoked bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - In what condition is lupus pernio observed? ...

    Correct

    • In what condition is lupus pernio observed?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Lupus Pernio in Sarcoidosis

      Lupus pernio is a distinct skin manifestation that is commonly associated with sarcoidosis. This condition is characterized by the presence of chronic, hardened papules or plaques that primarily affect the mid-face, particularly the alar rim of the nose. Even small papules in this area may indicate the presence of granulomatous infiltration in the nasal mucosa and upper respiratory tract, which can lead to the formation of masses, ulcerations, or even life-threatening airway obstruction. Therefore, it is important to promptly diagnose and manage lupus pernio in patients with sarcoidosis to prevent further complications. Proper treatment may involve the use of systemic corticosteroids, immunosuppressive agents, or other targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.5
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  • Question 7 - A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.

      The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.9
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), but his symptoms did not improve and his general practitioner prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago. On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
      Which of the following is the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Fixed drug reaction

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Causes

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin hypersensitivity reaction that can be fatal and affects a large portion of the body’s surface area. It is often caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, and penicillins.

      Morbilliform rash is a milder skin reaction that appears as a generalised rash that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs like penicillin, sulfa drugs, and phenytoin.

      Erythema nodosum is an inflammatory condition that causes painful nodules on the lower extremities. It can be caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and inflammatory bowel disease.

      Fixed drug reaction is a localised allergic reaction that occurs at the same site with repeated drug exposure. It is commonly caused by drugs like aspirin, NSAIDs, and tetracycline.

      Erythema multiforme is characterised by target-like lesions on the palms and soles. It is caused by drugs like penicillins, phenytoin, and NSAIDs, as well as infections like mycoplasma and herpes simplex.

      Understanding Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.9
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  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with scabies.

    Scabies is a skin condition...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with scabies.

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by tiny mites that burrow into the skin and lay eggs. It is highly contagious and can spread through close physical contact or sharing of personal items such as clothing or bedding. Symptoms include intense itching, rash, and small bumps or blisters on the skin. Treatment typically involves prescription creams or lotions that kill the mites and their eggs. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have scabies to prevent further spread of the condition.

      Your Answer: It causes itchiness in the skin even where there is no obvious lesion to be seen

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. The infestation spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact between people, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. Scabies can be transmitted through direct, prolonged, skin-to-skin contact with an infested person, and it can also spread by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.

      The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, the breast, or shoulder blades. The condition is highly contagious and can easily spread to sexual partners and household members. However, a quick handshake or hug is usually not enough to spread the infestation.

      Fortunately, there are several treatments available for scabies, including permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was seen in the Dermatology Outpatient Clinic with a chronic ulcer on his left forearm. On enquiry by the consultant, he revealed that he suffered full-thickness burn at the site of the ulcer nearly 20 years ago. The consultant told the patient he had a Marjolin’s ulcer.
      Which of the following statements best describes a Marjolin’s ulcer?

      Your Answer: It is due to localised areas of fat necrosis

      Correct Answer: It is often painless

      Explanation:

      Understanding Marjolin’s Ulcer: A Squamous Cell Carcinoma in Scar Tissue

      Marjolin’s ulcer is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that develops in scar tissue. This condition is often associated with chronic wounds and scar tissues, which are prone to an increased risk for skin cancer. While it most frequently occurs in old burn scars, it can also develop in relation to other types of injuries and wounds.

      One of the unique characteristics of Marjolin’s ulcer is that it grows slowly due to the scar tissue being relatively avascular. Additionally, it is painless because the tissue contains no nerves. While it typically appears in adults around 53-59 years of age, the latency period between the initial injury and the appearance of cancer can be 25-40 years.

      Contrary to popular belief, Marjolin’s ulcer is not a sarcoma. Instead, it is a squamous cell carcinoma that can invade normal tissue surrounding the scar and extend at a normal rate. While secondary deposits do not occur in the regional lymph nodes due to the destruction of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes can become involved if the ulcer invades normal tissue.

      In conclusion, understanding Marjolin’s ulcer is crucial for individuals who have experienced chronic wounds or scar tissue. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.3
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  • Question 11 - What is the probable reason for the nail changes observed in Mr Williams,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable reason for the nail changes observed in Mr Williams, an 86-year-old retired dock worker with a history of hypertension and mitral valve replacement, who visited his general practitioner with symptoms of fever, night sweats and fatigue? During examination, his hands showed loss of angle between the nail fold and nail plate, a bulbous fingertip, and painful, erythematous nodules present on both hands.

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s nail signs suggest a diagnosis of clubbing, which is commonly seen in various internal conditions such as cardiac issues like infective endocarditis and cyanotic congenital heart disease, respiratory problems like bronchial cancer, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and pulmonary fibrosis, gastrointestinal issues like inflammatory bowel disease, biliary cirrhosis, and malabsorption, and other conditions like thyroid acropachy. The presence of Osler’s nodes, painful nodules caused by immune complex deposition, further supports a diagnosis of infective endocarditis, which is commonly associated with this symptom. Although the patient has a history of potential asbestos exposure, the history of heart valve replacement, current symptoms, and nail signs point towards infective endocarditis as the likely diagnosis. Other conditions like inflammatory bowel disease, pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis can cause clubbing but not Osler’s nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - For her 4-year-old son Oliver's atopic eczema, Mrs Simpson takes him to the...

    Incorrect

    • For her 4-year-old son Oliver's atopic eczema, Mrs Simpson takes him to the general practice surgery. Despite using aqueous cream regularly, Oliver has not seen much improvement. The general practitioner suggests trying a topical steroid cream. Which topical steroid would be the most suitable option to try next?

      Your Answer: Dermovate

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Topical Steroid Creams for Atopic Eczema Treatment

      Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can be managed with the use of topical steroid creams. These creams come in different potencies, and it is important to use the least potent effective cream for children to avoid side effects. The first step in treatment is emollients such as aqueous cream, followed by mild potency hydrocortisone 1-2.5%. If there is no response, a moderately potent cream like Eumovate may be used. Potent creams like Betnovate and very potent creams like Dermovate are not appropriate next steps in management. Trimovate is a moderate steroid cream with antimicrobial effect. The goal is to achieve control of eczema and step down the ladder of potency until maintenance is achieved on the least potent agent. Understanding the different types of topical steroid creams can help in the effective management of atopic eczema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old builder comes to the GP complaining of large itchy silvery white...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old builder comes to the GP complaining of large itchy silvery white scaly patches on his elbows and knees. He has no history of skin problems, but his father had psoriasis. What is the most suitable initial treatment to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Topical steroid alone

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid and topical calcipotriol

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: NICE Recommendations

      Chronic plaque psoriasis is a common skin condition that can be managed with topical treatments. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends a stepwise approach to treatment, with different options depending on the severity of the condition and the response to previous therapies.

      First-line treatment for chronic plaque psoriasis is a potent corticosteroid applied once daily, combined with a vitamin D analogue, for up to 4 weeks. This combination therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing inflammation and improving symptoms.

      If there is no improvement with both steroid and calcipotriol after 8 weeks, topical calcipotriol alone can be used as a second-line management option. However, it is insufficient to prescribe alone as a first-line treatment.

      Topical steroid alone is a third-line management option for psoriasis if there is no improvement after 8-12 weeks. This is because long-term use of topical steroids can have side effects such as skin thinning and increased risk of infection.

      Short-acting dithranol could be used as a fourth-line option, but not as initial management. Topical coal tar is also part of third-line management for psoriasis.

      In summary, the NICE recommendations for topical treatments for chronic plaque psoriasis involve a stepwise approach, with combination therapy as the first-line option and other treatments used if there is no improvement or if side effects occur. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective and safe treatment plan for each individual.

      NICE Recommendations for Topical Treatments for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris, which includes papules, pustules,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris, which includes papules, pustules, and comedones. She experienced acne during her adolescent years, and it has continued to persist. Her weight and menstrual cycle are normal, and there is no hirsutism. What is a probable cause of her condition?

      Your Answer: Excess androgen

      Correct Answer: Bacteria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Aetiology of Acne: Factors and Myths

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects individuals beyond their teenage years, particularly women. The presence and activity of Propionibacterium acnes, a normally commensal bacteria, is a significant factor in the development of acne. Other aetiological factors include genetic predisposition, seborrhoea, sensitivity to normal levels of circulating androgen, blockage of the pilosebaceous duct, and immunological factors. Polycystic ovary syndrome is an unlikely cause of acne. P. acnes thrives in acne lesions due to elevated sebum production or follicle blockage, triggering inflammation. Diet and poor personal hygiene are not involved in the aetiology of acne. Combined oral contraceptives can be beneficial in treating acne. It is a myth that chocolate or dirt causes acne. Understanding these factors and myths can help in the effective management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of pruritic, polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner aspect of his forearm. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Disorders and Their Characteristics

      Lichen planus is a skin disorder that has an unknown cause but is likely autoimmune. On the other hand, lichen sclerosus is characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly seen on the vulva of elderly women. Scabies, which typically affects children and young adults, causes widespread itching and linear burrows on finger sides, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrist. Eczema usually presents as an itchy, red rash in the flexural areas, while psoriasis is characterized by itchy white or red patches on the extensor surfaces. These are some of the most common skin disorders and their distinct characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old man who has been experiencing a lot of stress at work...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who has been experiencing a lot of stress at work lately presents with an itchy, red rash above the right corner of his mouth. The rash appeared 4 months ago, went away briefly, and then returned. He has used a topical corticosteroid to alleviate the symptoms, but had to discontinue it due to a flare-up of his facial acne. He admits to drinking excessive amounts of alcohol recently. On examination, there is a poorly defined red rash on the right side of his face, affecting the nasolabial fold. Additionally, there are fine, oily scales present.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is characterized by an ill-defined, itchy, erythematosus rash with fine, greasy scales. It typically affects the scalp, nasolabial fold, or post-auricular skin in adolescents and adults.

      Dermatitis Herpetiformis: Often seen in patients with coeliac disease and malabsorption, this condition presents with intensely itchy grouped vesicles/papules over the extensor surfaces of the elbow, knee, upper back, and buttocks.

      Lichen Planus: This condition is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, red to violaceous polygonal papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrists.

      Atopic Dermatitis: This condition involves flexural regions in adult patients and is often associated with a history of atopy. The acute form of atopic dermatitis presents with erythema, oedema, vesicles, and papules.

      Psoriasis: This condition is characterized by thick, well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scaling over the extensor surface of the elbows and knees.

      Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child has developed itchy, oozing sores on their body, palms, and soles. The child's two siblings are also experiencing similar symptoms. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: 1% Hydrocortisone topical

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation that can cause lesions on the palms and soles, accompanied by intense itching. If a sibling has a similar history, it is likely that they are also infested with scabies. The lesions are caused by scratching and can become exudative. The treatment of choice for scabies is topical permethrin or malathion. These medications can help to kill the mites that cause scabies and alleviate the symptoms of itching and skin irritation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage care assistant from a local nursing home presents with sudden onset of an intensely itchy rash. This covers her whole body. She has no history of skin problems. On examination there is a combination of raised erythematous papules covering her arms and trunk and linear marks to her forearms. There is excoriated skin in the inter-digital spaces.
      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral antihistamines

      Correct Answer: Permethrin cream

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies Treatment: Permethrin Cream and Other Options

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which can lead to symptoms such as itching and a rash with superficial burrows and pimples. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is permethrin 5% dermal cream, which needs to be applied to the whole body and repeated a week later. In cases of moderate eczema, a regular emollient plus a moderately potent topical steroid may be used in addition to permethrin. However, a combination of moderately potent topical steroid and topical antifungal agent is not appropriate for scabies treatment. Oral antihistamines may provide symptomatic relief but are not a treatment for scabies. Malathion 5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment option for patients allergic to chrysanthemums who cannot use permethrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole on her back. The mole is oval in shape, 2 cm in length, and has an irregular border throughout. The colour is uniform, and there has been no change in sensation. The GP wants to evaluate the lesion using the weighted 7-point checklist for assessment of pigmented lesions to determine if the lesion requires referral to Dermatology.
      What is a significant feature that scores 2 on the checklist?

      Your Answer: Oozing or crusting of a lesion

      Correct Answer: Irregular shape or border

      Explanation:

      The 7-Point Checklist for Assessing Pigmented Lesions

      The 7-point checklist is a tool used to assess pigmented lesions for potential malignancy. Major features, such as a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, score 2 points each. Minor features, including a largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing or crusting of the lesion, and change in sensation (including itch), score 1 point each. The weighted 7-point checklist is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for use in General Practice. Lesions scoring three points or more should be referred urgently to Dermatology. Malignant melanomas can present with the development of a new mole or a change in an existing mole. The features highlighted in the 7-point checklist should be ascertained in the history to determine how urgently a mole needs to be referred to exclude malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - Which therapy is unsuitable for the given condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which therapy is unsuitable for the given condition?

      Your Answer: Permethrin for scabies

      Correct Answer: Surgical excision for a cavernous haemangioma 3 cm × 4 cm on the arm

      Explanation:

      Cavernous Haemangiomas and Alopecia Areata: Conditions and Treatment Options

      Cavernous haemangiomas are benign growths that typically appear within the first two weeks of life. They are usually found on the face, neck, or trunk and are well-defined and lobulated. Surgical excision is not recommended, but treatment may be necessary if the growths inhibit normal development, such as obstructing vision in one eye. Treatment options include systemic or local steroids, sclerosants, interferon, or laser treatment.

      Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in discrete areas. Treatment options include cortisone injections into the affected areas and the use of topical cortisone creams. It is important to note that both conditions require medical attention and treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and treatment, individuals with cavernous haemangiomas and alopecia areata can manage their conditions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with uncontrolled psoriasis is returning with deteriorating symptoms. Despite using potent topical treatments, her psoriasis remains uncontrolled.

      What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Add in psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation

      Correct Answer: Add in narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy

      Explanation:

      Next Steps in Psoriasis Treatment: Narrow-Band UVB Phototherapy

      When topical treatments fail to improve psoriasis symptoms, the next step in treatment is often narrow-band ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy. While it has a reasonable success rate, it also comes with potential complications such as an increased risk of skin cancer. Patients with a history of skin cancer may not be recommended for this treatment.

      Changing topical steroids would not be an appropriate step in the management plan. Instead, it is necessary to move onto the next step of the psoriasis treatment ladder. Biologics are not indicated at this stage and should only be considered as an end-stage treatment due to their high cost and significant side effects.

      Psoralen with local ultraviolet A (UVA) irradiation may be appropriate for patients with palmoplantar pustulosis. However, for most patients, stopping steroids is not recommended. Instead, narrow-band UVB phototherapy should be commenced without stopping steroids to optimize treatment and increase the chances of success.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a worsening itchy, red rash over his trunk, arms and legs. He has a medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol. Upon examination, the doctor observes an extensive erythematosus rash with scaling covering a large portion of his body. The patient has a normal temperature, a blood pressure of 110/88 mmHg and a heart rate of 101 bpm. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone

      Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are systemically unwell and live alone, urgent admission to the hospital is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. The patient needs to be managed in the hospital due to the high risk of infection and dehydration. Topical emollients and steroids are essential in the management of erythroderma, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring. Oral antibiotics are not indicated in the absence of features of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue would be appropriate for a patient with psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An urgent outpatient Dermatology appointment is not appropriate for an elderly patient with abnormal observations and living alone.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 14-year-old female has been experiencing multiple, non-tender, erythematosus, annular lesions with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female has been experiencing multiple, non-tender, erythematosus, annular lesions with a collarette of scales at the periphery for the past two weeks. These lesions are only present on her trunk. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis pilaris

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis Rosea

      Pityriasis rosea (PR) is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents and young adults. It is often associated with upper respiratory infections and is characterized by a herald patch, which is a circular or oval-shaped lesion that appears on the trunk, neck, or extremities. The herald patch is usually about 1-2 cm in diameter and has a central, salmon-colored area surrounded by a dark red border.

      About one to two weeks after the herald patch appears, a generalized rash develops. This rash is symmetrical and consists of macules with a collarette scale that aligns with the skin’s cleavage lines. The rash can last for up to six weeks before resolving on its own.

      Overall, PR is a benign condition that does not require treatment. However, if the rash is particularly itchy or uncomfortable, topical corticosteroids or antihistamines may be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. It is important to note that PR is not contagious and does not pose any serious health risks.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypercholesterolaemia and psoriasis is admitted to the hospital after experiencing central crushing chest pain. He was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) and received appropriate treatment. While in the hospital, he had a psoriasis flare-up.
      Which medication is most likely responsible for the psoriasis flare-up?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Medications and Psoriasis: Which Drugs to Avoid

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered by various factors, including stress, infection, and certain medications. While sunlight can help alleviate psoriasis symptoms in most patients, it can worsen the condition in some individuals. Among the drugs that can exacerbate psoriasis are β blockers, antimalarials, lithium, and interferons. Therefore, if possible, people with psoriasis should avoid taking these medications. However, drugs such as clopidogrel, glyceryl trinitrate spray, low-molecular-weight heparin, and statins are not known to cause psoriasis flares. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication if you have psoriasis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment. A few of the blisters have burst, resulting in a sore, exposed region. The base of one of the erosive lesions is scraped for Tzanck test. Upon examination, acantholytic keratinocytes with significant hyperchromatic nuclei are detected under the microscope.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions on Tzanck Smear: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes Simplex, Chickenpox, and Bullous Pemphigoid

      When examining a patient’s bullous skin lesions on a Tzanck smear, it is important to distinguish between various skin conditions. In the case of acantholytic keratinocytes, the most likely diagnosis is pemphigus vulgaris. This autoimmune disorder is caused by an antibody against intraepithelial desmosomal junctions, resulting in the separation of keratinocytes and the formation of intraepithelial blisters.

      Cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, and chickenpox can also present with multinucleated giant cells on a Tzanck smear. However, these conditions are caused by viral infections rather than autoimmune disorders.

      Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is caused by an antibody against the dermal-epidermal junction. The associated blisters are sub-epidermal in location and do not contain acantholytic keratinocytes.

      In summary, a Tzanck smear can provide valuable information in diagnosing various skin conditions, including pemphigus vulgaris, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, chickenpox, and bullous pemphigoid. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1? ...

    Correct

    • What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?

      Your Answer: Café au lait spots

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2

      Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.

      Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
      Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?

      Your Answer: Spread to regional lymph nodes is very rare

      Correct Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic plaques behind the elbows and knees

      Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A General Practitioner is summoned to the nursing home to examine a 70-year-old...

    Correct

    • A General Practitioner is summoned to the nursing home to examine a 70-year-old man with dementia and severe pruritus. During the examination, the doctor observes excoriations on the patient's trunk and limbs. The patient also has scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies infestation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies Infestation

      Scabies infestation is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is commonly transmitted through close contact and is prevalent in nursing homes and other institutions. The primary symptom of scabies is severe itching, and if present, burrows (linear crusted lesions) and penile papules are highly suggestive. The condition typically affects the web-spaces and around the nipples, with scalp involvement only occurring in young babies and debilitated adults. Excoriations are also common.

      The treatment for scabies usually involves the use of permethrin, and close contacts should be treated simultaneously. Atopic eczema is unlikely to present at this age, and chronic kidney disease and diabetes are associated with several skin conditions but do not typically cause pruritus. Iron-deficiency anaemia may cause pruritus, but it is rarely as severe as scabies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She...

    Correct

    • Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She reports no allergies or recent changes in cosmetic or detergent products. During the examination, the GP observes multiple excoriation marks throughout her body. Bethany also mentions experiencing fatigue and weight gain recently. What is the probable cause of her systemic pruritus?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes and diagnostic workup of systemic pruritus

      Systemic pruritus, or generalized itching, can have various underlying causes, including pregnancy, primary biliary cholangitis, renal failure, diabetes, leukaemia, polycythaemia, psychological factors, and hypothyroidism. To diagnose the condition, blood tests are typically performed to rule out these potential causes. Hypothyroidism may be suspected if the patient also experiences weight gain and fatigue. Treatment for systemic pruritus involves addressing the underlying condition, as well as using measures such as keeping the skin cool, applying emollients, and taking sedating antihistamines at night.

      Other conditions that may cause pruritus but are less likely in this case include iron deficiency anaemia, which typically presents with pallor rather than weight gain, and cholestasis, which usually causes jaundice, dark urine, and pale stool. Lymphoma, a type of cancer affecting the lymphatic system, may cause weight loss and lymphadenopathy rather than weight gain. Widespread dermatitis, characterized by a rash, is another possible cause of pruritus.

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      • Dermatology
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