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  • Question 1 - Which hormone triggers the breakdown of glycogen in the liver during fasting? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone triggers the breakdown of glycogen in the liver during fasting?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glycogen Formation and Degradation

      In normal circumstances, glucose in the blood is converted into glycogen by the liver with the help of insulin and rising glucose levels. This process requires several enzymes such as phosphoglucomutase, glucose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, glycogen synthase, and branching enzyme. However, when glucose is scarce, glycogen must be broken down to release glucose into the blood. This process is mainly stimulated by the hormone glucagon and requires the enzymes glycogen phosphorylase and debranching enzyme. Defects in either glycogen formation or degradation can lead to fasting hypoglycemia, which is a common feature of many glycogen storage disorders (GSDs).

      One such disorder is glycogen synthase deficiency (GSD type 0), which typically presents in childhood with symptoms of hypoglycemia after an overnight fast. However, symptoms can be improved by administering glucose, and patients can be given corn starch to prevent symptoms in the morning. A liver biopsy will show very little glycogen, and the disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. Overall, the balance between glycogen formation and degradation is crucial in maintaining normal blood sugar levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old unvaccinated girl visits her pediatrician with her father. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old unvaccinated girl visits her pediatrician with her father. She has been experiencing severe coughing for the past 2 weeks. Her father reports that she sometimes retches or vomits after prolonged coughing episodes.

      While in the doctor's office, the girl starts coughing heavily with occasional gasps for air in between each cough.

      What type of culture medium is necessary to confirm the probable pathogen responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Blood agar

      Correct Answer: Bordet-Gengou agar

      Explanation:

      The appropriate agar for culturing Bordetella pertussis, the bacteria responsible for whooping cough, is Bordet-Gengou agar. This is supported by the patient’s history of prolonged cough and post-percussive retching and vomiting. Blood agar, used for isolating Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species, and Chocolate agar, used for Haemophilus influenzae, are not appropriate for culturing Bordetella pertussis. Lowenstein-Jensen agar, used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is also not relevant to this case.

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old female patient complained of pain and bleeding during sexual intercourse. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female patient complained of pain and bleeding during sexual intercourse. Upon referral to colposcopy, she was diagnosed with cervical cancer. The doctor informed her that she would need to undergo surgery to remove the tumour and also remove the lymph nodes that drain the cervix.

      Which group of lymph nodes is the doctor referring to?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      The cervix primarily drains into the internal iliac lymph nodes. The deep inguinal lymph nodes do not drain the cervix, but they do drain the clitoris and glans penis. The external iliac lymph nodes are not significantly involved in the lymphatic drainage of the cervix, but they do play a role in the drainage of the bladder fundus, prostate, and adductor region of the thigh. The para-aortic nodes drain the ovaries, but not the cervix. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes are not involved in the drainage of the cervix, but they are important in the drainage of the anal canal (below the pectinate line), scrotum, and perineum.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred speech. You perform a cranial nerves examination and find that her oculomotor nerve has been affected. What sign would you anticipate observing in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ptosis

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is ptosis. Issues with the oculomotor nerve can cause ptosis, a drooping of the eyelid, as well as a dilated, fixed pupil and a down and out eye. The oculomotor nerve is responsible for various functions, including eye movements (such as those controlled by the MR, IO, SR, and IR muscles), pupil constriction, accommodation, and eyelid opening. Arcuate scotoma is an incorrect answer. This condition is caused by damage to the optic nerve, resulting in a blind spot that appears as an arc shape in the visual field. It does not affect extraocular movements. Bitemporal hemianopia is also an incorrect answer. This visual field defect affects the outer halves of both eyes and is caused by lesions of the optic chiasm, such as those resulting from a pituitary adenoma. Horizontal diplopia is another incorrect answer. This condition is caused by problems with the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral rectus muscle responsible for eye abduction. Defective abduction leads to horizontal diplopia, or double vision.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What are the vitamins that are soluble in fat? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the vitamins that are soluble in fat?

      Your Answer: Vitamins D, E and K

      Correct Answer: Vitamins A, D, E and K

      Explanation:

      Absorption of Fat-Soluble Vitamins

      Fat-soluble vitamins, namely A, D, E, and K, have a different absorption process compared to water-soluble vitamins. In the gut, these vitamins are combined with other fat-soluble substances such as monoacylglycerols and cholesterol to form micelles. These micelles are then transported to the lymphatic system and eventually enter the bloodstream through the subclavian vein.

      However, any issues that affect the absorption of fats will also impact the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. This means that individuals with conditions that affect fat absorption, such as cystic fibrosis or celiac disease, may have difficulty absorbing these vitamins. It is important to ensure adequate intake of fat-soluble vitamins through a balanced diet or supplements to prevent deficiencies and associated health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year old woman with asthma presents to the Emergency department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year old woman with asthma presents to the Emergency department with difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you observe that she is utilizing accessory muscles for respiration. Can you identify which muscle is considered an accessory muscle of respiration?

      Your Answer: Trapezius

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Accessory Muscles of Respiration

      The accessory muscles of respiration are utilized during deep inspiration and consist of several muscles. These muscles include the sternocleidomastoid, scalenus anterior, medius, and posterior, serratus anterior, and pectoralis major and minor. However, there is no consensus on the exact number of muscles that can be classified as ‘accessory’. Some lists include any muscle that can impact chest expansion. It is important to note that the trapezius muscle cannot be considered an accessory muscle of respiration as it is not connected to the ribs. Overall, the accessory muscles of respiration play a crucial role in deep breathing and chest expansion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During a left hemicolectomy the sigmoid colon is mobilised. As the bowel is...

    Correct

    • During a left hemicolectomy the sigmoid colon is mobilised. As the bowel is retracted medially a vessel is injured, anterior to the colon. Which one of the following is the most likely vessel?

      Your Answer: Gonadal vessels

      Explanation:

      During a right hemicolectomy, the gonadal vessels and ureter are crucial structures located at the posterior aspect that may be vulnerable to injury.

      The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions

      The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.

      The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      1864.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man with confirmed heart failure visits the community cardiology clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with confirmed heart failure visits the community cardiology clinic and complains of ankle swelling as his most bothersome symptom. He expresses reluctance to begin another diuretic due to a previous hospitalization for weakness, nausea, and abdominal cramps after starting one. The cardiologist proposes initiating an aldosterone receptor antagonist. What medication is the cardiologist recommending?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic)

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.

      However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old rugby player presents with a sore throat, followed by severe malaise,...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old rugby player presents with a sore throat, followed by severe malaise, high fever, and confusion two days later. He had a splenectomy three years ago after rupturing his spleen during a rugby match. The consultant suspects that he may have septicaemia.

      Which organism poses the highest risk to patients who have had their spleen removed?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Increased Infection Risk for Patients without a Spleen

      Patients who have had their spleen removed have a weakened immune system, making them less capable of fighting off encapsulated bacteria. This puts them at a higher risk of infection from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Escherichia coli. While it is recommended for these patients to receive vaccinations and sometimes antibiotics, there is still a significant risk of overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), with a lifetime risk as high as 4%. Therefore, it is important for patients without a spleen to take extra precautions to prevent infections and seek medical attention promptly if they experience any symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 12-year-old girl is being informed about the typical changes that occur during...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl is being informed about the typical changes that occur during puberty by her doctor. The doctor explains that there are three main changes that usually happen before menarche. What is the order in which these changes occur?

      Your Answer: Breast buds, growth of pubic hair, growth of axillary hair

      Explanation:

      The onset of menarche is preceded by three sequential physical changes: the development of breast buds, growth of pubic hair, and growth of axillary hair. These changes are brought about by the hormone estrogen, which is crucial for the process of puberty.

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6-year-old boy has been experiencing recurring headaches. During his evaluation, an MRI...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has been experiencing recurring headaches. During his evaluation, an MRI scan of his brain was conducted, revealing an enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles. What is the probable location of the obstruction?

      Your Answer: Foramen of Luschka

      Correct Answer: Aqueduct of Sylvius

      Explanation:

      The Aqueduct of Sylvius is the pathway through which the CSF moves from the 3rd to the 4th ventricle.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of pelvic pain, weight loss,...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of pelvic pain, weight loss, and vaginal bleeding that has persisted for 3 months. She has been menopausal for 15 years and is not currently taking any medication. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found in her abdomen or pelvis, and she is referred to a gynaecologist for urgent evaluation. Unfortunately, the patient is diagnosed with endometrial cancer that has spread to the fundus of her uterus.

      Which lymph node region is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread in this patient?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The para-aortic lymph nodes are responsible for draining the uterine fundus. This is because the ovaries develop in the abdomen and move down the posterior abdominal wall during fetal development, and their lymphatic drainage comes from the para-aortic nodes. Therefore, lymphatic spread is most likely to occur in this location.

      The inferior mesenteric nodes are not responsible for draining the uterine fundus, as they primarily drain hindgut structures from the transverse colon down to the rectum.

      Similarly, the internal iliac nodes are not responsible for draining the uterine fundus, as they primarily drain the inferior portion of the rectum, the anal canal above the pectinate line, and the pelvic viscera.

      The posterior mediastinal chain is also not responsible for draining the uterine fundus, as it primarily drains the oesophagus, mediastinum, and posterior surface of the diaphragm.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which tumour is most frequently found in children who are less than one...

    Correct

    • Which tumour is most frequently found in children who are less than one year old?

      Your Answer: Neuroblastoma

      Explanation:

      Common Tumours in Children Under 1 Year Old

      Embryonal ‘-blastoma’ tumours are frequently found in children under 1 year old. These tumours include retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, nephroblastoma, medulloblastoma, and hepatoblastoma. Among these, neuroblastoma is the most common and typically affects infants under 1 year old. It originates from neural crest cells in the adrenal medulla and often presents as a large abdominal mass in an otherwise healthy child.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common cancer in children overall, but it is less common in infants under 1 year old. Unfortunately, the prognosis for those who develop ALL before their first birthday is poorer. Astrocytomas, the most common type of CNS tumour, tend to affect slightly older children.

      Retinoblastomas are embryonal tumours of the retina, with half being spontaneous and the other half being familial due to an inherited mutation in the pRB tumour suppressor gene. Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is another embryonal tumour that affects the kidneys and may present as an abdominal mass in infants.

      In summary, embryonal ‘-blastoma’ tumours are common in children under 1 year old, with neuroblastoma being the most prevalent. Other tumours, such as ALL and astrocytomas, tend to affect slightly older children. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in these young patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man undergoes a partial thyroidectomy and experiences hoarseness upon returning to the ward. As a healthcare professional, you know that this is a common complication of thyroid surgery. Which nerve is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) that provides motor supply to all but one of the laryngeal muscles and sensory supply to the larynx below the vocal cords. The left nerve loops under the arch of the aorta and passes deep to the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx, while the right nerve usually loops under the right subclavian artery. Both nerves pass close to or through the thyroid ligament, making them susceptible to injury during thyroid surgery. Dysfunction of either nerve can result in a hoarse voice.

      The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is the only other nerve among the given options that innervates the larynx. It carries sensory supply to the larynx above the vocal cords, while the external branch supplies the cricothyroid muscle. Dysfunction of the external branch can cause a hoarse voice, but dysfunction of the internal branch will not.

      The greater auricular nerve and transverse cervical nerve are superficial cutaneous nerves that arise from the cervical plexus and supply the skin overlying the mandible, ear auricle, and neck. The phrenic nerve, also arising from the cervical plexus, provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensation to the parietal pericardium and pleura adjacent to the mediastinum.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A senior citizen trips and falls, injuring her hip. Upon examination, her hip...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen trips and falls, injuring her hip. Upon examination, her hip is sensitive to touch and x-rays are ordered to check for a possible intertrochanteric fracture. What is the typical degree of the angle between the femoral neck and shaft?

      Your Answer: 80o

      Correct Answer: 130o

      Explanation:

      The femoral head and shaft typically form an angle of 130 degrees, but any deviations from this angle may indicate underlying disease or pathology and require further examination.

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A one-year-old is brought to the paediatric team for assessment. The parents report...

    Correct

    • A one-year-old is brought to the paediatric team for assessment. The parents report that the child's right arm hangs loosely and does not move in coordination with the other limbs.

      Upon examination, an adducted, internally rotated right upper limb with an extended elbow is observed. However, movement of the right wrist appears normal.

      Based on these findings, where is the most likely location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: C5 and C6

      Explanation:

      The infant’s arm is observed to be hanging loosely after a difficult forceps delivery, with adduction and internal rotation and extension of the elbow, indicating an injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus involving nerve roots C5 and C6. This is known as Erb’s palsy, which is commonly associated with difficult forceps deliveries and requires specialized management. Lower brachial plexus injuries affecting nerve roots C7 and C8 are less frequent and would cause wrist and forearm pathology rather than shoulder and elbow weakness. Isolated damage to the C6 nerve root is unlikely, as it is typically affected alongside the C5 nerve root.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old girl is playing with some small ball bearings. Regrettably, she inhales...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is playing with some small ball bearings. Regrettably, she inhales one. In which of the following lung regions is the ball expected to settle?

      Your Answer: Right lower lobe

      Explanation:

      Due to the angle of the right main bronchus from the trachea, small objects are more likely to get stuck in the most dependent part of the right lung. This makes the right lung the preferred location for most objects to enter.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old male has just been prescribed olanzapine for his schizophrenia. However, his...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male has just been prescribed olanzapine for his schizophrenia. However, his family reports that he appears restless and has a blank stare. During your examination, you observe an upward deviation of both eyes.

      What could be the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve VI palsy

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric-crisis

      Explanation:

      Acute dystonia is characterized by sustained muscle contraction, such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis. These symptoms are unlikely to be caused by a brain tumor.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often triggered by the initiation of anti-dopaminergic medication or withdrawal of dopamine agonists. Symptoms include fever, sweating, muscle rigidity, and confusion. Treatment involves discontinuing anti-dopaminergic medications and sometimes starting dopamine agonists like bromocriptine. Symptomatic care, such as cooling blankets, may also be provided. Antipyretics are not effective in treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      Oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction that typically occurs shortly after starting antipsychotics, particularly older typical antipsychotics. Treatment involves stopping the medication and administering antimuscarinic drugs.

      A cranial nerve III palsy would result in a ‘down and out gaze,’ while a cranial nerve VI palsy would cause an inability to effectively abduct the eye.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old man presents with symptoms of altered bowel habit and weight loss...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with symptoms of altered bowel habit and weight loss for the past eight weeks. After undergoing screening for faecal occult blood, he is diagnosed with colorectal carcinoma. A biopsy reveals that the tumour has invaded the muscularis propria, but there is no evidence of metastases in the local lymph nodes. What is the likely stage of this cancer?

      Your Answer: Duke's stage B

      Explanation:

      Duke’s Staging and Prognostic Value

      Duke’s staging system is a useful tool in predicting the prognosis of colorectal cancer patients. The system was developed by Cuthbert Duke, a pathologist from the United Kingdom, in the 1930s. The staging system is based on the extent of tumor invasion and lymph node involvement.

      Stage A refers to tumors that are confined to the mucosa, with a five-year survival rate of 90%. Stage B includes tumors that have invaded through the muscularis propria but have no lymph node involvement, with a five-year survival rate of 60%. Stage C includes tumors that have spread to the lymph nodes, with a five-year survival rate of 30%. Finally, stage D describes patients with metastatic disease.

      The Duke’s staging system is a valuable tool for clinicians in determining the prognosis of colorectal cancer patients. It provides a clear of the extent of the disease and helps in making treatment decisions. The system has been widely used for many years and has proven to be a reliable predictor of survival rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.1
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  • Question 20 - A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP due to poor glycaemic control for the past three days, with home blood glucose readings around 25 mmol/L. He is currently being treated with metformin and lisinopril. Yesterday, his GP checked his U+E and found that his serum sodium was 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium was 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea was 20 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine was 350 µmol/L (60-110). On examination, he has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 108 bpm, a blood pressure of 96/60 mmHg, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturations of 99% on air. His cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examination are otherwise normal. Further investigations reveal a plasma glucose level of 17 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and urine analysis showing blood ++ and protein ++, but ketones are negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      16.1
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  • Question 21 - Secretions from which of the following will contain the highest levels of potassium?...

    Incorrect

    • Secretions from which of the following will contain the highest levels of potassium?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Correct Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      The rectum can produce potassium-rich secretions, which is why resins are given to treat hyperkalemia and why patients with villous adenoma of the rectum may experience hypokalemia.

      Potassium Secretions in the GI Tract

      Potassium is secreted in various parts of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The salivary glands can secrete up to 60mmol/L of potassium, while the stomach secretes only 10 mmol/L. The bile, pancreas, and small bowel also secrete potassium, with average figures of 5 mmol/L, 4-5 mmol/L, and 10 mmol/L, respectively. The rectum has the highest potassium secretion, with an average of 30 mmol/L. However, the exact composition of potassium secretions varies depending on factors such as disease, serum aldosterone levels, and serum pH.

      It is important to note that gastric potassium secretions are low, and hypokalaemia (low potassium levels) may occur in vomiting. However, this is usually due to renal wasting of potassium rather than potassium loss in vomit. Understanding the different levels of potassium secretion in the GI tract can be helpful in diagnosing and treating potassium-related disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.3
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  • Question 22 - A 62-year-old man visited his primary care physician after his family noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man visited his primary care physician after his family noticed a significant weight loss over the past few months. The man confirms the weight loss and denies intentionally trying to lose weight or any changes in his appetite. He also reports experiencing night sweats and a fever, which he attributes to a cold. The patient has a history of well-controlled hypertension and no surgical history. He has not traveled recently and does not smoke or drink alcohol. During the physical examination, an enlarged lymph node in the armpit and splenomegaly were noted. The most likely diagnosis was confirmed through fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH), which revealed a translocation of the heavy-chain immunoglobulin and cyclin D1. What is the most likely translocation found in this patient?

      Your Answer: t(11;18)

      Correct Answer: t(11;14)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mantle Cell Lymphoma

      Mantle cell lymphoma is a type of B-cell lymphoma that is characterized by the over-expression of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene due to a translocation (11;14). This cancer is identified by the presence of CD5+, CD19+, CD22+, and CD23- markers. Unfortunately, mantle cell lymphoma has a poor prognosis and is often associated with widespread lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, mantle cell lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects B-cells and is caused by a specific genetic translocation. It is identified by certain markers and is known for its poor prognosis and widespread lymphadenopathy. Understanding the basics of this disease can help with early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      38.1
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  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old male has an accident at work where he is injured by...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male has an accident at work where he is injured by a loose piece of glass. The glass cuts his skin and damages the tendons of one of the muscles in his hand. Consequently, he cannot flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his ring finger. However, he can still flex the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) and the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the same finger. None of his other fingers are impacted.

      Which muscle is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Explanation:

      The flexor digitorum profundus muscle is primarily responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. It is located deep to the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle and is specific to each digit. The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle, on the other hand, flexes the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. The flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is responsible for flexing and adducting the wrist, while the flexor pollicis longus muscle flexes the thumb. It is important to note that the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle must be intact for its function to remain present.

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      20.4
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  • Question 24 - A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for a wide local excision with sentinel lymph...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for a wide local excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy after being diagnosed with breast cancer on the right side. During examination, a hard irregular mass was found in the upper inner quadrant of the right breast, along with nipple inversion. Which group of lymph nodes is most likely to be affected by metastasis from this tumor?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      The axillary nodes are responsible for draining the majority of lymphatic fluid from breast tissue. These nodes are located under the arms and are often affected by tumour invasion. If lymphatic spread is confirmed, a surgical procedure called axillary lymph node dissection may be performed to remove the affected nodes. The contralateral axillary nodes are not involved in the drainage of the affected breast. The infraclavicular nodes primarily drain the forearm and hand, and are not commonly affected by breast tumour metastasis. The parasternal nodes are a potential site of metastasis from all quadrants of the breast, but do not play a major role in breast tissue lymphatic drainage.

      The breast is situated on a layer of pectoral fascia and is surrounded by the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and external oblique muscles. The nerve supply to the breast comes from branches of intercostal nerves from T4-T6, while the arterial supply comes from the internal mammary (thoracic) artery, external mammary artery (laterally), anterior intercostal arteries, and thoraco-acromial artery. The breast’s venous drainage is through a superficial venous plexus to subclavian, axillary, and intercostal veins. Lymphatic drainage occurs through the axillary nodes, internal mammary chain, and other lymphatic sites such as deep cervical and supraclavicular fossa (later in disease).

      The preparation for lactation involves the hormones oestrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen. Oestrogen promotes duct development in high concentrations, while high levels of progesterone stimulate the formation of lobules. Human placental lactogen prepares the mammary glands for lactation. The two hormones involved in stimulating lactation are prolactin and oxytocin. Prolactin causes milk secretion, while oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells surrounding the mammary alveoli to result in milk ejection from the breast. Suckling of the baby stimulates the mechanoreceptors in the nipple, resulting in the release of both prolactin and oxytocin from the pituitary gland (anterior and posterior parts respectively).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      29.7
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  • Question 25 - A child undergoes a challenging craniotomy for fulminant mastoiditis and abscess. While performing...

    Correct

    • A child undergoes a challenging craniotomy for fulminant mastoiditis and abscess. While performing the surgery, the trigeminal nerve is severely affected in Meckel's cave. What is the least probable deficit that the child will experience?

      Your Answer: Anaesthesia over the entire ipsilateral side of the face

      Explanation:

      The sensory fibres of the trigeminal nerve do not provide innervation to the angle of the jaw, which means that this area is not affected by this type of injury. However, since the trigeminal nerve is responsible for providing motor innervation to the muscles of mastication, an injury in close proximity to the motor fibres may result in some degree of compromise in muscle function.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      54.8
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  • Question 26 - How many valves are present between the right atrium and the superior vena...

    Incorrect

    • How many valves are present between the right atrium and the superior vena cava (SVC)?

      Your Answer: One

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Inserting a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium is relatively easy due to the absence of valves.

      The Superior Vena Cava: Anatomy, Relations, and Developmental Variations

      The superior vena cava (SVC) is a large vein that drains blood from the head and neck, upper limbs, thorax, and part of the abdominal walls. It is formed by the union of the subclavian and internal jugular veins, which then join to form the right and left brachiocephalic veins. The SVC is located in the anterior margins of the right lung and pleura, and is related to the trachea and right vagus nerve posteromedially, and the posterior aspects of the right lung and pleura posterolaterally. The pulmonary hilum is located posteriorly, while the right phrenic nerve and pleura are located laterally on the right side, and the brachiocephalic artery and ascending aorta are located laterally on the left side.

      Developmental variations of the SVC are recognized, including anomalies of its connection and interruption of the inferior vena cava (IVC) in its abdominal course. In some individuals, a persistent left-sided SVC may drain into the right atrium via an enlarged orifice of the coronary sinus, while in rare cases, the left-sided vena cava may connect directly with the superior aspect of the left atrium, usually associated with an unroofing of the coronary sinus. Interruption of the IVC may occur in patients with left-sided atrial isomerism, with drainage achieved via the azygos venous system.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy, relations, and developmental variations of the SVC is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.8
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  • Question 27 - Emergency medical services are summoned to attend to a 44-year-old motorcyclist who collided...

    Incorrect

    • Emergency medical services are summoned to attend to a 44-year-old motorcyclist who collided with a vehicle. The patient is alert but has sustained a fracture to the shaft of his right humerus. He is experiencing difficulty with extending his wrist and elbow. Which nerve is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Ulnar

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve is the most probable nerve to have been affected.

      Understanding the anatomical pathway of the major nerves in the upper limb is crucial. The radial nerve originates from the axilla, travels down the arm through the radial groove of the humerus, and then moves anteriorly to the lateral epicondyle in the forearm. It primarily supplies motor innervation to the posterior compartments of the arm and forearm, which are responsible for extension.

      The radial nerve is commonly damaged due to mid-humeral shaft fractures, shoulder dislocation, and lateral elbow injuries.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 28 - In which cell types can mesenchymal pluripotent stem cells undergo differentiation? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which cell types can mesenchymal pluripotent stem cells undergo differentiation?

      Your Answer: Mesenchymal progenitor cells

      Correct Answer: Osteoblasts, adipocytes and chondrocytes

      Explanation:

      Mesenchymal Stem Cells: A Versatile Type of Connective Tissue

      The mesenchyme is a type of connective tissue that originates from the embryonic mesoderm and is composed of undifferentiated cells. During fetal development, these mesenchymal stem cells differentiate into various types of adult cells, including osteoblasts, adipocytes, and chondrocytes. Mesenchymal stem cells have a remarkable ability to self-renew, making them a valuable resource for regenerative medicine.

      Osteoblasts are cells that generate bone tissue, while adipocytes are responsible for storing fat in the body. Chondrocytes, on the other hand, produce cartilage, which is essential for maintaining healthy joints. These three cell types are the primary products of mesenchymal stem cells.

      It’s important to note that the other answer options are incorrect because they don’t arise from mesenchymal stem cells. Mesenchymal stem cells are a versatile type of connective tissue that holds great promise for treating a wide range of medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      31.1
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old female comes to you with a similar concern about her 'unsightly...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female comes to you with a similar concern about her 'unsightly toe'. She has been hesitant to wear open-toed shoes due to the appearance of her toe. After taking some clippings and sending them to the lab, the results confirm onychomycosis. You decide to prescribe a 6-month course of terbinafine.

      What is the mechanism of action of terbinafine?

      Your Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Squalene epoxidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Terbinafine causes cellular death by inhibiting the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase, which is responsible for the biosynthesis of ergosterol – an essential component of fungal cell membranes.

      Rifampicin suppresses RNA synthesis and causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

      Digoxin, which is not an antibiotic, inhibits Na+K+ATPase.

      Quinolones prevent bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating by inhibiting DNA topoisomerase.

      Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis by binding to dihydrofolate reductase and preventing the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF), which is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      32.3
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  • Question 30 - A patient has been diagnosed with multiple myeloma, and genetic analysis has revealed...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with multiple myeloma, and genetic analysis has revealed that a single copy of their p53 gene has been mutated. Usually, two copies of a tumour suppressor gene need to be mutated for cancer to develop. The doctor explains that sometimes having only one copy of TP53 is insufficient to suppress the cancer.

      What is this phenomenon known as?

      Your Answer: Genomic imprinting

      Correct Answer: Haploinsufficiency

      Explanation:

      Haploinsufficiency occurs when a single allele is unable to produce the typical phenotype in an individual. This happens when one functional allele of a gene is lost due to mutation or deletion, and the remaining normal allele is not enough to carry out its original function. Incomplete penetrance is when an allele may not always be expressed in an individual’s phenotype, and may require an environmental trigger. Codominance is when two different alleles for a trait are expressed equally in the phenotype of heterozygous individuals, such as the AB blood type. Genomic imprinting is an inheritance pattern where a gene has a different effect depending on the gender of the parent from whom it is inherited.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      26.3
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  • Question 31 - What is the muscle located posterior to the initial segment of the axillary...

    Correct

    • What is the muscle located posterior to the initial segment of the axillary nerve?

      Your Answer: Subscapularis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Axillary Nerve

      The axillary nerve is located behind the axillary artery and in front of the subscapularis muscle. It travels downwards to the lower border of the subscapularis before winding backward with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein. This occurs through a quadrilateral space that is bounded by the subscapularis muscle above, the teres minor muscle below, the teres major muscle, and the long head of the triceps brachii muscle medially and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus.

      The axillary nerve then divides into two branches: the anterior branch supplies the deltoid muscle, while the posterior branch supplies the teres minor muscle, the posterior part of the deltoid muscle, and the upper lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm. the anatomy of the axillary nerve is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 32 - What is true about the Salmonella species? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about the Salmonella species?

      Your Answer: Salmonella typhi can be categorised into type A, B and C

      Correct Answer: A relative bradycardia is often seen in typhoid fever

      Explanation:

      Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in 40% of patients with paratyphoid. Possible complications of enteric fever include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in 1% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      29.9
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  • Question 33 - A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and a haemoglobin level of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and a haemoglobin level of 72 g/dL. The haematology lab performed a blood film and found numerous schistocytes and occasional reticulocytes, with no other erythrocyte abnormalities. Neutrophils and platelets were normal. The patient has a mid-line sternotomy scar, bruising to the arms, a metallic click to the first heart sound, and a resting tremor in the left hand. What is the most likely cause of his anaemia?

      Your Answer: Intravascular haemolysis

      Explanation:

      Schistocytes on a blood film are indicative of intravascular haemolysis, which is the most likely cause in this clinical scenario. The presence of a mid-line sternotomy scar, metallic click to the first heart sound, and warfarin prescription suggests a metal heart valve, which can cause sheering of red blood cells and subsequent intravascular haemolysis. Vasculitis, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), and B12 deficiency are less likely causes in this case.

      Pathological Red Cell Forms in Blood Films

      Blood films are used to examine the morphology of red blood cells and identify any abnormalities. Pathological red cell forms are associated with various conditions and can provide important diagnostic information. Some of the common pathological red cell forms include target cells, tear-drop poikilocytes, spherocytes, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, schistocytes, pencil poikilocytes, burr cells (echinocytes), and acanthocytes.

      Target cells are seen in conditions such as sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease. Tear-drop poikilocytes are associated with myelofibrosis, while spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic feature of lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia. Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in hyposplenism, while Heinz bodies are associated with G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia. Schistocytes or ‘helmet cells’ are seen in conditions such as intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Pencil poikilocytes are seen in iron deficiency anaemia, while burr cells (echinocytes) are associated with uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency. Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinemia.

      In addition to these red cell forms, hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in megaloblastic anaemia. Identifying these pathological red cell forms in blood films can aid in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 34 - A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen as required

      Correct Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome

      Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.

      In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 35 - A 32-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of growing clumsiness and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of growing clumsiness and lack of coordination, along with involuntary limb movements. He also reports increased irritability and forgetfulness, which his wife has noticed. Interestingly, his father had similar symptoms but at the age of 55 and eventually passed away due to a neurodegenerative disease.

      What could be the reason for the patient's symptoms appearing earlier than his father's?

      Your Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Penetrance refers to the degree to which an individual experiences or is certain to develop a disease. Lower numbers may indicate milder symptoms or a lower probability of developing the disease. In the case of Huntington’s disease, increased penetrance is associated with a higher number of trinucleotide repeats, so reduced penetrance is not applicable.

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 36 - A 58-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of reduced...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of reduced night vision. Upon further examination, it is discovered that the patient has a medical history of pancreatic insufficiency, chronic diarrhea, and malabsorption. Can you identify which vitamin deficiency is commonly linked to issues with night vision?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Explanation:

      The Role of Vitamin A in Night Vision

      Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a protein found in the retina that is responsible for converting light into energy. This process involves the conversion of vitamin A into 11-cis retinal or all-trans retinol, which is stored in the pigment layer of the retina. Isomerase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the production of 11-cis retinal, which is then used to produce rhodopsin.

      A deficiency in vitamin A can lead to a problem with night vision, as the body is unable to produce enough rhodopsin to respond to changes in light. This can result in difficulty seeing in low light conditions, such as when driving at night or in dimly lit environments. It is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain healthy vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.9
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  • Question 37 - A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath following a 4-day febrile illness. On initial assessment, his oxygen saturation is 70% on room air with a PaO2 of 4.2kpa on an arterial blood gas.

      What would be the anticipated physiological response in this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduced tidal volume with increased respiratory rate

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      When faced with hypoxia, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction, which redirects blood flow away from poorly oxygenated areas of the lungs and towards well-oxygenated regions. In cases where patients remain hypoxic despite optimal mechanical ventilation, inhaled nitric oxide can be used to induce pulmonary vasodilation and reverse this response.

      The statement that increased tidal volume with decreased respiratory rate is a response to hypoxia is incorrect. While an increase in tidal volume may occur, it is typically accompanied by an increase in respiratory rate.

      Pulmonary artery vasodilation is also incorrect. Hypoxia actually induces vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vasculature, as explained above.

      Similarly, reduced tidal volume with increased respiratory rate is not a direct response to hypoxia. While respiratory rate may increase, tidal volumes typically increase in response to hypoxia.

      In contrast to the pulmonary vessels, the systemic vasculature vasodilates in response to hypoxia.

      The Effects of Hypoxia on Pulmonary Arteries

      When the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood decreases, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels narrow, allowing blood to be redirected to areas of the lung that are better aerated. This response is a natural mechanism that helps to improve the efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs. By diverting blood to areas with more oxygen, the body can ensure that the tissues receive the oxygen they need to function properly. Overall, hypoxia triggers a physiological response that helps to maintain homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that is radiating to his left shoulder. He has a medical history of a previous transient ischaemic attack three years ago and is currently taking aspirin 75mg OD.

      Upon initial assessment, an ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in V1-V3. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent and is stable post-procedure. His treatment plan includes ramipril, ticagrelor, simvastatin, and atenolol.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly prescribed antiplatelet medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibit the binding of ADP to platelets

      Explanation:

      Ticagrelor and clopidogrel have a similar mechanism of action in inhibiting ADP binding to platelet receptors, which prevents platelet aggregation. In patients with STEMI who undergo percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and anti-hyperlipidemic drugs are commonly used for secondary management.

      Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is a fibrinogen receptor found on platelets that, when activated, leads to platelet aggregation. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, such as abciximab, bind to this receptor and prevent ligands like fibrinogen from accessing their binding site. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists, like eptifibatide, compete with ligands for the receptor’s binding site, blocking the formation of thrombi.

      Dipyridamole inhibits platelet cAMP-phosphodiesterase, leading to increased intra-platelet cAMP and decreased arachidonic acid release, resulting in reduced thromboxane A2 formation. It also inhibits adenosine reuptake by vascular endothelial cells and erythrocytes, leading to increased adenosine concentration, activation of adenyl cyclase, and increased cAMP production.

      ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which nerve is situated in the groove between the oesophagus and trachea, on...

    Correct

    • Which nerve is situated in the groove between the oesophagus and trachea, on the medial side of the thyroid gland?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery ligation can cause injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve at this location.

      Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland

      The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.

      The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.

      In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 75-year-old woman complains of faecal incontinence and displays weakened anal sphincter muscles...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman complains of faecal incontinence and displays weakened anal sphincter muscles upon examination. What are the primary nerve root values for the nerves that provide the external anal sphincter?

      Your Answer: S4,5

      Correct Answer: S2,3,4

      Explanation:

      To prevent fecal matter from reaching the floor, the external anal sphincter receives nerve supply from the pudendal nerve’s inferior rectal branch, which originates from S2, S3, and S4 root values.

      Anatomy of the Anal Sphincter

      The anal sphincter is composed of two muscles: the internal anal sphincter and the external anal sphincter. The internal anal sphincter is made up of smooth muscle and is continuous with the circular muscle of the rectum. It surrounds the upper two-thirds of the anal canal and is supplied by sympathetic nerves. On the other hand, the external anal sphincter is composed of striated muscle and surrounds the internal sphincter but extends more distally. It is supplied by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2 and S3) and the perineal branch of the S4 nerve roots.

      In summary, the anal sphincter is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in maintaining continence. The internal and external anal sphincters work together to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. Understanding the anatomy of the anal sphincter is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect bowel function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 48-year-old man comes to a specialized medical center half a year after...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man comes to a specialized medical center half a year after receiving a liver transplant. He has been feeling unwell for the past two weeks, experiencing chills, body aches, and discomfort. Additionally, he has noticed that his urine has become darker during this time. Upon examination, he appears to be visibly jaundiced.

      Which type of cell is the primary culprit for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Chronic organ rejection post-liver transplant is being experienced by this patient, which can be clinically diagnosed and is defined by the onset of symptoms six months after the transplant. The responsible cells for mediating acute and chronic organ rejection are Helper T cells, making it the correct answer. Cytotoxic T cells also play a role in mediating acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells, on the other hand, mediate hyperacute organ rejection, which is not applicable to this patient as they are experiencing chronic organ rejection. Hyperacute organ rejection occurs within minutes of transplant and is caused by the presence of anti-donor antibodies in the recipient.

      Macrophages do not have a role in organ rejection. Their functions include detecting, phagocytosing, and destroying bacteria and other pathogens.

      Neutrophils are part of the innate immune response to bacterial and fungal pathogens, and their function is antimicrobial. They do not play a role in organ rejection.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of throbbing headaches on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of throbbing headaches on the right side of his head for the past month. The pain lasts for approximately 10 hours and is preceded by visual disturbances. He also experiences nausea without vomiting and reports taking paracetamol for relief. You decide to prescribe sumatriptan for acute attacks.

      What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer: Dopamine receptor agonist

      Correct Answer: Serotonin receptor agonists

      Explanation:

      Triptans, including sumatriptan, are drugs that act as agonists for serotonin receptors 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. These drugs are commonly used to manage acute migraines and cluster headaches. Based on the patient’s symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing migraines, which are characterized by unilateral headaches, pre-aura symptoms, and a specific time frame. While the exact cause of migraines is not fully understood, it is believed to involve inflammation and dilation of cerebral arteries. Triptans work by binding to serotonin receptors, causing vasoconstriction and reducing blood flow, which can alleviate migraine symptoms. Other receptors are targeted by different drugs for various purposes.

      Understanding Triptans for Migraine Treatment

      Triptans are a type of medication used to treat migraines. They work by activating specific receptors in the brain called 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. Triptans are usually the first choice for acute migraine treatment and are often used in combination with other pain relievers like NSAIDs or paracetamol.

      It is important to take triptans as soon as possible after the onset of a migraine headache, rather than waiting for the aura to begin. Triptans are available in different forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.

      While triptans are generally safe and effective, they can cause some side effects. Some people may experience what is known as triptan sensations, which can include tingling, heat, tightness in the throat or chest, heaviness, or pressure.

      Triptans are not suitable for everyone. People with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease should not take triptans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 56-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a breast cancer diagnosis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a breast cancer diagnosis. The malfunction causing malignancy is related to the inability of apoptosis. Where are the receptors that trigger apoptosis located in cells?

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Membrane

      Explanation:

      The process of apoptosis is triggered when a membrane receptor binds to a ligand, which then leads to a series of intracellular reactions that ultimately culminate in apoptosis.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which one of the following is not a tumor-inducing gene? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not a tumor-inducing gene?

      Your Answer: Ki 67

      Explanation:

      Ki 67 is an immunohistochemical marker that indicates nuclear proliferation. While Ki67 positivity is indicative of malignancy, it is not an oncogene in and of itself.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - From which of the following structures does the long head of the triceps...

    Correct

    • From which of the following structures does the long head of the triceps muscle arise?

      Your Answer: Infraglenoid tubercle

      Explanation:

      The infraglenoid tubercle is the origin of the long head, while the lateral and medial heads are connected to the back of the humerus, specifically between the teres minor insertion and the olecranon fossa.

      Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle

      The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.

      All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.

      The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old African woman who recently moved to the US visits the pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old African woman who recently moved to the US visits the pulmonary clinic with a 4-month history of productive cough with intermittent haemoptysis accompanied by weight loss, fevers and night sweats.

      Upon conducting a chest x-ray, opacification and calcification are observed in the apical area of the right lung.

      Which culture medium is necessary to cultivate the probable pathogen?

      Your Answer: Charcoal-yeast agar

      Correct Answer: Lowenstein-Jensen agar

      Explanation:

      Culture Requirements for Common Organisms

      Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).

      To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - At which of the subsequent spinal levels does the esophagus pass through the...

    Incorrect

    • At which of the subsequent spinal levels does the esophagus pass through the diaphragm and enter the abdominal cavity?

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The point at which the oesophagus enters the abdomen is located at T10.

      Anatomy of the Oesophagus

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.

      The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.

      The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A woman in her mid-twenties comes to the clinic with symptoms of unilateral...

    Correct

    • A woman in her mid-twenties comes to the clinic with symptoms of unilateral facial weakness, slurring, and weakness in one arm that lasted for a few minutes. After diagnosis, she is found to have experienced a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). She has a medical history of migraine and is currently using a form of contraception. Which type of contraception is most likely to have caused her TIA?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Women with migraine who use combined contraception have a higher risk of stroke. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a sign that a stroke may occur. The risk of stroke for women with migraine using combined contraception is 8 per 100,000 at age 20 and increases to 40 per 100,000 at age 40.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: src

      Explanation:

      Additional genes implicated include MCC, DCC, c-yes, and bcl-2.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A new medication for treating high blood pressure is currently in phase III...

    Incorrect

    • A new medication for treating high blood pressure is currently in phase III of development. The study has established a margin, represented by -delta to +delta, for the mean reduction in blood pressure. If the confidence interval of the difference between the new medication and the current standard treatment, ramipril, falls within this margin, the trial will be considered successful. What type of study design is this?

      Your Answer: Placebo-controlled trial

      Correct Answer: Equivalence trial

      Explanation:

      When a new drug is introduced, there are various study design options available. One of these options is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be considered unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not offer a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, if a drug is to be compared to an existing treatment, a statistician must determine whether the trial is intended to show superiority, equivalence, or non-inferiority.

      Superiority trials may seem like the natural aim of a trial, but they require a large sample size to demonstrate a significant benefit over an existing treatment. On the other hand, equivalence trials define an equivalence margin (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within the equivalence margin, the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). These trials require smaller sample sizes. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, large studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent or even non-inferior, they may compete on price or convenience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      52
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (5/7) 71%
General Principles (3/10) 30%
Haematology And Oncology (3/5) 60%
Neurological System (2/6) 33%
Basic Sciences (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (3/5) 60%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (3/5) 60%
Respiratory System (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Reproductive System (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular System (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed