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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 95-year-old man without past medical history presents with increasing forgetfulness. His son is concerned that over the last six weeks his father has been forgetting his grandchildren's names and stories from his upbringing. The patient reports a loss of appetite, sometimes forgetting if he has eaten, is not getting good quality sleep and is frustrated with his son for taking him to the doctors. He sometimes sees and hears his recently deceased wife.
Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Pseudodementia, which is characterized by global memory loss rather than short-term memory loss, can be mistaken for dementia but is actually a symptom of severe depression.
The correct diagnosis in this case is depression, as the patient’s symptoms are consistent with pseudodementia, which is a common mimic for dementia in elderly patients. While some cognitive impairment is present, the key feature is a global memory loss affecting both short and long-term memory over a short period of four weeks, with reluctance to engage in clinical assessment. The recent loss of the patient’s husband also suggests a severe reactive depressive episode.
Alzheimer’s dementia is a possible differential diagnosis due to the patient’s age, but it tends to present more gradually with selective impairment of short-term memory and relative sparing of longer-term memories.
Frontotemporal lobe dementia is less likely in this case as it tends to present with more dramatic behavioral changes or emotional disinhibition.
Lewy body dementia shares some symptoms with this case, such as impaired cognition and visual hallucinations. However, the specific hallucination of the patient’s husband is more likely related to grief and depression, which is supported by the relatively short duration of symptoms. Question stems that describe Lewy body dementia may also provide clues towards a movement disorder.
Differentiating between Depression and Dementia
Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.
One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.
Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.
The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.
In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman, accompanied by her husband, visits her GP with unusual behaviour. Her husband reports that the changes have occurred mostly in the past week and he has never seen this behaviour before. He describes finding her walking around the house and talking to people who are not there. During the consultation, the patient appears distracted and occasionally smiles and waves at the wall behind the GP. There is no personal or family history of psychiatric illness. The patient does not seem distressed and politely asks if she can leave as she believes the appointment is a waste of time.
The patient takes loratadine 10 mg once daily for hay-fever, salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma, and has recently started a combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She is also taking a course of prednisolone tablets following a recent exacerbation of her asthma. Which medication is most likely to be causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:When a person experiences sudden onset psychosis after taking corticosteroids, it is important to consider the possibility of steroid-induced psychosis. Although both the beclomethasone inhaler and prednisolone are corticosteroids, the higher dose of prednisolone makes it the more likely culprit for the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. He began taking citalopram four months ago to treat his depression, and he now feels that his symptoms have significantly improved. He believes that he has returned to his usual self and no longer requires the antidepressant medication. What advice should the GP provide to minimize the risk of relapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue citalopram for 6 more months
Explanation:Antidepressant medication should be continued for a minimum of 6 months after symptoms have remitted to reduce the risk of relapse. Therefore, the correct course of action is to continue treatment for 6 more months from the point of remission. Continuing for only 2 or 3 more months would not meet the recommended duration of treatment. Gradually reducing doses over 4 weeks is a suitable approach for weaning off SSRIs, but it should only be done after the 6-month period of treatment. Stopping citalopram abruptly is not safe and could lead to discontinuation syndrome or a relapse of depression.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with worsening anxiety. He describes one of his symptoms as feeling severely nauseous and even vomiting every time he smells a particular perfume. What theory of learning explains this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Classical conditioning
Explanation:Types of Learning and Conditioning in Psychology
Classical conditioning, latent inhibition, habituation, operant conditioning, and tolerance are all types of learning and conditioning in psychology.
Classical conditioning involves learning through association, where an unfamiliar stimulus becomes associated with a conditioned response through repetitive exposure.
Latent inhibition refers to the slower acquisition of meaning or response to a familiar stimulus compared to a new stimulus.
Habituation is the decrease in responsiveness to a stimulus with repeated exposure.
Operant conditioning involves learning through positive or negative reinforcement, where a voluntary response is followed by a reinforcing stimulus.
Tolerance is the reduced response to a drug over time, requiring a higher concentration to achieve the desired effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine phone consultation. Her father is worried about her well-being, but she insists that she is fine and has no issues. Her father believes that she is socially withdrawn as she does not have any friends and spends most of her time indoors using her phone. Upon further inquiry, you discover that this woman has a strong belief that her phone is being monitored by the government, which is contributing to her isolation. She does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms, and her speech, tone, and mood are all normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the psychiatrist by his father. He expresses concern for his son's mental health, as he has noticed him talking to himself frequently over the past 6 months. The patient is hesitant to speak with the psychiatrist and insists that his father stay in the room with him. During the psychiatric evaluation, it is revealed that the patient has been hearing a voice in his head for the past year, but denies any thoughts of self-harm or harm to others. The psychiatrist recommends a referral for further treatment, which causes the father to become emotional and question if he did something wrong as a parent. Which factor from the patient's history is a poor prognostic indicator for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-morbid social withdrawal
Explanation:Schizophrenia is more likely to be diagnosed if the patient presents with Schneider’s first-rank symptoms, such as auditory hallucinations, which are characteristic of the condition. However, the presence of auditory hallucinations alone does not indicate a poor prognosis. A poor prognosis is associated with pre-morbid social withdrawal, low IQ, family history of schizophrenia, gradual onset of symptoms, and lack of an obvious precipitant. There is no known link between a family history of an eating disorder and a poor prognosis in schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after attempting to end her life by jumping from a height. On examination, she is conscious and has significant bruising over the occiput region. She reports that her parents are recently divorced and it has caused significant strain on her current relationship and as a result, is failing to do well at work. She has no significant medical history, apart from an incident when she was 17 where she was admitted to the hospital after intentionally taking too many paracetamol.
Which of the following from the patient’s history is most associated with an increased risk of repeated attempts of self-harm/suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous attempted suicide
Explanation:Risk Factors for Repeated Self-Harm and Suicide Attempts
Previous suicide attempts or episodes of self-harm are the biggest predictor of future attempts, with 15% of people attempting again within a year and 1% succeeding in committing suicide. Strained relationships with partners or dissatisfaction with work alone have not been linked to repeated attempts. However, significant life events such as parental divorce, bereavement, abuse, or family breakdown may increase the risk. Age alone, particularly for adults in their twenties, has not been associated with repeated self-harm or suicide attempts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A young adult is concerned about her ability to take her upcoming final exams at university in three months. She experiences feelings of fluster, faintness, and dizziness specifically during written exams, but has no symptoms at any other time, including during physical activity. Her resting ECG is normal and clinical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange counselling, with relaxation training
Explanation:a Student’s Symptoms of Stress and Anxiety
The symptoms described by the student are typical of stress and anxiety, which are common experiences for many people. It is important to reassure the student that these symptoms do not necessarily indicate an underlying medical condition. However, if the student is concerned, a 24-hour ECG monitoring can be done to provide further reassurance.
It is important to note that prescribing diazepam may not be the best course of action as it can impair the student’s exam performance. Similarly, fluoxetine may not be the best option as it can increase feelings of anxiety. It is important to consider alternative treatments that can help the student manage their stress and anxiety in a way that does not negatively impact their academic performance. By the student’s symptoms and providing appropriate support, we can help them navigate this challenging time and achieve their academic goals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his partner of many years passed away recently. He shares that when he woke up this morning, he believed he was lying next to her and heard her voice calling his name. Despite knowing that this is impossible, it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he may be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the community mental health team with a history of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). He reports obsessive thoughts about his family members being in danger and admits to calling his wife and daughters 3-4 times an hour to ensure their safety. Despite undergoing cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention (ERP), he still experiences distressing symptoms. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, unstable angina, and pre-diabetes. What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this man's OCD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add sertraline
Explanation:Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of depressed mood. He reports feeling fatigued and having suicidal thoughts on a daily basis. His appearance is disheveled and he has made multiple suicide attempts in the past few months. The psychiatrist decides to initiate electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his depression, scheduled to begin in a week. The patient is currently taking 100 mg of sertraline daily. What is the appropriate course of action regarding his medication prior to ECT treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce the sertraline daily dose
Explanation:Before commencing ECT treatment, it is important to reduce the dosage of antidepressant medication, but not to stop it completely. The recommended approach is to gradually decrease the dosage to the minimum level. In some cases, an increased dosage of antidepressants may be added towards the end of the ECT course. It is not advisable to increase the dosage or discontinue the medication altogether. Switching to an alternative psychiatric drug, such as another SSRI or lithium, is also not recommended as it can be risky before ECT treatment.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man without known psychiatric history is admitted to the psychiatry ward, after presenting to the emergency department with delusions and homicidal ideations.
Following a negative drugs screen, antipsychotic treatment is initiated with haloperidol.
The patient is reviewed 3-hours after the initiation of treatment and is noted to have a sustained upward deviation of both eyes. When asked, he reports that his eyes are extremely painful.
What is the most appropriate initial management option based on the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:Acute dystonic reactions, such as oculogyric crisis, can occur within the first 4 days of starting or increasing the dose of antipsychotic medication. These reactions can be treated with anticholinergic procyclidine, which can take effect within 5 minutes. To prevent future attacks, the dose of antipsychotic medication may need to be reduced.
Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, are not effective in treating acute dystonic reactions. However, they can be used to treat serotonin syndrome, which can occur after taking serotonin agonists like SSRIs and MAOIs. Serotonin syndrome presents with rigidity, hyperreflexia, and autonomic dysfunction.
Levodopa, a dopamine precursor used to treat Parkinson’s disease, is not effective in managing extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) caused by antipsychotic medication. EPSEs are caused by dopamine blockage at the mesolimbic pathway, not a dopamine deficiency.
IV fluids are not helpful in treating oculogyric crisis. However, they can be useful in treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another side effect that can occur with antipsychotic treatment. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome presents with lead-pipe muscle rigidity, fever, and autonomic dysfunction.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is receiving electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his treatment-resistant depression. What is the most probable side effect he may encounter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retrograde amnesia
Explanation:ECT has the potential to cause memory impairment, which is its most significant side effect. The NICE guidelines recommend that memory should be evaluated before and after each treatment course. Retrograde amnesia, which is the inability to recall events before the treatment, is more common than anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories after the treatment.
Immediate side effects of ECT include drowsiness, confusion, headache, nausea, aching muscles, and loss of appetite. On the other hand, long-term side effects may include apathy, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, loss of emotional responses, and difficulty learning new information.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital by his wife who reports that he has been experiencing distressing visual hallucinations of animals in their home. You suspect that he may be suffering from Charles-Bonnet syndrome. What are some potential risk factors that could make him more susceptible to this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral visual impairment
Explanation:Peripheral visual impairment is a risk factor for Charles-Bonnet syndrome, which is a condition characterized by visual hallucinations in individuals with eye disease. The most frequent hallucinations include faces, children, and wild animals. This syndrome is more common in older individuals, without significant difference in occurrence between males and females, and no known increased risk associated with family history.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced by individuals with visual impairment, although this is not a mandatory requirement for diagnosis. People with CBS maintain their insight and do not exhibit any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbance. The risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The syndrome is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with CBS are age-related macular degeneration, glaucoma, and cataract.
Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are experienced by 10-30% of individuals with severe visual impairment. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired people is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. However, around a third of people with CBS find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing. A large study published in the British Journal of Ophthalmology found that 88% of people had CBS for two years or more, and only 25% experienced resolution at nine years. Therefore, CBS is not generally a transient experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male with a history of daily alcohol consumption for the last five years is admitted to the hospital emergency room. He is experiencing acute visual hallucinations, seeing spiders all around him, and is unable to recognize his family members. He is also exhibiting aggressive behavior and tremors. The patient had stopped drinking alcohol for two days prior to admission. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment, and insight. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delirium tremens
Explanation:Delirium Tremens
Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe and potentially life-threatening condition that can occur when someone abruptly stops drinking alcohol. Symptoms can begin within a few hours of cessation, but they may not peak until 48-72 hours later. The symptoms of DT can include tremors, irritability, insomnia, nausea and vomiting, hallucinations (auditory, visual, or olfactory), confusion, delusions, severe agitation, and seizures. Physical findings may be non-specific and include tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnea, diaphoresis, tremor, mydriasis, ataxia, altered mental status, hallucinations, and cardiovascular collapse.
It is important to note that not everyone who stops drinking alcohol will experience DT. However, those who have a history of heavy alcohol use or have experienced withdrawal symptoms in the past are at a higher risk. DT can be a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife passed away suddenly 5 months ago. He appears sad and spends most of the appointment looking down, but answers your questions. He expresses concern that he may be losing his mind because he has started seeing his wife sitting in her old chair and sometimes talks to her when he is alone. He confirms that he can hear her voice responding to him. He says he mostly talks to her while cooking in the kitchen or when he is alone at night. Despite these experiences, he knows that what he sees and hears is not real. He reports occasional memory loss and some abdominal pain due to his irritable bowel syndrome, but is otherwise healthy. He has no history of psychiatric conditions in himself or his family. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal grief reaction
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations may be a normal part of the grieving process, and differ from true hallucinations in that the individual is aware that what they are experiencing is not real. While pseudohallucinations can be distressing, they are not considered pathological unless accompanied by urinary symptoms, which would require further investigation. The patient in question displays low mood and avoids eye contact, but responds well to questioning and is able to prepare food independently. While depression with psychotic features can involve true hallucinations, there are no other symptoms to suggest this diagnosis. Lewy-body dementia, which can cause visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian features, and cognitive impairment, is not a likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms. Abnormal grief reactions are typically defined as persisting for at least six months after the loss.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman, widowed for 5 years, presents with insomnia, anhedonia, frequent tearfulness when discussing her late husband, and weight loss. She reports experiencing various nonspecific physical symptoms and expresses concerns about the return of breast cancer that was previously treated. She denies any substance abuse and denies having suicidal thoughts but admits that she would feel relieved if she were to pass away. What is the most suitable form of psychotherapy/treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interpersonal therapy
Explanation:Choosing the Right Therapy for a Patient with Depression and Grief
When a patient’s grief persists beyond the usual two years of acute distress and leads to depression, it’s important to choose the right therapy. In this case, interpersonal therapy for depression is the most likely form of treatment, as it offers a protocol specifically for resolving depression after loss and is compatible with antidepressant medication. However, if the patient were suicidal, more aggressive intervention would be necessary.
A breast cancer support group is not an appropriate resource for this patient, as her concern about cancer is a form of depressive somatic preoccupation and should not be the main focus of her treatment. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy may be helpful if there are deep-rooted problems that do not respond well to interpersonal therapy, but it can be time-consuming and costly.
While cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is helpful in depression, it may not be the best option when there is a key trigger such as loss that needs specific intervention. Immediate hospitalisation is not necessary in this case, as the patient is not contemplating suicide.
Overall, choosing the right therapy for a patient with depression and grief requires careful consideration of the patient’s specific needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of a community acquired pneumonia. Unfortunately, he was not accompanied by a family member and the history provided by the patient seems confused. Upon arrival of the daughter, she confirms that her father has been confusing real events with those from his imagination. Through this process he appears to be able to maintain a superficial conversation despite significant cognitive impairment.
Which of the following describes this phenomenon?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confabulation
Explanation:Differentiating Confabulation, Delusions, and Other Psychiatric Phenomena
Confabulation, delusions, and other psychiatric phenomena can be confusing and difficult to differentiate. Confabulation is a phenomenon where patients fabricate imaginary experiences due to memory loss, often seen in patients with cognitive impairment. Delusions, on the other hand, are beliefs held with strong conviction despite evidence to the contrary, commonly seen in conditions such as schizophrenia. Flight of ideas, pressure of speech, and hallucinations are other psychiatric phenomena that can be seen in different conditions. Understanding the differences between these phenomena is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Venlafaxine is an antidepressant that is commonly prescribed for the treatment of major depression, anxiety, and panic disorder. What is the most accurate description of the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline, which leads to increased levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic space. This is why it is effective in treating depression, as it targets the alpha 2 receptors, noradrenaline, and serotonin.
Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors
Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.
Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.
Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is in a car accident. Another car collided with a truck and she swerved to avoid them, hitting a tree. Two weeks later, she still experiences flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty sleeping. Her brother reports that she startles easily and seems disoriented at times. The woman denies any chest pain or dizziness.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute stress reaction
Explanation:Acute stress disorder refers to a reaction to a traumatic event that occurs within four weeks, as opposed to PTSD which is diagnosed after this time frame. Symptoms may include negative mood, dissociation, and avoidance.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male construction worker presents to the clinic with concerns about his recent behavior at work. Over the past week, he has been very talkative and easily distracted while on the job. This is unusual for him as he typically prefers to stay focused and get his work done efficiently. He also reports feeling more energetic than usual and needing less sleep. He denies any impulsive behavior, drug use, or sexual promiscuity. There is no significant medical history, but his father has a history of bipolar disorder.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral to the community mental health team
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms of hypomania in primary care, it is important to refer them to the community mental health team for confirmation of the diagnosis before prescribing any medication. Quetiapine is often used as a first-line treatment for acute bipolar disorder, but it should not be prescribed until the diagnosis is confirmed. SSRIs are not recommended for depressive episodes in bipolar disorder, and olanzapine and fluoxetine should only be used in rare circumstances for acute depression. Lithium is a common medication for bipolar disorder, but it should not be prescribed until the diagnosis is confirmed. Routine referral to the community mental health team is advised for patients presenting with hypomania in primary care, and urgent referral may be necessary if the patient is at risk of self-harm or harm to others. Referral may also be necessary if the patient demonstrates poor judgment in areas such as employment, personal relationships, finances, driving, sexual activity, or drug use.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.
Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is brought to the edge of a roof by a trained practitioner and then left there for as long as possible until she overcomes her phobia of heights.
What sort of behavioural therapy is this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flooding
Explanation:Behavioural Therapies: Techniques for Overcoming Fears and Habits
Behavioural therapies are a set of techniques used to treat various mental health conditions. These therapies aim to modify an individual’s behaviour by exposing them to their fears or habits and gradually desensitising them to the stimuli. Here are some common behavioural therapies:
1. Flooding: This therapy involves exposing an individual directly to their worst fear to trigger desensitisation.
2. Graded Exposure: Also known as systematic desensitisation, this therapy involves exposing the patient to the feared stimulus for progressively longer amounts of time or from a ‘virtual’ to a real exposure in an attempt to overcome the fear.
3. Relaxation Training: This therapy involves activities that allow the individual to calm or relax in the exposed situation.
4. Aversion Therapy: This therapy is used in the management of habits such as alcoholism and smoking. It involves exposing the individual to the behaviour while simultaneously evoking a noxious and/or painful stimulus to develop an aversion to the behaviour.
5. Exposure Response Therapy: This therapy is often used as an effective treatment for OCD. It involves gradually increasing exposure to uncomfortable stimuli to build a tolerance and reduce anxiety that feeds obsessions and compulsions.
Overall, behavioural therapies can be effective in treating various mental health conditions and helping individuals overcome their fears and habits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a car accident two years ago. Similar to Steven, Sarah has been experiencing difficulty with sleep since the accident. She frequently wakes up in the middle of the night due to nightmares and struggles to fall back asleep. This has been affecting her daily life as she no longer has the energy to keep up with her young children.
Sarah has undergone several sessions of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but unfortunately, she has not seen any significant improvement in her symptoms.
What would be the appropriate medication to manage Sarah's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If CBT or EMDR therapy prove ineffective in treating PTSD, the recommended first-line drug treatments are venlafaxine or a SSRI. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline may also be used under the supervision of a mental health specialist, but they are not currently part of NICE guidance. Diazepam and zopiclone are only recommended for short-term management of severe symptoms or acute exacerbations of insomnia, and do not address the underlying cause of PTSD. Risperidone may be considered for patients with disabling symptoms or behaviors that have not responded to other treatments.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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According to the Mental Health Act (1983), which section should be used to detain a teenage patient, already in hospital, who is suffering from acute psychosis and is attempting to leave the hospital against medical advice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Section 5.2
Explanation:Mental Health Act Sections and Their Purposes
The Mental Health Act includes several sections that outline the circumstances under which a person can be detained for mental health treatment. These sections serve different purposes and have varying time limits for detention.
Section 5.2 allows for the detention of a patient who is already in the hospital for up to 72 hours. Section 5.4 allows a senior nurse to detain a patient for up to 6 hours without a doctor present.
Section 3 applies to patients with a known mental disorder who require detention for treatment. This section allows for admission for up to 6 months.
Section 2 applies to patients with an uncertain diagnosis who require detention for assessment. This section allows for detention for no longer than 28 days.
Section 135 is a police warrant that allows for the removal of a patient from private property to a place of safety.
Section 136 allows for the removal of a person with a mental illness from the community to a place of safety for further assessment. This can be a special suite in Accident & Emergency, a local psychiatry hospital, or a police station if specific criteria are met.
Understanding these sections of the Mental Health Act is important for ensuring that individuals receive appropriate care and treatment for their mental health needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old man who is noted to prefer solitude, has never been in a romantic relationship, and has no desire for one. He also displays minimal interest in engaging in sexual activities with others. Despite performing well at work, he places little importance on feedback from his colleagues. Based on this information, which personality disorder is most likely present in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizoid
Explanation:Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a preference for solitude, a lack of interest in close relationships, and a low libido. It is important to note that while asexuality is recognized as part of the LGBTQ+ spectrum, it is not included in the diagnostic criteria for this disorder. The DSM-5 and ICD-10 both list a lack of desire for close relationships, a preference for solitary activities, and a limited capacity for expressing emotions as key features of schizoid personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder may also appear indifferent to praise or criticism, lack close friends or confidants, and exhibit emotional detachment or flattened affectivity. In contrast, borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability in relationships, including sudden mood swings, rages, self-harming behaviors, and intense jealousy. Dependent personality disorder involves a reliance on others for reassurance and decision-making.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for an annual mental health review. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia eight years ago. He has been on medication since diagnosis and takes this daily without any side-effects. He has regular contact with the community mental health team. He is working part-time as a shop assistant, which he enjoys. He has a good appetite, sleeps well and exercises regularly.
What is true regarding the treatment of schizophrenia in a 32-year-old man who has been diagnosed with the condition for eight years and is currently on medication without any side-effects, has regular contact with the community mental health team, works part-time, and has good appetite, sleep, and exercise habits?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: People with a first episode of psychosis should be offered oral antipsychotic treatment, along with psychological interventions
Explanation:Mythbusting: Common Misconceptions About Schizophrenia Treatment
1. Oral antipsychotic treatment and psychological interventions should be offered to those with a first episode of psychosis.
2. Patients with schizophrenia should remain under the care of a psychiatrist lifelong, but can be eligible for shared care with a GP after 12 months of stability.
3. An ECG is only necessary before starting antipsychotic medication in certain circumstances.
4. Before starting any oral antipsychotic medication, various health factors need to be checked in all patients.
5. The choice of antipsychotic medication should be made on an individual basis, taking into account potential side-effects.
6. Early intervention in psychosis services should be accessed urgently for anyone presenting with a first episode of psychosis. Antipsychotic medication should not be initiated in primary care without the advice of a psychiatrist. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy with Tourette's syndrome is brought to the GP by his father as he is concerned about some unusual behaviors he has observed. During the appointment, you discover that he has been extremely anxious about his upcoming driving test. He feels compelled to check the locks on all the doors in the house repeatedly before leaving, as otherwise, he becomes more anxious about the test.
What signs or symptoms would suggest a diagnosis of psychosis rather than obsessive-compulsive disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She truly believes that if she does not perform these acts that she will definitely fail her exams
Explanation:The level of insight into their actions can differentiate obsessive-compulsive disorder from psychosis. OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions, where patients have intrusive thoughts and perform acts to reduce them. Patients with OCD typically have a good understanding of their condition and know that not performing the acts will not make their obsessive thoughts come true. However, they still feel the urge to perform them. If a patient lacks insight into their condition and believes that not performing the acts will lead to a negative outcome, it may indicate a delusional element and suggest a diagnosis other than OCD, such as psychosis. Gender is not linked to OCD, and Tourette’s is associated with OCD, not psychosis. Patients with untreated OCD may need to perform more acts over time, but this does not indicate psychosis. While there is a genetic link to OCD, the absence of a family history does not suggest another underlying diagnosis.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of her tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia 10 years ago and has been on flupenthixol and then haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, her temperature is 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Her respiratory rate is 14 cycles/min. There is pronounced choreoathetoid movement of the hand and fingers.
What is the next line of management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the haloperidol and start olanzapine
Explanation:Treatment options for extrapyramidal side-effects of anti-psychotic medication
Extrapyramidal side-effects are common with anti-psychotic medication, particularly with typical anti-psychotics such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine. Tardive dyskinesia is one such side-effect, which can be treated by switching to an atypical anti-psychotic medication like olanzapine. Acute dystonia, on the other hand, can be managed with anticholinergics. Decreasing the dose of haloperidol can help alleviate akathisia, or motor restlessness. Supportive therapy is not effective in treating extrapyramidal side-effects. It is important to monitor patients for these side-effects and adjust medication accordingly to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies having any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by a history of self-harm and intense relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include mood swings and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.
Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While the patient in question does exhibit some paranoia, their other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for solitude. The patient in question has close relationships with others.
Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has just been diagnosed with schizophrenia. His family is concerned about the long-term outlook of the illness. What factor is linked to the poorest prognosis for poorly managed schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gradual onset
Explanation:Schizophrenia with a gradual onset is indicative of a poor prognosis, whereas the other options suggest a better outcome. Although some studies have linked high intelligence with a higher risk of suicide, generally, individuals with higher intelligence have a more favorable prognosis for schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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