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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a sense of sadness and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with a sense of sadness and emptiness. He lost his job 8 months ago and has been struggling to focus on his daily activities ever since. 'I'm just not the same person I used to be,' he tells the doctor. He has no interest in finding a new job and spends most of his time at home. He denies any thoughts of suicide. His sleep is disturbed and he wakes up feeling tired. He also reports a decreased interest in sex with his partner. His medical history is significant only for a bilateral hand tremor that worsens with movement. He is a non-smoker and only drinks socially. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Major depressive disorder

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Major Depressive Disorder from Other Conditions

      Major depressive disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by symptoms such as anhedonia, sadness, lack of concentration, sleep impairment, social withdrawal, and hopelessness. It is often triggered by a significant stressor, such as job loss. While severe depression can also be a component of adjustment disorder, the duration of symptoms beyond 6 months following a stressor suggests a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Anhedonia, a significant lack of interest in once pleasurable activities, is a symptom rather than a diagnosis by itself and is often present in major depressive disorder. Drug abuse can be a cause or effect of depression, but in this case, the patient’s recent stressor makes drug-related depression less likely. The patient’s hand tremor, worsened by movement, is more likely related to essential tremor than Parkinson’s disease, which typically presents with a resting hand tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Accurately distinguishing major depressive disorder from other conditions is crucial for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman is seeking help at the Psychiatry Clinic upon referral from...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seeking help at the Psychiatry Clinic upon referral from her General Practitioner. The patient is experiencing persistent low mood for the past two months and finds it difficult to get out of bed to go to work at times. She used to enjoy playing tennis, but now she does not find pleasure in any sports. Additionally, she has lost interest in food and lacks the motivation to go out and meet her friends. The patient also reports waking up early in the morning and having difficulty falling back asleep. She lives alone and has been divorced for two years. She smokes and drinks moderate amounts of alcohol.
      What is the most affected aspect of pleasure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters and Depression: Understanding the Role of Dopamine

      Depression is a complex mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact causes of depression are not fully understood, research has shown that neurotransmitters play a crucial role in its pathophysiology. One of the main neurotransmitters involved in depression is dopamine.

      Dopamine is primarily involved in the reward system of the brain, which is responsible for feelings of pleasure and motivation. Anhedonia, the lack of pleasure in doing pleasurable activities, is a major symptom of depression. Studies have shown that the reward system, which works primarily via the action of dopamine, is affected in depression.

      While most antidepressants work by increasing the concentration of serotonin or norepinephrine in the neuronal synaptic cleft, anhedonia has been a symptom that is hard to treat. This is because dopamine is the main neurotransmitter involved in the reward system, and increasing its concentration is crucial in relieving anhedonia.

      Other neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, serotonin, noradrenaline, and GABA, also play a role in depression, but they are not primarily involved in the reward system and anhedonia symptoms. Understanding the role of dopamine in depression can help in the development of more effective treatments for this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A teenager has been referred because of bizarre behaviour at school. His teachers...

    Correct

    • A teenager has been referred because of bizarre behaviour at school. His teachers have reported that he alternates between very passive and very aggressive behaviours. At times, he cries and withdraws from sight when he thinks he is being slighted in some manner. At other times, he yells wildly and fights over the smallest of infractions. Upon further examination, you discover that the patient has been the victim of significant abuse at home.
      Which one of the following defence mechanisms is he likely employing?

      Your Answer: Dissociation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defense Mechanisms: Dissociation, Sublimation, Identification, Reaction Formation, and Splitting

      Ego defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations. These mechanisms can be either mature or immature, depending on their effectiveness and adaptability. Here are some examples of common ego defense mechanisms and how they manifest in individuals:

      Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person temporarily modifies their personal identity to avoid distress. For instance, a victim of abuse may develop multiple personalities to cope with the trauma.

      Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where a person takes an unacceptable personality trait and channels it into a respectable work that aligns with their values. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may become a successful athlete.

      Identification: This is when a person models the behavior of a more powerful figure. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.

      Reaction Formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person represses unacceptable emotions and replaces them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.

      Splitting: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person is unable to reconcile both good and bad traits in a given person and sees people as either all good or all bad.

      Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize and address maladaptive coping strategies and work towards healthier ways of dealing with stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The wife reports that her partner has been acting strangely, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and night, sometimes up to twenty times. When questioned, he reveals that he had a frightening experience with his son last month and cannot stop reliving it in his mind. He avoids going to places where he might lose sight of his son and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic disorder

      Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of developing schizophrenia or a similar psychotic disorder?

      Your Answer: Amphetamine addiction

      Correct Answer: Being brought up in an institution

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Related Factors

      Nurture in an institution does not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia. However, individuals from social classes IV and V are more prone to the condition. In the United Kingdom, the lifetime risk of schizophrenia is 1%, but this risk increases to 8-10% if there is an affected sibling. It is important to note that temporal lobe epilepsy can cause hallucinations that mimic schizophrenia. Additionally, amphetamines can induce a state that resembles hyperactive paranoid schizophrenia with hallucinations.

      Overall, while environmental factors may play a role in the development of schizophrenia, genetics and neurological conditions are also significant factors to consider. It is important to seek professional help if experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia or related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - Which statement about the causation and dynamics of schizophrenia is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the causation and dynamics of schizophrenia is accurate?

      Your Answer: In monozygotic twins the risk of the second twin developing schizophrenia if the first is affected is of the order of 10%

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia is commoner in individuals not in stable relationships

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Risk Factors

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. The risk of developing schizophrenia is influenced by various factors, including heavy cannabis use, marital status, socioeconomic status, and genetics.

      According to the Swedish conscript study, heavy cannabis users have a sevenfold increase in the risk of developing schizophrenia. However, it is unclear whether cannabis use directly causes schizophrenia or if there are other underlying factors at play.

      Marital status also appears to be a factor in schizophrenia risk, with unmarried and divorced individuals being twice as likely to develop the disorder compared to married or widowed individuals. This may be due to the alienating effects of schizophrenia rather than any causal relationship with being single.

      Additionally, people with schizophrenia are more likely to be in the lowest socioeconomic groups. While poverty may not directly cause schizophrenia, it may increase the risk of exposure to biological factors or social stressors that could trigger the illness in susceptible individuals.

      Finally, genetics also play a significant role in schizophrenia risk, with monozygotic twins having a 50% concordance rate and 10% of offspring being affected. This suggests a strong inheritance component to the disorder.

      Overall, while the exact causes of schizophrenia are not fully understood, it is clear that multiple factors contribute to its development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old man with bipolar disorder presents at the psychiatric outpatients clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man with bipolar disorder presents at the psychiatric outpatients clinic. He has been stable on lamotrigine for the past six months but is now reporting symptoms of elevated mood. How can you differentiate between symptoms of mania and hypomania in this case?

      Your Answer: Delusional beliefs of being the leader of their own kingdom

      Explanation:

      Mania is a state of elevated mood that persists and is accompanied by psychotic symptoms.

      Bipolar disorder is characterized by highs that can be classified into two categories: mania and hypomania. Mania is the more severe form, and it is diagnosed based on two criteria: a prolonged time course (hypomania lasts less than 7-10 days) and the presence of psychotic symptoms. These symptoms can include mood congruent hallucinations or delusional beliefs related to the patient’s elevated mood and feelings of superiority. Delusions of grandeur, such as the belief of owning a kingdom, are common.

      Symptoms of elevated mood include increased energy, reduced sleep, rapid or pressured speech, pressured thought, and a non-reactive affect or mood. These symptoms are seen in both hypomania and mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old male comes to your clinic at the suggestion of his partner....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male comes to your clinic at the suggestion of his partner. He has been experiencing hyperarousal to loud noises and difficulty concentrating at work since his stay in the ICU 4 weeks ago. His partner believes he may have acute stress disorder, but you diagnose him with PTSD and discuss treatment options. He asks you to explain the difference between the two to his partner. You explain that while the presentation is similar, the main difference is temporal.

      At what point after the event can you confirm a diagnosis of PTSD?

      Your Answer: 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is characterized by an acute stress reaction that occurs within four weeks of a traumatic event, while PTSD is diagnosed after four weeks have passed. Symptoms presented within two weeks would suggest acute stress disorder. Both acute stress disorder and PTSD share similar features, including re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal, and emotional numbing. Re-experiencing symptoms may include flashbacks, nightmares, and repetitive and distressing intrusive images. Avoidance symptoms may involve avoiding people, situations, or circumstances associated with the traumatic event. Hyperarousal symptoms may include hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability, and difficulty concentrating. Emotional numbing may result in a lack of ability to experience feelings and feeling detached.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 17-year-old boy visits his doctor complaining of low mood. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy visits his doctor complaining of low mood. He has been experiencing this for the past 5 weeks along with fatigue, anhedonia, and oversleeping. The doctor orders a set of blood tests and his PHQ-9 score indicates moderate depression. The patient has no medical history. He is not interested in cognitive behavioural therapy and wants to begin medication. What is the best medication for him to start with?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine is the preferred SSRI for treating depression in children and adolescents.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A mother brings her 8-year-old son to see the general practitioner (GP) as...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old son to see the general practitioner (GP) as she is very concerned about his school performance. His teacher has reported that he is being highly disruptive in the classroom.
      Which of the following sets of behaviours fit best with a diagnosis of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

      Your Answer: Easily distracted, hyperactivity, interrupts classmates

      Explanation:

      Understanding ADHD: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder that affects both children and adults. The core features of ADHD include inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness. Individuals with ADHD may be easily distracted, forgetful, fidgety, and have difficulty sustaining attention for prolonged periods. They may also interrupt others, talk excessively, and struggle to wait their turn.

      While the exact cause of ADHD is unknown, genetic factors, head injury, and low birthweight are thought to be risk factors. ADHD is more common in men than women. Management of ADHD typically involves counselling and/or medication.

      It is important to note that ADHD does not necessarily lead to difficulties in forming friendships or an inability to empathize with peers. Aggression and destruction are also not core features of ADHD. However, individuals with ADHD may struggle with inflexibility and have difficulty finishing tasks. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors associated with ADHD in order to provide appropriate support and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with concerns about her interpersonal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with concerns about her interpersonal relationships both at work and in her personal life. She reveals that this has been a persistent issue since her teenage years. She finds it challenging to collaborate with others and identifies herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, she has been described by others as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder tend to have inflexible attitudes towards morals, ethics, and values, and are often hesitant to delegate tasks to others. They exhibit perfectionistic tendencies and adhere to strict protocols in their work. This disorder makes it challenging for them to collaborate with others and adapt to different ways of doing things.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife passed away suddenly 5 months ago. He appears sad and spends most of the appointment looking down, but answers your questions. He expresses concern that he may be losing his mind because he has started seeing his wife sitting in her old chair and sometimes talks to her when he is alone. He confirms that he can hear her voice responding to him. He says he mostly talks to her while cooking in the kitchen or when he is alone at night. Despite these experiences, he knows that what he sees and hears is not real. He reports occasional memory loss and some abdominal pain due to his irritable bowel syndrome, but is otherwise healthy. He has no history of psychiatric conditions in himself or his family. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations may be a normal part of the grieving process, and differ from true hallucinations in that the individual is aware that what they are experiencing is not real. While pseudohallucinations can be distressing, they are not considered pathological unless accompanied by urinary symptoms, which would require further investigation. The patient in question displays low mood and avoids eye contact, but responds well to questioning and is able to prepare food independently. While depression with psychotic features can involve true hallucinations, there are no other symptoms to suggest this diagnosis. Lewy-body dementia, which can cause visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian features, and cognitive impairment, is not a likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms. Abnormal grief reactions are typically defined as persisting for at least six months after the loss.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old patient presents to her doctor with symptoms of low mood and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to her doctor with symptoms of low mood and anhedonia. She has previously undergone cognitive behavioural therapy and art therapy, but with limited success. The doctor prescribes citalopram and refers her for additional talk therapy.
      What medication should be avoided while taking citalopram?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Rasagiline

      Explanation:

      Combining SSRIs and MAOIs is not recommended due to the potential danger of developing serotonin syndrome.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the hospital as he reports seeing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old homeless man is brought to the hospital as he reports seeing an 'ocean of bees' surrounding him. He is unable to provide a detailed medical history due to his extreme anxiety and confusion, constantly yelling about the 'deafening buzzing.' His heart rate is 140 beats per minute and his breathing rate is 23 breaths per minute. Reviewing his records, it is noted that he has been admitted to the emergency department multiple times due to alcohol intoxication.

      What is the initial treatment for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are administered to manage delirium tremens/alcohol withdrawal.

      When a patient experiences delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal after dependency, chlordiazepoxide or diazepam are commonly prescribed. This condition often leads to the manifestation of visual and auditory hallucinations. While haloperidol can be beneficial in calming the patient, the primary treatment for delirium tremens is administering 10-30 mg of chlordiazepoxide four times daily.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old woman visited her primary care physician complaining of persistent polydipsia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman visited her primary care physician complaining of persistent polydipsia and swollen legs for the past few months. She reported having a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), schizophrenia, and hypertension. Her current medications include tiotropium inhaler, ipratropium bromide inhaler, olanzapine, and nifedipine. She had previously taken bendroflumethiazide, which was discontinued two years ago, and had a 5-day course of 30mg oral prednisolone six months ago due to a COPD exacerbation. Her fasting blood tests revealed:
      Fasting plasma glucose 7 mmol/L (3.9-5.4)
      Random plasma glucose 12 mmol/L (<7.8)
      Which medication is likely responsible for her abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can cause metabolic side effects such as dysglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, and diabetes mellitus. In this case, the patient’s persistent hyperglycaemia in both fasting blood tests and HBA1c tests has led to a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, likely caused by her regular medication, olanzapine. While the patient has also experienced swollen legs, this is likely due to nifedipine rather than the cause of her deranged blood result. A 5-day course of prednisolone given half a year ago is unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Ipratropium bromide is also an unlikely culprit, as it is not known to increase blood sugar levels. Thiazide diuretics, which can increase blood sugar levels, were stopped two years ago and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Other potential metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics include hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, dyslipidemia, and hyperuricemia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old trans woman visits her primary care physician after experiencing a sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old trans woman visits her primary care physician after experiencing a sexual assault by a coworker at her workplace two weeks ago. She has been suffering from persistent flashbacks, nightmares, and dissociation since the incident, which has affected her sleep and caused her to take a two-week leave from work. What would be the optimal initial treatment for her likely diagnosis, if it were readily accessible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      For individuals experiencing distressing symptoms following a traumatic event, such as the woman in this scenario, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) should be the first-line treatment for acute stress disorders. This type of therapy involves a highly trained therapist exploring the thoughts surrounding the traumatic event and linking them to behaviours or symptoms that may be developing as a result. The goal is to give control back to the individual over their thoughts and behaviours.

      Counselling is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it involves a counsellor listening and empathising with the individual, but taking less control over the conversation than a therapist would. Counselling may even be harmful, as it may exacerbate negative thoughts by exploring the trauma in an uncontrolled way.

      Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it is the first-line treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder, which cannot be diagnosed until 4 weeks after the event. This type of therapy involves reprocessing thoughts of the trauma with the goal of eventually letting them go.

      Interpersonal therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it is intended to address longer-term, deep-rooted thoughts related to relationships with others.

      Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as there is no evidence that mindfulness alone is enough to deal with severe reactions to trauma.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of insomnia. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of insomnia. She reports feeling persistently anxious and unable to cease worrying about everything. The GP suspects she may have an anxiety disorder.
      What is the most effective tool to use in making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7)

      Explanation:

      Common Screening Tools for Mental Health Conditions

      There are several screening tools used in healthcare settings to identify and monitor mental health conditions. These tools help healthcare professionals assess the severity of symptoms and determine appropriate treatment plans. Here are some commonly used screening tools:

      1. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This questionnaire consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder. It measures the severity of symptoms as mild, moderate, or severe.

      2. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): The AUDIT is a screening tool used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.

      3. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): The MMSE is a questionnaire consisting of 30 questions used to identify cognitive impairment. It is commonly used to screen for dementia.

      4. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M SASQ): The M SASQ is a single-question alcohol-harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on their frequency of consuming six or more units (if female, or eight or more if male) on a single occasion in the last year.

      5. Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9): The PHQ-9 is used in primary care to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment. It uses each of the nine Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition criteria for a diagnosis of depression and scores each domain depending on how often the patient experiences these symptoms.

      These screening tools are valuable resources for healthcare professionals to identify and monitor mental health conditions. By using these tools, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and support to their patients.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old man presents to your clinic six months after he was assaulted...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to your clinic six months after he was assaulted on his way home from work. He was mugged and punched in the stomach by his attacker before he fled. Six months later, the patient continues to have severe and incapacitating periumbilical pain where he was punched. He denies any gastrointestinal symptoms or any other issues. Previous investigations and imaging have been unremarkable for any underlying anatomical, neurological or vascular abnormality.
      What is the most appropriate description of the patient's current complaints during the clinic visit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pain disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Psychiatric Disorders: Pain Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatization Disorder, PTSD, and Acute Stress Disorder

      When evaluating a patient with unexplained physical symptoms, it is important to consider various psychiatric disorders that may be contributing to their presentation. In this case, the patient’s symptoms do not fit the criteria for somatization disorder, PTSD, or acute stress disorder. However, there are other disorders that should be considered.

      Pain disorder is characterized by intense, long-standing pain without a somatic explanation. The patient’s pain is out of proportion to the injury and is not explained by any underlying somatic pathology. This disorder is restricted to physical pain and does not include other somatic complaints.

      Conversion disorder, on the other hand, presents as a neurological deficit in the absence of a somatic cause. Patients are usually unconcerned about the symptom, unlike this patient. It usually follows a psychosocial stressor.

      Somatization disorder refers to patients with a constellation of physical complaints that are not explained by a somatic process. This would include odd distributions of pain, numbness, GI upset, headache, nausea, vomiting, shortness of breath, palpitations, etc. However, this patient is fixated on a particular disease and does not fit the criteria for somatization.

      PTSD presents with persistent re-experiencing of the trauma, nightmares, flashbacks, intense fear, avoidant behaviour and/or increased arousal. Symptoms must persist for at least 1 month and impair his quality of life. There are no clear signs of PTSD in this patient.

      Acute stress disorder is an anxiety condition precipitated by an acute stress that resolves within a month. This is well beyond the window for acute stress, and it does not fit the symptomatology of acute stress.

      In conclusion, it is important to consider various psychiatric disorders when evaluating a patient with unexplained physical symptoms. By ruling out certain disorders, a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established.

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  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tourette’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tourette’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Tourette’s syndrome is a neurological disorder that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. It is characterized by the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics, which may not occur concurrently. The vocal tics can be throat-clearing, grunting, or other sounds that are not complete words or phrases. In some cases, there may also be associated gestural echopraxia, which can be of an obscene nature.

      Schizophrenia, on the other hand, does not typically present with involuntary movements or tics. Conduct disorder is a mental disorder that is diagnosed before or after the age of 10 and is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Malingering is the fabrication of symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, while dissocial personality disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others.

      Treatment options for Tourette’s syndrome include anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride, which have been shown to be effective. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Tourette’s syndrome to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner on the advice of the Community...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner on the advice of the Community Psychiatric Nurse. He has been experiencing a fever and sore throat lately. He is currently on clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
      What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct, considering his recent symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      When treating patients with clozapine, it is important to monitor for agranulocytosis, a rare but potentially fatal side-effect. Patients should report flu-like symptoms and undergo regular blood tests. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever may indicate agranulocytosis, so a full blood count is necessary. While an ECG should be done before starting antipsychotic treatment, it is not the most important test in this scenario. Blood glucose should be monitored to exclude organic causes and hyperglycemia caused by antipsychotics. Liver function and urea/electrolytes should also be monitored regularly, but are not the most important tests to conduct immediately in this case.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - Sarah is a 30-year-old teacher who has been referred to the mental health...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 30-year-old teacher who has been referred to the mental health team with suspected bipolar disorder. The psychiatrist has confirmed the diagnosis and prescribed lithium, which has stabilized her condition. They have requested that you take over the monitoring of her medication levels. When you call Sarah to advise her on when to have her lithium levels checked, she cannot recall the specific timing related to her medication. How would you recommend that her medication levels be monitored?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood test 12 hours post dose every 3 months

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, lithium levels should be checked one week after starting treatment, one week after any dose changes, and weekly until stable levels are achieved. Once stable levels are reached, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months, with the sample taken 12 hours after the dose. It is important to note that a trough level taken immediately before a dose is only applicable for certain medications, such as twice-daily clozapine.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is registered at your practice. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. According to her husband, for the past three days, she has been talking nonsensically and experiencing hallucinations. An Approved Mental Health Professional is contacted and heads to the patient's residence. Upon arrival, you encounter a disheveled and emaciated woman sitting on the pavement outside her home, threatening to physically harm you. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call the police

      Explanation:

      If the patient is exhibiting violent behavior in a public place, it is advisable to contact the police and have her taken to a secure location for a proper evaluation. It is important to note that Metformin does not lead to hypoglycemia.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive eye blinking. He is concerned about the cause of this symptom and reports being unable to control it. He has no visual disturbance and is otherwise in good health. Upon examination, he has a normal facial and ocular appearance except for excessive rapid blinking. What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      The correct term for the condition described in the stem is tardive dyskinesia. This is a late onset side effect of conventional antipsychotics, such as chlorpromazine, which causes abnormal involuntary movements. Patients may exhibit symptoms such as lip-smacking, jaw pouting, chewing, or repetitive blinking. Unfortunately, this condition is often difficult to treat, but replacing the antipsychotic or trying tetrabenazine may provide some relief.

      Parkinsonism is another potential side effect of conventional antipsychotics, but it presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson’s disease, such as tremors, blank facies, bradykinesia, and muscle rigidity. Dry eyes or Sjogren’s syndrome may cause eye twitching, but they are unlikely to cause repetitive blinking. Blepharospasm is a condition characterized by involuntary twitching or contraction of the eyelid, which may be caused by stress or fatigue. However, given the patient’s use of chlorpromazine, tardive dyskinesia is the most likely diagnosis.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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  • Question 24 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents due to concerns raised by his nursery. Although he is meeting his developmental milestones, he seems to struggle with social interaction and play with other children.

      The parents report that he was born via normal vaginal delivery at term and has met all of his speech and motor milestones. However, they have noticed that he is different from his older siblings as he has never made any friends or engaged in any imaginative play. He prefers to play alone and becomes upset if anyone touches his toys. He insists on following the same routine every day, including eating the same meals and taking the same route to nursery. He struggles during weekends and holidays when his routine is disrupted.

      Which of the following diagnoses would be most consistent with the signs and symptoms observed in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autism spectrum disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Developmental Disorders: A Comparison

      When observing a child’s behavior, it is important to consider various developmental disorders that may be present. In this case, the girl in question is displaying signs of autism spectrum disorder, which is characterized by persistent difficulties with social communication and interaction, as well as restrictive and repetitive patterns of behavior. This disorder must have been present since early childhood and cause significant impairment in important areas of functioning.

      It is important to differentiate autism spectrum disorder from other disorders, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), which is characterized by the presence of obsessions and compulsions, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), which is characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning or development.

      Additionally, a learning disability may be considered if the child has a significantly reduced ability to understand new or complex information and learn new skills, with a reduced ability to cope independently. However, this is unlikely if the child is performing well academically.

      Finally, Rett syndrome is a progressive neurological condition that is usually only seen in girls and has features similar to autism spectrum disorder, such as the inability to show feelings. However, it also has other features such as microcephaly, abnormal gait, seizures, and hypotonia, and usually presents at a much younger age.

      Overall, understanding the differences between these developmental disorders is crucial in accurately identifying and addressing a child’s needs.

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  • Question 25 - You are requested to assess a 25-year-old man who has been urgently referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 25-year-old man who has been urgently referred to the Community Mental Health Team. He has recently left his job to work on 'a groundbreaking project' which he believes will eradicate world poverty. He has also been neglecting his basic needs such as eating and sleeping as he 'cannot afford to waste time on such trivialities'. Upon examination, the patient appears restless and lacks awareness of their condition. The patient has a history of depression and is currently on an antidepressant medication.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start antipsychotic and stop antidepressant

      Explanation:

      The appropriate management for a patient experiencing mania/hypomania while taking antidepressants is to discontinue the antidepressant and initiate antipsychotic therapy. This is because the patient’s symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur and hyperactivity, suggest an episode of mania, which requires the use of a rapidly acting antipsychotic or benzodiazepine. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not typically used for the treatment of mania, and lithium is not the first-line treatment for acute episodes of mania. Therefore, starting antipsychotic therapy and discontinuing antidepressants is the most appropriate course of action.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old male has been taking antipsychotics for a few months and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has been taking antipsychotics for a few months and is experiencing a severe side-effect that causes repetitive involuntary movements such as grimacing and sticking out the tongue. This side-effect is known to occur only in individuals who have been on antipsychotics for an extended period. What medication is the most appropriate for treating this side-effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Tetrabenazine is an effective treatment for moderate to severe tardive dyskinesia, which is the condition that this patient is experiencing. Propranolol is typically used to alleviate symptoms of akathisia, while procyclidine and benztropine are commonly prescribed for acute dystonia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest in activities. She has been experiencing poor sleep for the past 2 weeks and has had no appetite. Her physician prescribes mirtazapine. What category of medications does mirtazapine fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      By blocking alpha2 adrenoreceptors, mirtazapine increases the release of neurotransmitters and functions as a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant.

      Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.

      Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.

      Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.

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  • Question 28 - A father is concerned about his 19 year-old daughter, who has recently become...

    Incorrect

    • A father is concerned about his 19 year-old daughter, who has recently become more reclusive and spends most days in her bedroom. She has stopped socialising with friends and has dropped out of college. She has also removed all the mirrors in her room as she believes that people are spying on her through the mirrors. The father's sister has had schizophrenia in the past, and he is worried that his daughter is showing very similar symptoms.
      Which of the following statements best characterises the aetiology of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Approximately 20 million people worldwide are reported to have schizophrenia with a prevalence of up to 1%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Schizophrenia: Genetic and Environmental Factors

      Schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that affects approximately 20 million people worldwide, with a prevalence of up to 1%. While there is clear evidence of a genetic predisposition to the disease, the heterogeneity of schizophrenia has presented a major challenge to medical research, resulting in a variety of explanatory hypotheses and controversies.

      Studies have shown that monozygotic twins have an 85% concordance for schizophrenia, while dizygotic twins have a concordance of 50%. This suggests a significant genetic contribution to the illness, but also implies that non-genetic factors may be necessary for full expression of the disease.

      Neurodevelopmental trauma has been linked to an increased risk of schizophrenia, but there is also evidence that family variables can exacerbate the illness. Adoption studies have shown that family environment does not cause schizophrenia, but patients who live in families where they are criticised and treated with hostility by an over-involved parent have higher rates of relapse and greater need for anti-psychotic medication.

      Overall, understanding the genetic and environmental factors that contribute to schizophrenia is crucial for developing effective treatments and interventions for those affected by this debilitating illness.

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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with depression. She is currently undergoing treatment with citalopram and has started a course of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
      What is used to assess the effectiveness of treatment in patients with depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9)

      Explanation:

      Common Screening Tools Used in Primary Care

      Primary care physicians often use various screening tools to assess their patients’ mental and physical health. Here are some of the most commonly used screening tools:

      1. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9): This tool is used to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment.

      2. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): This questionnaire is used to identify cognitive impairment and screen for dementia.

      3. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): This screening tool is used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.

      4. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This tool consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder and measure the severity of symptoms.

      5. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M-SASQ): This is a single question alcohol harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on the frequency of consuming six or more units (if female) or eight or more units (if male) on a single occasion in the last year.

      By using these screening tools, primary care physicians can identify potential health issues early on and provide appropriate treatment and care.

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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old Indigenous male with a lengthy history of heavy alcohol use is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old Indigenous male with a lengthy history of heavy alcohol use is hospitalized after experiencing a seizure upon stopping alcohol consumption. The physician observes that the patient is experiencing memory difficulties, as evidenced by his detailed recollection of events from the previous day in the hospital that are completely different from what actually occurred. The patient does not appear to have any intention of deceiving the doctor.
      What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      Common Terms in Psychiatry

      Confabulation is the act of unintentionally reporting false memories that seem plausible. This can occur in individuals with Alzheimer’s disease or Korsakoff syndrome. Concrete thinking is a type of thinking where a person has difficulty thinking abstractly and may interpret proverbs literally. Hallucinations are sensory experiences that are not caused by external stimuli. Thought blocking is when a person suddenly stops their train of thought. Thought insertion is a delusion where a person believes that their thoughts are being placed in their mind by an external force.

      These terms are commonly used in psychiatry to describe various symptoms and conditions. It is important to understand their meanings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients. Confabulation and concrete thinking may be indicative of cognitive impairment, while hallucinations and delusions may be symptoms of a psychotic disorder. Thought blocking may occur in individuals with schizophrenia, while thought insertion may be a symptom of delusional disorder. By these terms, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients.

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      • Psychiatry
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