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Question 1
Incorrect
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What study design would be most useful in testing the hypothesis that metal industry workers are more likely to develop a rare neurological disorder due to exposure to a particular type of heavy metal residue, given that the prevalence of the disease is 1 in 1,000,000?
Your Answer: Cohort study
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:Different Study Designs for Investigating Rare Diseases
When investigating a rare disease, it is important to choose the appropriate study design to ensure accurate and reliable results. Here are some common study designs and their suitability for studying rare diseases:
1. Case-control study: This design compares individuals affected by the disease (cases) with those not affected (controls) to identify potential risk factors. It is useful for rare diseases, but careful selection of controls is necessary to avoid bias.
2. Cohort study: This design follows a group of individuals with a particular exposure or characteristic over time to determine if they develop the disease. While useful, it requires a large cohort and a long follow-up period for rare diseases.
3. Placebo-controlled randomized trial: This design tests interventions prospectively and is not helpful for investigating rare diseases.
4. Descriptive study: This design does not determine exposure to the hypothesized cause of the disease and is not helpful for investigating rare diseases.
5. Cross-sectional survey: This design records health information from a random sample of people and requires a large sample size for rare diseases.
Choosing the appropriate study design is crucial for investigating rare diseases and obtaining accurate results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2 weeks vaginally and without any complications. The parents of the child have a concern that their child might have achondroplasia as the child's father has been diagnosed with this condition. Apart from measuring the child's length, what other physical characteristic should you look for to determine if the child has achondroplasia?
Your Answer: Sandal-gap deformity
Correct Answer: Trident hand deformity
Explanation:Identifying physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for exam purposes and diagnosis. One such feature of achondroplasia is trident hands, characterized by short, stubby fingers with a gap between the middle and ring fingers. Other physical features include short limbs (rhizomelia), lumbar lordosis, and midface hypoplasia. Fragile X syndrome is associated with low set ears, while Down’s syndrome is characterized by saddle-gap deformity and a single palmar crease. It is important to note that achondroplasia is characterized by macrocephaly with frontal bossing, not microcephaly.
Understanding Achondroplasia
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.
In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.
Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.
The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:
Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
End systolic/End diastolic
Superior vena cava 58 -
Inferior vena cava 52 -
Right atrium (mean) 56 10
Right ventricle 55 105/9
Pulmonary artery - 16/8
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
Left atrium 97 -
Left ventricle 84 108/10
Aorta 74 110/80
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Fallot's tetralogy
Explanation:Fallot’s Tetralogy
Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which nerve is responsible for providing innervation to the hypothenar muscles, adductor pollicis, third and fourth lumbricals, dorsal and palmar interossei, deep head of flexor pollicis brevis, and palmaris brevis?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Nerve Supply to the Hand
The hand receives its nerve supply from the median, ulnar, and radial nerves. The radial nerve is responsible for sensory supply to the skin and fascia over the lateral two-thirds of the dorsum of the hand, the dorsum of the thumb, and the proximal parts of the lateral one and a half digits. However, it does not supply any hand muscles.
On the other hand, the ulnar and median nerves supply the muscles of the hand. The ulnar nerve supplies most of the hand muscles, except for four muscles known as the LOAF muscles, which are supplied by the median nerve. These muscles include the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis. The palmaris brevis muscle is supplied by the superficial branch of the median nerve, while the other muscles are supplied by the deep branch.
The ulnar nerve also provides sensory innervation to the little finger, the medial half of the ring finger, and the corresponding area of the palm. If there is an ulnar nerve palsy, it can result in wasting of the small muscles of the hand, partial clawing of the little and ring fingers, and loss of sensation over the fourth and fifth fingers of the hand. the nerve supply to the hand is crucial in diagnosing and treating any nerve-related conditions that may affect the hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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Which statement accurately reflects the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing sunscreen A and placebo for skin cancer prevention, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and 10% of patients in group A developed skin cancer with a relative risk of 0.7 compared to placebo?
Your Answer: The relative risk reduction for sunscreen A is 0.3
Explanation:When analyzing the results of a sunscreen study, it is important to consider the relative risk reduction. This value is calculated by subtracting the relative risk from 1. If the relative risk reduction is greater than 0, it means that the group receiving the sunscreen had a lower risk of skin cancer compared to the placebo group. However, without performing a statistical test, it is difficult to determine if the sunscreen is truly effective in preventing skin cancer.
Additionally, it is helpful to look at the absolute risk of skin cancer in the placebo group. In the given example, the absolute risk of skin cancer in group B was 14.2%. This value can be used to calculate the absolute risk reduction, which is the difference between the absolute risk of the placebo group and the absolute risk of the sunscreen group. In this case, the absolute risk reduction was 4.2%.
Overall, these values can provide insight into the effectiveness of a sunscreen in preventing skin cancer. However, it is important to note that further statistical analysis may be necessary to draw definitive conclusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents following a recent hospital admission with a small stroke. He mentions having difficulty finding his way to your clinic in the car and upon further questioning, it becomes apparent that he has memory impairment and has become slower after the stroke. He had a medical examination two years ago and has three years left on his driving licence before he next needs a further medical. Despite your recommendation to give up driving, he refuses as he is dependent upon the car for getting around. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Inform the DVLA that in your opinion the patient is not fit to drive
Explanation:The Responsibility of Physicians in Reporting Elderly Drivers
Elderly drivers are at a higher risk of accidents, even in good driving conditions and involving only two vehicles. This risk is further increased by any disabilities they may have. While doctors have a duty of confidentiality, this is outweighed by their duty to the wider community. If a patient is considered a risk and cannot be persuaded to give up driving voluntarily, the doctor should inform the DVLA. The patient should also be informed that if they do not inform the DVLA, the doctor will do so in the best interests of the public. Additionally, regulations require that elderly drivers give up driving for a month after a stroke.
It is the responsibility of physicians to assess the driving abilities of elderly patients and report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. While this may be a difficult conversation to have, it is necessary to ensure the safety of both the patient and the wider community. By informing patients of the risks and regulations, doctors can help prevent accidents and promote safe driving practices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old male patient presented to the Emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that had been ongoing for six hours. The symptoms appeared out of nowhere while he was watching TV, and lying flat made the breathlessness worse. The patient denied any recent history of infection, cough, fever, leg pain, swelling, or travel.
Upon examination, the patient was apyrexial and showed no signs of cyanosis. Respiratory examination revealed reduced breath sounds and hyperresonance in the right lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary spontaneous pneumothorax
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of a Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax
Given the sudden onset of shortness of breath and reduced breath sounds from the right lung, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is a right-sided primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP). Primary pneumothoraces occur in patients without chronic lung disease, while secondary pneumothoraces occur in patients with existing lung disease. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, a D-dimer test should be performed. A positive D-dimer does not necessarily mean a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, but a negative result can rule it out. If the D-dimer is positive, imaging would be the next step in management.
A 12-lead ECG should also be performed to check for any ischaemic or infarcted changes, although there is no clinical suspicion of acute coronary syndrome in this patient. Bornholm disease, a viral infection causing myalgia and severe pleuritic chest pain, is unlikely given the examination findings. An asthma attack would present similarly, but there is no history to suggest this condition in this patient.
In summary, a primary spontaneous pneumothorax is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. A D-dimer test should be performed to rule out a pulmonary embolism, and a 12-lead ECG should be done to check for any ischaemic or infarcted changes. Bornholm disease and asthma are unlikely diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence during her daily walks. The bladder diary does not provide clear results. What is the most suitable test to conduct?
Your Answer: Urodynamic studies
Explanation:Urodynamic studies are necessary when there is a lack of clarity in diagnosis or when surgery is being considered.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day history of fever and a new onset rash on the arms, legs, and abdomen that started today. Despite the fever, the baby has been behaving normally and does not seem bothered by the rash. Upon closer examination, the rash appears red with small bumps that are merging together. None of the lesions have scabbed over. The rash is mostly on the limbs and there are no signs of scratching. The baby's temperature is now normal at 36.9ºC. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Human herpes virus 2
Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6
Explanation:Human herpes virus 6 is the cause of Roseola infantum, a viral illness that is characterized by a fever lasting for 3 days followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash on the 4th day. The fever can develop quickly and may lead to febrile convulsions. The rash typically starts on the trunk and limbs, unlike chickenpox which usually presents with a central rash. HHV6 is known to attack the nervous system, which can result in rare complications such as encephalitis and febrile fits after the fever has subsided. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein Barr virus, while genital herpes is caused by Human herpes virus 2. Bacterial meningitis, which is characterized by symptoms of meningism such as photophobia, stiff neck, and headache, along with a non-blanching rash seen in meningococcal septicaemia, is commonly caused by Neisseria meningitidis.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner with severe right ear pain, swelling, and itching. Her mother reports that it all started after her daughter began swimming lessons two months ago. During examination, the clinician notes tenderness when pulling the right ear upwards. Otoscopy is challenging due to the painful, swollen ear canal and white discharge. Additionally, the girl has tender cervical lymph nodes on the right side below the ear and experiences pain when moving her jaw sideways. She has a mild fever (38.3 °C), but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management for this condition?
Your Answer: Cleaning and irrigation of the external auditory canal
Correct Answer: Topical acetic acid 2% spray (with wick placement) and oral antibiotics
Explanation:The recommended treatment for this patient’s severe otitis externa involves a combination of topical acetic acid 2% spray with wick placement and oral antibiotics. The use of wick placement is necessary due to the swelling in the ear canal, which can hinder the effectiveness of the topical solution. Oral antibiotics are necessary in cases where the infection has spread to adjacent areas, as evidenced by the patient’s tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Flucloxacillin or clarithromycin are commonly used for severe cases. Cleaning and irrigation of the ear canal may be performed under otoscope guidance to remove debris and promote better absorption of topical medication. Oral aminoglycosides are effective but should only be used if the tympanic membrane is intact. NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief but are not sufficient for treating severe otitis externa. While topical acetic acid 2% spray is a first-line treatment for mild cases, a combination of topical therapy and oral antibiotics is necessary for severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to collect his urine for 24 hours. What level of urine albumin concentration indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?
Your Answer: 10 mg/day
Correct Answer: 50 mg/day
Explanation:Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria
Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not only an early indicator of renal involvement but also a sign of increased cardiovascular risk, with a twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful surrogate of the total albumin excretion, and it is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. An albumin:creatinine ratio of ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women) indicates microalbuminuria, while a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol indicates proteinuria. these conditions is crucial in managing and preventing complications associated with renal and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 42-year-old receptionist presents to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Clinic for a follow-up visit. She experiences sudden-onset bouts of vertigo and tinnitus that are debilitating and leave her confined to bed until the episode subsides. The initial episode occurred 5 years ago and since then she has noticed a slight decrease in hearing in her left ear. She has undergone a thorough evaluation, and an MRI scan revealed no abnormalities.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Ménière’s disease
Explanation:Distinguishing between Ménière’s Disease and Other Causes of Vertigo
Ménière’s disease is a condition characterized by episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. Patients may also experience a sense of fullness or pressure in the ear before an attack. While initially unilateral, Ménière’s can progress to become bilateral and cause a fluctuating, progressive sensorineural hearing loss and permanent tinnitus. Multiple sclerosis and acoustic neuroma can cause similar symptoms, but can be ruled out with a normal MRI scan. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) can also cause vertigo and nystagmus, but is less severe and does not include tinnitus or hearing loss. Labyrinthitis may cause similar symptoms, but is typically characterized by sudden-onset, severe, constant vertigo that lasts for several weeks, whereas Ménière’s attacks are episodic. Accurately distinguishing between these conditions is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 13
Correct
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An epidemiologist wants to investigate the impact of a new vaccine, vaccine X, compared to the existing vaccine, vaccine Y. She plans a research study to test the theory that vaccine X will provide a higher immunity rate than the current vaccine.
What is the null hypothesis?Your Answer: Drug A is no better than drug B in terms of survival rates
Explanation:Type 1 and Type 2 Errors in Clinical Trials
Clinical trials are often conducted to test the effectiveness of a new drug compared to an existing one. The hypothesis being tested is whether the new drug offers a significant improvement in patient survival compared to the standard treatment. The null hypothesis, on the other hand, assumes that the new drug does not offer a significant improvement in patient survival compared to the standard treatment.
In some cases, clinical trials are designed to assess non-inferiority rather than overt superiority. When designing a clinical trial, researchers need to consider the likelihood of two types of errors: type 1 and type 2 errors.
A type 1 error occurs when the study gives a falsely significant result, indicating that the treatments are different when they are actually the same. This happens when the null hypothesis is inappropriately rejected. The significance level, which is typically set at 0.05 (5%), determines the likelihood of a type 1 error.
A type 2 error, on the other hand, occurs when the study fails to find a significant difference even when a difference genuinely exists. The power of the study, which is calculated from the anticipated type 2 error, determines the likelihood of a type 2 error. For example, a type 2 error of 0.2 gives a power of 80% (1-β).
In conclusion, type 1 and type 2 errors is crucial in designing and interpreting the results of clinical trials. By minimizing the likelihood of these errors, researchers can ensure that their findings are reliable and accurate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol due to a recent breakup with her partner. She expresses remorse for her actions, denies any suicidal thoughts, and requests to be discharged. Her parents and a friend arrive at the hospital soon after. Paracetamol levels at 4 hours are below the treatment limit.
What should be the next course of action in managing her case?Your Answer: Arrange review by mental health liaison team prior to discharge
Explanation:Importance of Mental Health Liaison Team Review Prior to Discharge for Paracetamol Overdose Patients
Paracetamol overdose is a common presentation of self-harm in emergency departments. While medical management is crucial, patients may also require mental health support. A hospital-based mental health liaison team can provide advice on discharge and arrange follow-up if necessary. Discharging a patient without follow-up increases the risk of further self-harm. However, temporary compulsory detention under the Mental Health Act is not appropriate for low-risk patients. Prescribing N-acetyl-L-cysteine is unnecessary if the paracetamol levels are below treatment threshold. Emergency admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit is only necessary for high-risk patients. Therefore, mental health liaison team review prior to discharge is crucial for appropriate management of paracetamol overdose patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old primiparous woman presented to Labour Ward triage at 34+1/40 with upper back/chest pain and a headache. The pregnancy had been uncomplicated up to this point, with only some lower back pain over the past 2 weeks.
Obs: blood pressure 151/102, respiratory rate 18, sats 100% room air, heart rate 60 bpm, afebrile. On examination, she appeared well – PERL. Heart sounds were normal, chest was clear, and there was no shortness of breath (SOB). Her abdomen and uterus were soft and non-tender (SNT), and her calves were also SNT. Reflexes were normal. A urine dip showed nitrate +, leukocytes +, protein 1+. Electrocardiography (ECG) and cardiotocography (CTG) were both normal. Blood tests were taken, and results were pending.
Considering the likely diagnosis, what would be your first step in management?Your Answer: Admit for monitoring
Correct Answer: Start po labetalol and admit for monitoring
Explanation:Management of Pre-eclampsia with Hypertension in Pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia is a common condition affecting pregnant women, with hypertension and proteinuria being the main clinical features. The first line of management for hypertension is oral labetalol, with close monitoring of blood pressure. In cases of mild hypertension, induction of labor is not necessary. However, admission for monitoring and commencement of labetalol is recommended. IV magnesium sulfate may be needed later on, but not initially. Discharge home is not appropriate for women with pre-eclampsia. Early recognition and management of pre-eclampsia is crucial for the well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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John is a 44-year-old man who presented to you a month ago with a 6-week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn, and occasional reflux. His medical history is unremarkable, and you both agreed on a plan for a 1-month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.
John returns for a follow-up appointment after completing the course of omeprazole. Unfortunately, his symptoms have only slightly improved and are still causing him distress.
What would be the most suitable course of action to manage John's persistent symptoms?Your Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive
Explanation:If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the other approach should be tried next. NICE guidelines recommend prescribing a full-dose PPI for 1 month or testing for H. pylori infection and prescribing eradication therapy if positive. If symptoms persist, switch to the alternative strategy. Referral for routine upper GI endoscopy is not indicated at this stage.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following an overdose at home. She reports taking 32 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg six hours ago. The patient is admitted to the observation unit for IV n-acetylcysteine. Which of the following factors is not linked to an elevated risk of developing hepatotoxicity in this case?
Your Answer: Acute alcohol intake
Explanation:Acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of developing hepatotoxicity in cases of paracetamol overdose and may even have a protective effect. However, patients taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, and carbamazepine are at a higher risk of developing hepatotoxicity.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl arrives at the Emergency department with a complaint of sudden pain in her upper tibia. She has a fever and is unwilling to move her leg. The medical team suspects osteomyelitis. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Common Organisms in Osteomyelitis and Related Conditions
Acute osteomyelitis in children over the age of 4 years is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Fortunately, immunisation has greatly reduced the incidence of haematogenous osteomyelitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae. In sickle cell anaemia, Salmonella is the typical organism responsible for infection. Meanwhile, Pseudomonas infection is frequently seen in haemodialysis patients and intravenous drug users. These organisms can cause serious infections that require prompt medical attention. It is important to be aware of the common organisms associated with osteomyelitis and related conditions in order to facilitate early diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Colorectal cancer
Correct Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms
Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.
Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.
Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.
Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.
Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.
Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following characteristics is absent in a corticospinal lesion?
Your Answer: Cogwheel rigidity
Explanation:Neurological Features of Extrapyramidal and Pyramidal Involvement
Cogwheel rigidity is a characteristic of extrapyramidal involvement, specifically in the basal ganglia. This type of rigidity is commonly observed in individuals with parkinsonism. On the other hand, pyramidal (corticospinal) involvement is characterized by increased tone, exaggerated spinal reflexes, and extensor plantar responses. These features are distinct from Cogwheel rigidity and are indicative of a different type of neurological involvement. the differences between extrapyramidal and pyramidal involvement can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall off a ladder. She was witnessed to have lost consciousness at the scene and remained confused with the ambulance personnel. She is complaining of a headache and has vomited three times. Her eyes are open to voice and she is able to squeeze your hand using both hands, when asked, and wiggle her toes. She is confused about what has happened and does not remember falling. Her pupils are equal and reactive.
How would you manage this patient?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head scan within 1 h
Explanation:Management of Head Injury: Importance of CT Scan and Neuro Observation
Head injury is a serious medical condition that requires prompt and appropriate management. The current imaging modality used to investigate brain injury is CT. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) head injury guidelines, patients who sustained a head injury and have any of the following risk factors should be scanned within 1 hour: GCS <13 on initial assessment in the Emergency Department, GCS <15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the Emergency Department, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting. A provisional radiology report should be given to the requesting clinician within 1 hour of the scan performed to aid immediate clinical management. While waiting for the CT scan, the patient should be monitored using a neuro observation chart, and any deterioration needs to be immediately reported to the responsible clinician for the patient’s care. Admitting the patient for neuro observation is crucial to ensure prompt management of any changes in the patient’s condition. There is no indication to discuss the patient with the neurosurgical department at present. Once the imaging has been performed and if new surgically significant intracranial pathology is detected, then discussion of the care plan should take place with the local neurosurgical team. Discussion of the care plan with a neurosurgeon is warranted, regardless of imaging, if any of the following is present: GCS 8 or less persisting despite initial resuscitation, unexplained confusion lasting >4 hours, deterioration in GCS score after admission, progressing focal neurological signs, a seizure without full recovery, CSF leak, suspected/definitive.
In conclusion, the immediate CT scan and neuro observation are crucial steps in the management of head injury. Discharging a patient with a high-risk head injury is inappropriate and can lead to serious consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is ready to be discharged from the labour ward following an uncomplicated delivery. The medical team discusses contraception options with her before she leaves. The patient had previously been taking microgynon (ethinylestradiol 30 microgram/levonorgestrel 50 micrograms) and wishes to resume this medication.
The patient has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no allergies. She is a non-smoker with a BMI of 19 kg/m² and does not plan to breastfeed her baby.
What is the appropriate time frame for the patient to safely restart her medication?Your Answer: She can restart after 1 week
Correct Answer: She can restart after 3 weeks
Explanation:The patient should not restart the COCP within the first 21 days after giving birth due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. However, since the patient is not breastfeeding and has no additional risk factors for thromboembolic disease, she can safely restart the pill at 3 weeks postpartum. Restarting at any other time before the 21-day mark is not recommended.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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You are requested to assess a 35-year-old man who has presented to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath, fever, and unusual breathing sounds for the past twelve hours. He reports having a sore throat for the past few days, which has rapidly worsened. He has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 30/min, pulse 120 bpm, oxygen saturation 96%, temperature 39.0ºC, blood pressure 110/60 mmHg. From the end of the bed, you can observe that he is visibly struggling to breathe, has a hoarse voice, and is drooling into a container. You can hear a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?Your Answer: Call the on-call anaesthetist to assess the patient for intubation
Explanation:In cases of acute epiglottitis, protecting the airway is crucial and may require endotracheal intubation. Symptoms such as high fever, sore throat, dyspnoea, change in voice, and inspiratory stridor indicate a potential airway emergency. While other treatments may be necessary, securing the airway should be the top priority, following the ABCDE management steps. IV dexamethasone can help reduce laryngeal oedema, but an anaesthetic assessment should be arranged before administering any medication. Nebulised salbutamol is ineffective in treating laryngeal narrowing caused by epiglottitis. X-rays of the neck may be used, but they can take time to organise and delay urgent airway management. Attempting to visualise the larynx without appropriate senior support and intubation capabilities is dangerous in cases of acute epiglottitis. Flexible nasendoscopy should only be performed with the presence of trained personnel who can secure the airway if necessary.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman complains of mild lower back pain and tenderness around the L3 vertebra. Upon conducting tests, the following results were obtained: Hemoglobin levels of 80 g/L (120-160), ESR levels of 110 mm/hr (1-10), and an albumin/globulin ratio of 1:2 (2:1). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bone secondaries
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells found in the bone marrow. These plasma cells are derived from B lymphocytes, but when they become malignant, they start to divide uncontrollably, forming tumors in the bone marrow. These tumors interfere with normal cell production and erode the surrounding bone, causing soft spots and holes. Since the malignant cells are clones derived from a single plasma cell, they all produce the same abnormal immunoglobulin that is secreted into the blood.
Patients with multiple myeloma may not show any symptoms for many years, but eventually, most patients develop some evidence of the disease. This can include weakened bones, which can cause bone pain and fractures, decreased numbers of red or white blood cells, which can lead to anemia, infections, bleeding, and bruising, and kidney failure, which can cause an increase in creatinine levels. Additionally, destruction of the bone can increase the level of calcium in the blood, leading to symptoms of hypercalcemia. Pieces of monoclonal antibodies, known as light chains or Bence Jones proteins, can also lodge in the kidneys and cause permanent damage. In some cases, an increase in the viscosity of the blood may lead to headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic by her father with a sore throat that worsens with swallowing, headaches, and malaise. He reports no coughing.
Upon examination, her temperature is 38.5ºC, her heart rate is 100 bpm, and her tonsils are symmetrically enlarged and red, with white patches present. There is tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor's overall impression is that of an ill child.
The patient has no medical history but is allergic to penicillin. What is the most appropriate immediate step in her management?Your Answer: Prescribe clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Immediate hospital admission
Explanation:Immediate hospital admission is necessary for a child with fevers who appears unwell to a paediatric healthcare professional, as this is considered a red flag indicating severe illness. In this case, the child has a Centor score of 4 and presents with tonsillitis symptoms, including tonsillar exudate, tender cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, and no cough. While antibiotic treatment may be warranted, the priority is to admit the child for assessment and management of their condition. Delayed antibiotic prescription or prescribing a specific antibiotic, such as clarithromycin or phenoxymethylpenicillin, would not be appropriate in this situation.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals first-degree heart block, tall P-waves, and flattened T-waves. Upon arterial blood gas analysis, her results are as follows: pH 7.55 (normal range 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 30 mmol/L (normal range 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 5.8kPa (normal range 4.5-6kPa), p02 11kPa (normal range 10-14kPa), and Chloride 85mmol/L (normal range 95-108mmol/L). What is the underlying cause of her presentation?
Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:The palpitations experienced by this patient are likely due to hypokalaemia, as indicated by their ECG. The ABG results reveal a metabolic alkalosis, with low chloride levels suggesting that the cause is likely due to prolonged vomiting resulting in the loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. This could also explain the hypokalaemia observed on the ECG. The absence of acute nausea and vomiting suggests that this may be a chronic issue, possibly indicating bulimia nervosa as the underlying condition, unless there is a previous medical history that could account for persistent vomiting.
Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging
Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.
Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?
Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner seeking assistance to quit smoking. She has been smoking ten cigarettes daily for the last 14 years and has no significant medical history. However, she is currently in her second trimester of pregnancy. What is the most suitable first-line smoking cessation option for this patient?
Your Answer: Behavioural therapy
Explanation:Smoking Cessation Options for Pregnant Women: A Review of Medications and Therapies
When it comes to quitting smoking during pregnancy or postpartum, behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line approach by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Smoking cessation clinics can provide support for women who wish to quit smoking. Clonidine, a medication used for high blood pressure and drug withdrawal, has some effect on smoking cessation but is not licensed or recommended for this use by NICE. Bupropion, which reduces cravings and withdrawal effects, is contraindicated during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Nicotine replacement therapy can be used in pregnancy, but women should be informed of the risks and benefits and only used if behavioural support is ineffective. Varenicline, a medication that reduces cravings and the pleasurable effects of tobacco products, is contraindicated during pregnancy and breastfeeding due to its toxicity in studies. It is important for healthcare providers to discuss the available options with pregnant women and provide individualized recommendations for smoking cessation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a 4-day history of fever. She has no medical history, allergies, is developing normally and is up-to-date on her immunizations.
Vital signs:
- Respiratory rate: 18
- SpO2: 97%
- Heart rate: 95
- Cap. refill time: 2 sec
- BP: 112/80 mmHg
- AVPU: Alert
- Temperature: 39.2ºC
During the examination, a rough-textured maculopapular rash is found to be widespread. Her tongue is swollen, red, and covered with white papillae, and her tonsils are erythematosus. All other system examinations are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer: Scarlet fever
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of back pain uses paracetamol and ibuprofen regularly for pain relief. She and her partner are planning to have a baby, and would like to know about the safety of analgesics during pregnancy.
What is the best statement regarding the safety of analgesics in pregnancy?Your Answer: Naproxen can be used safely in pregnancy
Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate can be used at low doses if needed
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Painkillers in Pregnancy
Pregnancy can be a challenging time for women, especially when it comes to managing pain. While some painkillers are safe to use during pregnancy, others can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used painkillers and their safety in pregnancy.
Codeine phosphate: Low doses of codeine phosphate are generally safe to use during pregnancy. However, if taken closer to delivery, the neonate should be observed for signs of respiratory depression, drowsiness, or opioid withdrawal.
Naproxen: Naproxen belongs to the family of NSAIDs and is contraindicated in pregnancy. However, it is safe to use in the postpartum period and by women who are breastfeeding.
Ibuprofen: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs should be avoided during pregnancy as they are associated with teratogenic effects and other congenital problems.
Paracetamol: Paracetamol is the analgesic of choice in pregnancy and is safe to use within the recommended limits. However, patients should be cautioned against taking paracetamol and low-dose co-codamol concurrently.
Tramadol: Tramadol should be avoided in pregnancy as it has been shown to be embryotoxic in animal models.
In conclusion, it is important for pregnant women to consult with their healthcare provider before taking any painkillers to ensure the safety of both mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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