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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with abnormal liver function tests and symptoms of fatigue and itching for the past three months. She reports drinking 5 units of alcohol per week and denies any intravenous recreational drug use. She has no significant medical history and has a body mass index of 24 kg/m2. On examination, she has hepatomegaly but no jaundice. Ultrasound of the liver is normal. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum albumin of 38 g/L, serum alanine aminotransferase of 40 U/L, serum alkaline phosphatase of 286 U/L, and serum total bilirubin of 27 μmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis
Explanation:Primary Biliary Cirrhosis: A Breakdown of Immune Tolerance
Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is an autoimmune condition that affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the breakdown of immune tolerance to mitochondrial antigens, leading to T cell-mediated destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts. This process results in ductopenia, bile duct injury, and cholestasis, which eventually lead to liver injury and fibrosis, culminating in the development of cirrhosis.
Most patients with PBC are asymptomatic at diagnosis, but eventually develop symptoms such as itching and fatigue. Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs) are found in 95% of patients with PBC, making it a useful diagnostic marker.
While primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a possibility, it is more common in men and is usually accompanied by evidence of strictures or dilation on abdominal ultrasound scan. PSC also has a strong association with inflammatory bowel disease colitis. Alcoholic liver disease and autoimmune hepatitis are unlikely diagnoses in this case, as there is no history of excess alcohol consumption and the transaminitis (raised ALT and/or AST) commonly seen in autoimmune hepatitis is not present.
On the other hand, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is more likely to be seen in overweight or obese individuals with other metabolic risk factors such as diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidaemia. It is often incidentally detected through abnormal liver function tests in asymptomatic individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visited his doctor to determine his cardiac risk. He had a significant family history of ischaemic heart disease, and his fasting plasma low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol level was 9.9 mmol/l. He was prescribed simvastatin 40 mg to be taken at night. What is the mode of action of simvastatin?
Your Answer: Inhibits pancreatic lipase
Correct Answer: Decreases de novo cholesterol synthesis
Explanation:Modes of Action of Cholesterol-Lowering Agents
Cholesterol-lowering agents work through various mechanisms to reduce the levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, also known as bad cholesterol, in the blood. Here are some of the modes of action of these agents:
1. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors: These agents, also known as statins, inhibit the enzyme that is responsible for the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol. By reducing de novo cholesterol synthesis, statins decrease LDL cholesterol levels.
2. Bile acid sequestrants: These agents bind bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption and promoting excretion in the faeces. As a result, the liver synthesises more bile acids, which requires cholesterol oxidation. By indirectly decreasing LDL cholesterol levels through increased bile acid synthesis, bile acid sequestrants are effective in treating hyperlipidaemia.
3. HDL cholesterol increasers: Fibrates and niacin are agents that increase the levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, also known as good cholesterol. Fibrates activate PPAR-α, intracellular receptors that affect the transcription of genes involved in lipid metabolism. This results in an increase in HDL cholesterol, with a reduction in LDL cholesterol and triglycerides.
4. Pancreatic lipase inhibitors: Orlistat is a drug that inhibits the action of pancreatic lipase, an enzyme that breaks down and absorbs fat from the diet. By decreasing the absorption of fat, orlistat can help with weight loss.
Each of these modes of action has its own set of side-effects, which should be carefully considered before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for evaluation. He has a history of multiple fractures, delayed dental development, hearing impairment, and abnormal bone growth. The healthcare provider suspects osteogenesis imperfecta. What laboratory findings are expected in this case?
Your Answer: Raised adjusted calcium, raised PTH (parathyroid hormone), normal ALP (alkaline phosphatase) and low PO4 (phosphate)
Correct Answer: Normal adjusted calcium, normal PTH, normal ALP and normal PO4
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, typically presents with normal levels of adjusted calcium, PTH, ALP, and PO4. This group of disorders affects collagen metabolism, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures. The mildest and most common form is type 1, which is usually diagnosed in childhood and may present with blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with raised adjusted calcium and PTH levels, normal or raised ALP levels, and low PO4 levels. Hypoparathyroidism may present with low adjusted calcium and PTH levels, normal ALP levels, and raised PO4 levels. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may present with low adjusted calcium, high PTH levels, normal ALP levels, and variable PO4 levels. Malignant PTH-related protein, which can occur in certain cancers such as squamous cell lung cancer, may present with raised adjusted calcium, low PTH levels, raised ALP levels, and raised PO4 levels, with normal ALP levels also possible.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past few months. The man works as a graphic designer and denies any history of heavy lifting or back trauma. An MRI of the back is ordered, which reveals a mass compressing the lumbar vertebrae. The radiology report suggests that this could be a metastatic mass, and the patient is referred to the oncology service for further evaluation. Upon diagnosis, the man is found to have testicular seminoma. What are the typical lymph nodes that this type of cancer spreads to?
Your Answer: Inguinal
Correct Answer: Lateral aortic
Explanation:Lymphatic Drainage of the Testes: Understanding the Different Nodes Involved
The lymphatic drainage of the testes is an important aspect to consider in the diagnosis and treatment of testicular cancer. Here are the different nodes involved in the drainage process:
Lateral Aortic Nodes: The testes (and ovaries in women) drain to the lateral aortic nodes, also known as the para-aortic nodes. These nodes cannot be palpated but can be seen on a CT scan. Nodal metastasis is part of the grading of testicular cancer using the Royal Marsden staging system.
Inferior Mesenteric Nodes: These nodes drain structures of hindgut such as the colon, the last third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the splenic flexure, and the rectum. The testes do not drain to the inferior mesenteric nodes.
Inguinal Nodes: Located in the groin, these nodes receive lymphatic drainage from the lower limbs, the scrotum or vulva, the perineum, the buttock, the anus below the pectinate line, and the abdominal wall. The testes do not drain to the inguinal lymph nodes.
Internal Iliac Nodes: The common iliac nodes receive drainage from the external iliac nodes, which receive drainage from glans penis, glans clitoris, and the prostate among others. The testes do not drain to the common iliac nodes.
External Iliac Nodes: These nodes receive drainage from glans penis, glans clitoris, and the prostate among others. The testes do not drain to the common iliac nodes. The external iliac nodes eventually drain into the common iliac nodes.
Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the testes is crucial in determining the extent of cancer spread and in planning appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 5
Correct
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As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you to prescribe a medication to a 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. Upon reviewing her recent notes, you discover that she had been sent to the emergency department for suspected cardiac chest pain, which was later ruled out, and a musculoskeletal cause was diagnosed. During her hospitalization, she was given 300mg of aspirin, which caused a widespread flushing and a maculopapular rash, and aspirin was recorded as a drug adverse reaction on her medical records. Which of the following DMARDs should be prescribed with caution?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A pharmaceutical company is presently conducting Phase 1-2 trials for Scarozyme, a new drug intended for the treatment of Meniere's disease. The drug's clearance is being evaluated, with the renal system being the primary means of clearance. What factors must be measured to determine the drug's clearance at any given moment?
Your Answer: Glomerular filtration rate, urine flow rate, plasma concentration
Correct Answer: Plasma concentration, urine concentration, urine flow rate
Explanation:Drug Clearance
Drug clearance refers to the rate at which active drugs are removed from the circulation. This process involves both renal excretion and hepatic metabolism, but in practice, clearance is mostly measured by the renal excretion of a drug. The clearance of a drug can vary widely depending on factors such as the drug’s plasma concentration, structure, and distribution. The glomerular filtration rate can also affect drug clearance, but this is not the only determining factor.
The formula for clearance involves multiplying urine concentration and urine volume and dividing the result by plasma concentration. Clearance can follow either zero order kinetics or first order kinetics. In zero order kinetics, the clearance of the drug remains constant regardless of the plasma concentration. In contrast, first order kinetics means that the clearance of the drug is dependent on the plasma concentration. At high plasma concentrations, the drug is cleared more quickly, while at low concentrations, the drug is cleared more slowly. A graph of drug concentration over time following a single dose will show an exponential decay.
In normal physiological conditions, most drugs are cleared by first order kinetics. drug clearance is important in determining the appropriate dosages of drugs and in predicting their effects on the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 30+2 weeks pregnant, G3 P2+0, arrives at the maternity triage unit due to an episode of vaginal bleeding. Her previous deliveries were both elective Caesarean sections. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far and reports that the bleeding was about a tablespoon in amount without accompanying pain. What is the next step in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Digital vaginal exam
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan
Explanation:This individual is suspected to have placenta praevia, a significant cause of antepartum haemorrhage. Due to her history of multiple Caesarean sections, multiparity, and symptoms (minimal bleeding, no pain), it is more likely that she has a low-lying placenta. An ultrasound scan is necessary to accurately determine the location of the placenta, as previous scans may have missed or misinterpreted it. Placenta praevia can be diagnosed and graded through an ultrasound scan. It is important to avoid any internal examinations initially, as they may cause the placenta to bleed. According to the RCOG Green Top guidelines, digital vaginal examination should not be performed until an ultrasound has excluded placenta praevia if it is suspected. While some clinicians may consider a speculum examination to check for polyps/ectropion, this is not a diagnostic option for placenta praevia. A full blood count would not aid in the diagnosis, and any amount of blood loss during pregnancy should be investigated.
Management and Prognosis of Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. If a low-lying placenta is detected at the 20-week scan, a rescan is recommended at 32 weeks. There is no need to limit activity or intercourse unless there is bleeding. If the placenta is still present at 32 weeks and is grade I/II, then a scan every two weeks is recommended. A final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks is necessary to determine the method of delivery. For grades III/IV, an elective caesarean section is recommended between 37-38 weeks. However, if the placenta is grade I, a trial of vaginal delivery may be offered. If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour before the elective caesarean section, an emergency caesarean section should be performed due to the risk of post-partum haemorrhage.
In cases where placenta praevia is accompanied by bleeding, the woman should be admitted and an ABC approach should be taken to stabilise her. If stabilisation is not possible, an emergency caesarean section should be performed. If the woman is in labour or has reached term, an emergency caesarean section is also necessary.
The prognosis for placenta praevia has improved significantly, and death is now extremely rare. The major cause of death in women with placenta praevia is post-partum haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.
What medication should she avoid in the future?Your Answer: Cyclizine
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can help shorten the QTc interval and may be prescribed. On the other hand, there is no evidence to suggest that amoxicillin and cyclizine have any impact on the QTc interval.
Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.
Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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At what age do children typically begin to play alongside their peers without actively engaging with them?
Your Answer: 2 years
Explanation:The table summarizes developmental milestones for social behavior, feeding, dressing, and play. Milestones include smiling at 6 weeks, using a spoon and cup at 12-15 months, and playing with other children at 4 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old man, who has been a heavy drinker for many years, arrives at the Emergency Department with intense abdominal pain. During the abdominal examination, caput medusae is observed. Which vessels combine to form the obstructed blood vessel in this patient?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric and splenic veins
Explanation:Understanding the Hepatic Portal Vein and Caput Medusae
The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins. When this vein is obstructed, it can lead to caput medusae, a clinical sign characterized by dilated varicose veins that emanate from the umbilicus, resembling Medusa’s head. This condition is often seen in patients with cirrhotic livers, particularly those who are alcoholics.
While the inferior mesenteric vein can sometimes contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein, this is only true for about one-third of individuals. The left gastric vein, on the other hand, does not play a role in the formation of the hepatic portal vein.
It’s important to note that the right and left common iliac arteries are not involved in this condition. Additionally, neither the inferior mesenteric artery nor the paraumbilical veins contribute to the formation of the hepatic portal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and physiology of the hepatic portal vein and caput medusae can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of patients with liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male presents with acute abdominal pain that has worsened over the past two hours. The pain originates in the epigastric region and radiates to the left side of his back, with colicky characteristics. He has vomited three to four times, with the vomit being greenish in color.
Upon examination, his temperature is 37.5°C, pulse is 100 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 114/80 mmHg. He has guarding of the abdomen and marked tenderness in the epigastrium. Bowel sounds are infrequent but audible.
Lab results show a neutrophilic leukocytosis, elevated glucose and urea levels, and an elevated creatinine level. Urinalysis reveals an elevated amylase level. Abdominal x-ray shows no abnormalities.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition characterized by sudden and severe abdominal pain that radiates through to the back. It is caused by inflammation and swelling of the pancreas, which leads to the loss of enzymes into the circulation and retroperitoneally. This can result in hyperglycemia, hypocalcemia, and dehydration, which are common features of the condition.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, a serum amylase test is usually performed. A result above 1000 mU/L is considered diagnostic. Other investigations may reveal dehydration, an elevated glucose concentration, a mild metabolic acidosis, and heavy amounts of amylase in the urine.
Treatment for acute pancreatitis involves resuscitation with IV fluids, management of hyperglycemia with sliding scale insulin, nasogastric suction, antibiotics, and analgesia. It is important to manage the condition promptly to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is characterized by inflammation and swelling of the pancreas, which can lead to hyperglycemia, hypocalcemia, and dehydration. Treatment involves resuscitation with IV fluids, management of hyperglycemia, and other supportive measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has visited her doctor to discuss her plans of getting pregnant. She is seeking guidance on basic lifestyle modifications and medications she should be taking. The doctor advises her to take a high dose (5 mg) of folic acid. What is the rationale behind taking high dose folic acid?
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Correct Answer: BMI >30
Explanation:High dose 5mg folic acid should be prescribed to pregnant women with obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2) to reduce the risk of neural tube defects (NTD). Other factors that may require high dose folic acid include a history of NTD in a previous pregnancy or family history of NTD, as well as conditions such as antiepileptic drug use, coeliac disease, diabetes, and thalassaemia trait.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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As an Emergency department doctor, a 50-year-old man presents with intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. He reports that the pain began yesterday. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the following results were obtained:
- Haemoglobin +++
- Urobilinogen Negative
- Bilirubin Negative
- Protein Negative
- Glucose Negative
- Nitrites Negative
- Leucocytes Negative
- Ketones +
What could be the possible cause of these findings?Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome
Correct Answer: Renal calculus
Explanation:Renal Calculi: Causes and Symptoms
Renal calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can be caused by various factors such as reduced urine output, changes in medication, and diet. These factors can lead to the formation of stones in the urinary tract, which can cause inflammation and damage to the lining of the urinary tract. Patients with renal calculi may experience symptoms such as blood in their urine due to the damage caused by the stones. Additionally, ketones may be present in the urine, indicating reduced oral intake due to severe pain.
In summary, renal calculi can be caused by various factors and can lead to symptoms such as blood in the urine and reduced oral intake. It is important for patients to seek medical attention if they suspect they may have renal calculi to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of malaise, fever, and rigours. Upon CT scan, it is revealed that he has fulminant pancolitis and an emergency subtotal colectomy with stoma formation is necessary. What type of stoma will he have post-surgery?
Your Answer: Spouted from the skin, double opening in the right iliac fossa
Correct Answer: Spouted from the skin, single opening in the right iliac fossa
Explanation:An ileostomy is a stoma formed from the small bowel, specifically the terminal ileum, and is typically located in the right iliac fossa. It is spouted from the skin to prevent alkaline bowel contents from causing skin irritation when attaching and removing stoma bags. The output of an end ileostomy is liquid and it has a single opening that is spouted from the skin.
A colostomy, on the other hand, is usually flush with the skin and has a more solid output. It is typically located in the left iliac fossa, except for defunctioning loop transverse colostomies which are located in the epigastrium. An end colostomy is a single opening, flush stoma in the left iliac fossa, while a loop ileostomy is a spouted stoma with a double opening in the right iliac fossa.
It is rare to find an end ileostomy in the left iliac fossa, especially after a subtotal colectomy. The only reason a left-sided ileostomy would be fashioned is if there was an anatomical reason it could not be brought out on the right, such as adhesions or right-sided sepsis. A subtotal colectomy involves resecting most of the large bowel, except the rectum, and forming an end ileostomy. In contrast, a Hartmann’s procedure for sigmoid perforation secondary to diverticulitis or a tumor involves forming an end colostomy in the left iliac fossa.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old retired teacher presents with acute-onset confusion. The patient lives alone and is usually in good health. She has had no issues with her memory before, but over the past three days, her neighbor has noticed that the patient has become increasingly confused; this morning she did not recognize her own home. When taking the history from the neighbor, she mentions that the patient had been experiencing urinary symptoms over the past week. A dipstick of the patient’s urine is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites. A tentative diagnosis of delirium secondary to a urinary tract infection (UTI) is made, and empirical treatment for UTI is initiated.
Which of the following tests is typically abnormal during delirium, regardless of the cause?Your Answer: Serum glucose
Correct Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Delirium: Understanding Their Role in Evaluation
Delirium is a state of acute brain impairment that can be caused by various factors. The diagnosis of delirium is based on clinical features, such as acute onset, fluctuating course, disorientation, perceptual disturbances, and decreased attention. However, diagnostic tests may be necessary to identify the underlying cause of delirium and guide appropriate treatment. Here are some common diagnostic tests used in the evaluation of delirium:
Electroencephalogram (EEG): EEG can show diffuse slowing in delirious individuals, regardless of the cause of delirium. A specific pattern called K complexes may occur in delirium due to hepatic encephalopathy.
Lumbar puncture: This test may be used to diagnose meningitis, which can present with delirium. However, it may not be abnormal in many cases of delirium.
Serum glucose: Hyper- or hypoglycemia can cause delirium, but serum glucose may not be universally abnormal in all cases of delirium.
Computed tomography (CT) of the head: CT may be used to evaluate delirium, but it may be normal in certain cases, such as profound sepsis causing delirium.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): ECG is unlikely to be abnormal in delirium, regardless of the cause.
While diagnostic tests can be helpful in the evaluation of delirium, the cornerstone of treatment is addressing the underlying cause. Patients with delirium need close monitoring to prevent harm to themselves. Manipulating the environment, using medications to reduce agitation and sedate patients, and providing reassurance and familiar contact can also be helpful in managing delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient complains of worsening breathlessness and weight loss over the past two months. During examination, scattered wheezing, coughing, and fever are observed. A chest x-ray reveals pneumonic shadowing, and there are several tender subcutaneous nodules and a purpuric rash. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation:Churg-Strauss Syndrome: A Granulomatous Vasculitis
Churg-Strauss syndrome is a type of granulomatous vasculitis that is more commonly seen in males. The classic presentation of this syndrome includes asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis. The condition is characterized by pulmonary eosinophilic infiltration, with the lungs, peripheral veins, and skin being the most commonly affected areas. Chest x-rays typically show transient patchy pneumonic shadows, while the skin may exhibit tender subcutaneous nodules and purpuric lesions. In addition, perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA) is usually positive.
While sarcoidosis may present with similar symptoms, wheezing is not typically seen, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is the typical x-ray feature. On the other hand, granulomatosis with polyangiitis may also be a possibility, but ENT symptoms are expected, and wheezing is not typical. Overall, Churg-Strauss syndrome should be considered in patients presenting with asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis, along with the characteristic pulmonary and skin manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Koplik's spots?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diagnostic of measles
Explanation:Koplik’s Spots: A Diagnostic Sign of Measles
Koplik’s spots are a distinctive sign of measles, characterized by small, irregular, bright red spots with blue-white centers. These spots are typically found on the inside of the cheek next to the premolars and are only seen in cases of measles, making them a diagnostic indicator of the disease.
Koplik’s spots usually appear briefly after the onset of fever and a few days before the generalized rash associated with measles appears. In some cases, the spots may disappear as the rash develops. These spots typically start to appear around two days after initial infection.
Overall, the presence of Koplik’s spots is an important diagnostic sign of measles and can help healthcare professionals identify and treat the disease more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the absolute risk reduction of stroke in elderly subjects treated with aspirin compared to those not treated, and how many elderly subjects would need to be treated with aspirin to prevent one stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50
Explanation:Number Needed to Treat
Number needed to treat (NNT) is a statistical measure used in medical research to estimate the number of patients who need to receive a particular treatment in order to prevent a specific outcome. In simpler terms, it is a way of determining the effectiveness of a treatment by calculating how many patients need to be treated to prevent one negative event from occurring. For example, if two out of every 100 patients who take aspirin are prevented from having a stroke, the NNT would be 50, meaning that 50 patients would need to be treated with aspirin to prevent one stroke.
NNT is an important tool for healthcare professionals as it helps them to make informed decisions about which treatments are most effective for their patients. By the NNT for a particular treatment, doctors can weigh the potential benefits against the risks and side effects of the treatment, and make a more informed decision about whether or not to prescribe it. Overall, NNT is a valuable measure that helps to ensure that patients receive the most effective treatments possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman fell down stairs and arrived at the Emergency Department with a painful left hip and difficulty walking. Imaging revealed a fracture of the left femoral head and a compression fracture of the T10 vertebra. She had no significant medical history prior to this incident.
What is the most probable underlying condition in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:Understanding Osteoporosis: A Disease of Reduced Bone Mass
Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by reduced bone mass, leading to increased porosity of the skeleton and a higher risk of fractures. This patient is likely suffering from osteoporosis with accelerated bone loss, which can be exacerbated by physical inactivity and decreased muscle mass. While osteoporosis can be localized to a specific bone or region, it can also affect the entire skeleton as a manifestation of a metabolic bone disease. The most common forms of osteoporosis are senile and postmenopausal osteoporosis, which are characterized by critical loss of bone mass that makes the skeleton vulnerable to fractures.
Other conditions, such as osteogenesis imperfecta, acute osteomyelitis, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, and metastatic breast carcinoma, can also affect bone health but present differently and have different underlying causes. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of osteoporosis to prevent and manage this disease effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with schizophrenia has been under the care of mental health services for a few years with a fluctuating pattern of illness. Her consultant, in collaboration with the patient’s Community Psychiatric Nurse (CPN), decides to initiate clozapine treatment. As a component of the prescription, she is registered into the Clozapine Monitoring Service scheme.
What is the primary rationale for her registration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To monitor the white cell count
Explanation:The Importance of Monitoring White Cell Count in Patients on Clozapine Therapy
Schizophrenia is commonly treated with anti-psychotic medications, including typical and atypical agents. Clozapine, an atypical anti-psychotic, is often prescribed for patients who do not respond to other medications. While effective, clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a lowered white blood cell count that increases the risk of infection. To mitigate this risk, patients on clozapine therapy must be enrolled in a monitoring program that includes regular blood tests to check their white cell count. This monitoring is crucial for patient safety and should be a top priority for healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A worried mother brings her 12-year-old daughter to a paediatric gynaecologist. Her daughter is significantly shorter than her peers, has not yet started puberty, and is deaf in both ears. During the examination, the clinician observes neck webbing, a high arched palate, and low-set ears. Based on these findings, the clinician suspects that the child may have Turner syndrome.
What is the most appropriate chromosomal abnormality that characterizes Turner syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 45,X
Explanation:Understanding Sex Chromosome Abnormalities: Turner Syndrome, Triple X Syndrome, and Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Sex chromosome abnormalities can have significant impacts on an individual’s physical and developmental characteristics. Here, we will discuss three such abnormalities: Turner syndrome, triple X syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Turner syndrome, or monosomy X, occurs when an individual is missing an X chromosome. This condition affects approximately 1 in 2000 live female births and can result in lymphoedema, hypoplastic nails, heart murmurs, and a high risk of congenital hip dislocation. Individuals with Turner syndrome also experience short stature and do not experience the pubertal growth spurt. They may have absent breast development, primary or secondary amenorrhoea, and infertility due to ovarian failure. Treatment involves hormone replacement and growth hormone to increase growth rate.
Triple X syndrome, or trisomy X, occurs when an individual has an extra X chromosome. This condition is not usually inherited and does not have physical features associated with it. Females with triple X syndrome tend to be taller than peers with a normal female karyotype and have normal pubertal development and fertility. However, they may experience learning difficulties and delayed development of speech and motor skills.
Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs when an individual has an extra X chromosome, resulting in a male patient with a tall stature and sparse pubic/axillary and facial hair. They have a delayed puberty and hypogonadism, and are infertile. Patients with Klinefelter’s are also at an increased risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus, breast cancer, and extragonadal germ cell tumours. Treatment involves androgen supplementation and may require behavioural therapy as well.
Understanding these sex chromosome abnormalities can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate treatment for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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John is a 28-year-old man who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw him 1 month ago for low mood and referred him for counselling. He states he is still feeling low and his feelings of anxiety are worsening. He is keen to try medication to help.
John has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for John to commence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Breastfeeding women can safely take sertraline or paroxetine as their preferred SSRIs. These medications are known to have minimal to low levels of exposure to infants through breast milk, and are not considered harmful to them. Therefore, if a mother is diagnosed with postnatal depression and requires antidepressant treatment, she should not be advised to stop breastfeeding.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform a routine check on a 6-month-old infant. You're part of the paediatric team and haven't had any access to the previous medical records.
On examination, the infant appears healthy with appropriate weight for age and has a strong cry. There are no signs of respiratory distress and no abnormal heart sounds on auscultation. However, you notice a cleft palate. What is the most likely association with this finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal anti-epileptic use in pregnancy
Explanation:The use of anti-epileptic medication by expectant mothers can lead to the development of orofacial clefts in their babies. Orofacial clefts are a common birth defect that can be caused by various factors, including smoking, benzodiazepine use, anti-epileptic medication, and rubella infection during pregnancy. Treatment for orofacial clefts requires a team of specialists, including plastic and orthodontic surgeons, paediatricians, and speech therapists. It is important to note that congenital heart disease does not increase the risk of orofacial clefts.
Understanding Cleft Lip and Palate
Cleft lip and palate are common congenital deformities that affect approximately 1 in every 1,000 babies. These conditions can occur as isolated developmental malformations or as a component of over 200 birth defects. The most common variants of cleft lip and palate are isolated cleft lip, isolated cleft palate, and combined cleft lip and palate.
The pathophysiology of cleft lip and palate involves polygenic inheritance and an increased risk for babies whose mothers use antiepileptic medication. Cleft lip occurs when the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes fail to fuse, while cleft palate results from the failure of the palatine processes and nasal septum to fuse.
Children with cleft lip and palate may experience problems with feeding and speech. Orthodontic devices can be helpful for feeding, while speech therapy can help 75% of children develop normal speech. Babies with cleft palate are at an increased risk of developing otitis media.
Management of cleft lip and palate involves repairing the cleft lip earlier than the cleft palate. The timing of repair varies, with some practices repairing the cleft lip in the first week of life and others waiting up to three months. Cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy comes to you with a history of easy bleeding and bruising, even with minor injuries. His parents are healthy, but his mother reports that her brother also has a bleeding disorder and suspects that other male relatives may be affected. Based on this information, what is the most probable mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-linked recessive
Explanation:Inherited Genetic Disorders: Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance is a type of genetic inheritance that affects significantly more males than females. This type of inheritance is commonly associated with bleeding disorders such as haemophilia A and B, which are caused by deficiencies in clotting factors VIII and IX respectively. In X-linked recessive inheritance, female carriers are unaffected, but all male offspring that inherit the mutated allele on the X chromosome will be affected.
A family history of the disease can help identify the mode of inheritance. For example, if a mother is a carrier and her brother has the disease, it is likely that their grandmother was also a carrier. The mother and her brother both inherited the abnormal X chromosome, but the mother is a carrier while the uncle is affected. Similarly, if a male inherits the abnormal X chromosome from his mother, he will be affected by the disease.
Other types of genetic inheritance include Y-linked, autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and X-linked dominant. Examples of Y-linked inherited conditions include male infertility, retinitis pigmentosa, and hypertrichosis pinnae. Autosomal dominant conditions include Marfan syndrome, achondroplasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta. Autosomal recessive conditions include CF, Wilson’s disease, and haemochromatosis. Examples of X-linked dominant conditions include Rett syndrome, fragile X syndrome, and vitamin D-resistant rickets.
Understanding the mode of inheritance can help individuals and families make informed decisions about genetic testing and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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How does the combination of gentamicin and benzylpenicillin work together to treat infective endocarditis caused by Streptococcus viridans?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis (translation)
Explanation:Synergistic Action of Gentamicin and Benzylpenicillin
Gentamicin and benzylpenicillin work together to effectively combat bacterial infections. Benzylpenicillin is a bactericidal agent that prevents the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, which allows gentamicin to enter the bacterial cell. Gentamicin then acts on the ribosome, inhibiting protein synthesis and ultimately killing the bacteria. This synergistic action of the two drugs is a powerful tool in the fight against bacterial infections. The combination of these drugs is often used in clinical settings to treat a variety of bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 1-day-old child is found to have absent femoral pulses and a systolic ejection murmur over the left side of their chest and back upon their routine examination. Their brachial pulses are strong. They appear pale and are tachypnoeic. They have not managed to eat much solid food, as they become distressed.
Which of the following statements about their condition is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May be treated by balloon angioplasty with or without stenting
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that causes narrowing of the aorta, most commonly at the site of insertion of the ductus arteriosus. Diagnosis can be made antenatally or after birth upon newborn examination. Treatment options include surgical repair or balloon angioplasty and/or stenting. If diagnosed antenatally, prostaglandin is given to encourage the ductus arteriosus to remain patent until repair is performed. Less severe cases can present in older children with symptoms such as leg pain, tiredness, dizzy spells, or an incidental finding of a murmur. Following repair, there are rarely any long-term complications, but re-coarctation can occur. Balloon angioplasty, with or without stenting, can be used in some circumstances, rather than surgical reconstruction. It is important to monitor for hypertension and/or premature cardiovascular or cerebrovascular disease in adults with a previous history of coarctation of the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of a discharge from his urethra. Upon laboratory examination of the discharge, it is found to contain numerous neutrophils, some of which contain Gram-negative intracellular diplococci. The patient is administered ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscularly, which initially resolves the symptoms. However, the patient returns five days later with the same complaint. What is the most probable cause of this discharge?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted disease that often has no symptoms, especially in women. It can lead to infertility and presents with discharge, dysurea, and itching in men. Azithromycin is the preferred treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which bone fracture is most effectively diagnosed using an oblique radiological view?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scaphoid
Explanation:Scaphoid Injuries and Diagnosis
The scaphoid is the carpal bone that is most commonly injured in the wrist, with only distal radius fractures being more frequent. These injuries are often misdiagnosed as sprained wrists, and they are most commonly seen in young men. To diagnose a scaphoid injury, routine radiographs are taken, including anteroposterior, lateral, and oblique views. The AP view is done with a mildly clenched fist and the wrist in ulnar deviation, while the lateral view is done with the wrist in a neutral position.
When the scaphoid is injured, the lateral view will show a disruption of the alignment of the distal radius, lunate, and capitate bones, which should be collinear. If radiographs are negative despite clinical suspicion of a scaphoid fracture, the patient’s wrist is immobilized and radiographs are repeated in two weeks. If plain films continue to be negative but clinical suspicion remains, further imaging should be pursued.
Bone scan and computed tomography have been used with about equal accuracy to detect occult fractures, while polytomography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can also be used, although they are more expensive. MRI can demonstrate much more anatomy and, because of increasing affordability, may soon become the standard for visualizing occult fractures and ligament disruptions. Overall, early and accurate diagnosis of scaphoid injuries is crucial for proper treatment and prevention of long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Radiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A newborn is delivered via elective Caesarean section at 37 weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension. At two hours of age, the male infant is exhibiting mild intercostal recession and grunting. Oxygen saturations are 95-96% on room air. What is the probable reason for the respiratory distress?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), attends his regular clinic appointment. He has missed an earlier appointment and is poorly compliant with his antiretroviral therapy, which he puts down to his busy work schedule. He has recently noticed blotches on his nose. His partner reports that the patient also has similar lesions on his back.
On examination, you note several red-purple papules across the patient’s back and face.
Which of the following viruses may have caused these lesions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus 8
Explanation:The patient has Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is caused by human herpesvirus 8. This condition can be the first presentation of AIDS in some HIV patients and is more common in males and men who have sex with men. The skin lesions appear as red-purple papules or plaques and can also be found on mucous membranes. Kaposi’s sarcoma mainly affects the skin, but it can also affect the lungs and gastrointestinal tract. Symptoms of pulmonary Kaposi’s sarcoma include cough, shortness of breath, and haemoptysis, while gastrointestinal involvement can cause intestinal obstruction.
CMV infection can occur as reactivation or primary infection, usually in those with low CD4+ counts. In the immunocompromised, it can present with chorioretinitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis, or gastrointestinal disease. HPV is a common virus that causes genital warts, verrucas, and warts on the lips/oral mucosa. It is also a major risk factor for cervical and anal cancers. In immunosuppressed patients, the severity of HPV symptoms and risk of cancer are increased. HSV 1 and 2 are common viruses that can cause oral and genital herpes. In immunosuppression, these viruses may reactivate more frequently and cause more severe symptoms. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that can cause opportunistic infections in AIDS, mostly causing fungal pneumonia and subacute meningitis, but it does not typically cause skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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