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  • Question 1 - A middle-aged student is performing a dissection of the intracranial contents. She removes...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged student is performing a dissection of the intracranial contents. She removes the cranial cap and meninges, mobilises the brain and cuts the spinal cord just below the foramen magnum to remove the brain from the cranial cavity. On inspection of the brainstem, she notes that there are a number of nerves emerging from the brainstem.
      Which of the following is true of the emergence of the cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: The hypoglossal nerve emerges behind the olivary nucleus of the medulla

      Correct Answer: The trigeminal nerve emerges from the pons close to its junction with the middle cerebellar peduncle

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Emergence Points in the Brainstem

      The brainstem is a crucial part of the central nervous system that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It is responsible for controlling many vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. The brainstem also serves as the origin for many of the cranial nerves, which are responsible for controlling various sensory and motor functions of the head and neck. Here are the emergence points of some of the cranial nerves in the brainstem:

      – Trigeminal nerve (V): Emerges from the lateral aspect of the pons, close to its junction with the middle cerebellar peduncle.
      – Abducens nerve (VI): Emerges anteriorly at the junction of the pons and the medulla.
      – Trochlear nerve (IV): Emerges from the dorsal aspect of the midbrain, between the crura cerebri. It has the longest intracranial course of any cranial nerve.
      – Hypoglossal nerve (XII): Emerges from the brainstem lateral to the pyramids of the medulla, anteromedial to the olive.
      – Vagus nerve (X): Rootlets emerge posterior to the olive, between the pyramid and the olive of the medulla.

      Knowing the emergence points of these cranial nerves is important for understanding their functions and for diagnosing any potential issues or disorders that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.7
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  • Question 2 - What is the definition of Nissl bodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of Nissl bodies?

      Your Answer: The neurone's Golgi apparatus

      Correct Answer: Granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      Nissl Bodies: Stacks of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

      Nissl bodies are named after the German neurologist Franz Nissl and are found in neurones following a selective staining method known as Nissl staining. These bodies are composed of stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum and are a major site of neurotransmitter synthesis, particularly acetylcholine, in the neurone. Therefore, the correct answer is that Nissl bodies are granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is important to note that the other answer options are incorrect as they refer to entirely different organelles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.3
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  • Question 3 - What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent...

    Correct

    • What is the best preventative treatment for a 33-year-old woman who experiences frequent migraine episodes?

      Your Answer: Beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Agents for Migraine Treatment

      Migraine is a neurological condition that causes severe headaches, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. While Sumatriptan is an effective treatment for acute migraine attacks, it does not prevent them from occurring. Therefore, prophylactic agents are used to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of migraine attacks.

      First-line prophylactic agents include beta-blockers without partial agonism and Topiramate. Beta-blockers are used if there are no contraindications, while Topiramate is a medication that is specifically approved for migraine prevention. Second-line prophylactic agents include Sodium valproate and Amitriptyline, which is used when migraine coexists with tension-type headache, disturbed sleep, or depression. Clinical experience in migraine treatment is currently greater with valproate.

      Third-line prophylactic agents include Gabapentin, Methysergide, Pizotifen, and Verapamil. These medications are used when first and second-line treatments have failed or are not tolerated. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that has been shown to be effective in reducing the frequency of migraine attacks. Methysergide is a serotonin receptor antagonist that is used for chronic migraine prevention. Pizotifen is a serotonin antagonist that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for the prevention of migraine attacks.

      In conclusion, prophylactic agents are an important part of migraine treatment. The choice of medication depends on the patient’s medical history, the severity and frequency of migraine attacks, and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective prophylactic agent for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      62.3
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  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant past medical history or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe analgesia

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.

      In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.

      The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.

      Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?

      Your Answer: Huntingtin

      Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)

      Explanation:

      Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.9
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  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He also experienced neck stiffness and had a temperature of 38°C. What distinguishing feature would indicate a diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage instead of bacterial meningitis?

      Your Answer: A family history of polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Comparing Risk Factors and Symptoms of Meningitis, SAH, and Cerebral Aneurysms

      Fluctuating levels of consciousness are common symptoms of both meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). While hypertension is a known risk factor for SAH, diabetes does not increase the risk. On the other hand, opiate abuse is not associated with an increased risk of SAH. Cerebral aneurysms, which are a type of SAH, are often linked to polycystic kidney disease. It is important to understand the different risk factors and symptoms associated with these conditions to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. By recognizing these factors, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.2
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  • Question 7 - A 92-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Outpatients with worsening speech difficulties and...

    Incorrect

    • A 92-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Outpatients with worsening speech difficulties and difficulty swallowing. Upon examination, she exhibits nasal speech, tongue fasciculations, and a lack of gag reflex. The diagnosis given is bulbar palsy. Where is the lesion responsible for this condition typically located?

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerves IX, X, XI and XII

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Bulbar Palsy: A Guide to Cranial Nerves and Brain Lesions

      Bulbar palsy is a condition that results from lower motor neuron lesions in the medulla oblongata or lesions of cranial nerves IX – XII outside the brainstem. To better understand the causes of bulbar palsy, it is important to know the functions of these cranial nerves.

      Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII are responsible for various functions. The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) provides taste to the posterior third of the tongue and somatic sensation to the middle ear, the posterior third of the tongue, the tonsils, and the pharynx. The vagus nerve (X) innervates muscles of the larynx and palate. The accessory nerve (XI) controls the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, while the hypoglossal nerve (XII) controls the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue.

      It is important to note that lesions of cranial nerves V (trigeminal) and VII (facial) are not responsible for the signs and symptoms of bulbar palsy. A lesion of the facial nerve would cause Bell’s palsy, while lesions of the trigeminal nerve can cause lateral medullary syndrome.

      A cerebral cortex lesion would cause upper motor neuron signs and symptoms, which are not specific to bulbar palsy. On the other hand, a lesion in the corticobulbar pathways between the cerebral cortex and the brainstem is found in pseudobulbar palsy. This condition typically presents with upper motor neuron signs and symptoms and can occur as a result of demyelination or bilateral corticobulbar lesions.

      Lastly, it is important to note that disorders of the substantia nigra are found in Parkinson’s disease, not bulbar palsy. Understanding the various causes of bulbar palsy can help with proper diagnosis and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      174.8
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that has worsened in the last 6 hours. She has vomited twice and recently had a sore throat. Her general practitioner has been treating her with a topical anti-fungal cream for vaginal thrush. On examination, she is photophobic and has moderate neck stiffness. The Glasgow Coma Score is 15/15, and she has no focal neurological signs. Her temperature is 38.5 °C. A computed tomography (CT) brain scan is reported as ‘Normal intracranial appearances’. A lumbar puncture is performed and CSF results are as follows: CSF protein 0.6 g/l (<0.45), cell count 98 white cells/mm3, mainly lymphocytes (<5), CSF glucose 2.8 mmol/l (2.5 – 4.4 mmol/l), and blood glucose 4.3 mmol/l (3-6 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fungal meningitis

      Correct Answer: Acute viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Acute Viral Meningitis from Other Neurological Disorders

      Acute viral meningitis is characterized by mild elevation of protein, a mainly lymphocytic cellular reaction, and a CSF: blood glucose ratio of >50%. In contrast, bacterial meningitis presents with a polymorph leukocytosis, lower relative glucose level, and more severe signs of meningism. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents subacutely with very high CSF protein and very low CSF glucose. Fungal meningitis is rare and mainly occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Guillain–Barré syndrome, an autoimmune peripheral nerve disorder causing ascending paralysis, is often triggered by a recent viral illness but presents with focal neurological signs, which are absent in viral meningitis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep cut on the side of his head and a witness tells the paramedics what happened. He opens his eyes when prompted by the nurses. He attempts to answer questions, but his speech is slurred and unintelligible. The patient pulls away from a trapezius pinch.
      What is the appropriate Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?

      Your Answer: E3V2M4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness following a head injury. It measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and assigns a total score. A fully conscious patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15 (a score of 0 is not possible).

      The GCS is calculated as follows: for eyes, a score of 4 is given if they open spontaneously, 3 if they open to speech, 2 if they open to pain, and 1 if they do not open. For verbal response, a score of 5 is given if the patient is oriented, 4 if they are confused, 3 if they use inappropriate words, 2 if they make inappropriate sounds, and 1 if there is no verbal response. For motor response, a score of 6 is given if the patient obeys commands, 5 if they localize pain, 4 if they withdraw from pain, 3 if they exhibit abnormal flexion, 2 if they exhibit abnormal extension, and 1 if there is no response.

      If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. It is important to use the GCS to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state and provide a common language between clinicians when discussing a patient with a head injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.4
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  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor finds evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-recessive fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.1
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  • Question 11 - A 24-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a hand injury sustained...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a hand injury sustained during a bar brawl. He has a wound with glass fragments embedded in it. On examination, he is unable to make a fist, and there is no sensation in his thumb, index, and middle fingers. There are no other neurological deficits in his arms or other limbs.
      Which nerve is the most likely culprit in this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Overview of Major Nerves in the Arm and Their Functions

      The arm is innervated by several major nerves, each with its own specific functions. The median nerve supplies the flexors of the forearm and provides cutaneous sensation to the palmar surface of the lateral three fingers. The ulnar nerve provides sensory innervation to the fifth and medial half of the fourth digit and corresponding palm, and motor innervation to several muscles. The radial nerve supplies sensory innervation to the posterior lateral regions of the arm and forearm, as well as over the lateral dorsal surface of the hand up to the fingers. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the biceps and flexor muscles of the elbow, while the axillary nerve supplies the deltoid, teres minor, and long head of the triceps brachii. Injuries to these nerves can result in various symptoms, including weakness and loss of sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.1
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  • Question 12 - A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing ‘tingling’ in his wrists and hands at night, with the right side being more affected than the left. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the thenar eminence of his right hand. He displays slight weakness in thumb opposition and reduced sensation to light touch on the palmar surface of his right hand on the lateral three digits and the lateral half of the fourth digit. Reproduction of his symptoms occurs when you tap immediately distal to the wrist joint of his right hand for about 30 s.
      Which nerve is implicated in this man’s condition?

      Your Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in the Upper Limb

      Nerve injuries in the upper limb can cause a range of symptoms, including pain, weakness, and sensory loss. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:

      1. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (Median Nerve): Compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel can cause pain and loss of sensation in the lateral three-and-a-half digits. Symptoms are often worse at night and are more common in people who use their hands repetitively throughout the day.

      2. Radial Neuropathy (Radial Nerve): Compression of the radial nerve at the spiral groove of the humerus can cause weakness of wrist and finger extension, as well as elbow flexion. There may also be sensory loss on the dorsum of the hand.

      3. Ulnar Neuropathy (Ulnar Nerve): The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the fifth digit and the medial aspect of the fourth digit, as well as the interosseous muscles of the hand. It is the second most commonly affected nerve in the upper limb after the median nerve.

      4. Musculocutaneous Nerve: Weakness of elbow flexion and sensory loss over the lateral forearm can occur with musculocutaneous nerve palsy.

      5. Long Thoracic Nerve: Injury to the long thoracic nerve affects the serratus anterior muscle, causing a winged scapula. This nerve is purely motor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What do muscarinic receptors refer to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What do muscarinic receptors refer to?

      Your Answer: Histamine receptors

      Correct Answer: Cholinergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Muscarinic Receptors: A Subclass of Cholinergic Receptors

      Muscarinic receptors are a type of cholinergic receptors that are responsible for a variety of functions in the body. They are divided into five subclasses based on their location, namely M1-5. M1, M4, and M5 are found in the central nervous system and are involved in complex functions such as memory, analgesia, and arousal. M2 is located on cardiac muscle and helps reduce conduction velocity at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes, thereby lowering heart rate. M3, on the other hand, is found on smooth muscle, including bronchial tissue, bladder, and exocrine glands, and is responsible for a variety of responses.

      It is important to note that muscarinic receptors are a subclass of cholinergic receptors, with the other subclass being nicotinic receptors. Adrenergic receptors, on the other hand, bind to adrenaline, while dopaminergic receptors bind to dopamine. Glutamatergic receptors bind to glutamate, and histamine receptors bind to histamine. the different types of receptors and their functions is crucial in the development of drugs and treatments for various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.8
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and difficulty moving...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and difficulty moving around. During the examination, it is observed that he has a slow gait with reduced arm movement and a tremor in his right arm. What is the usual frequency of the resting tremor in Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: 2 Hz

      Correct Answer: 4 Hz

      Explanation:

      the Tremor of Parkinson’s Disease

      The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is a type of rest tremor that typically has a frequency of 3 to 6 HZ. It usually starts on one side of the body and becomes more severe as the disease progresses. Eventually, the tremor becomes bilateral, affecting both sides of the body.

      While the tremor is initially a rest tremor, it may develop into an action tremor over time. Additionally, the severity of the tremor may increase with the use of levodopa. the characteristics of the tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is important for both patients and healthcare providers in managing the symptoms of the disease. By recognizing the progression of the tremor, appropriate treatment options can be explored to improve quality of life for those living with Parkinson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.1
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  • Question 15 - A 60-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife due...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife due to sudden onset of incoherent speech. Upon physical examination, he exhibits right-sided weakness in the upper and lower extremities, a right facial droop, and a loss of sensation in the upper and lower extremities. An initial CT scan of the head reveals no acute changes, and treatment with tissue plasminogen activator is initiated. Which arterial territory is most likely affected by this neurological event?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery

      Correct Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Cerebral Arteries and Their Effects on the Brain

      The brain is supplied with blood by several arteries, each with its own specific distribution and function. The middle cerebral artery (MCA) is the largest and most commonly affected by stroke. It supplies the outer surface of the brain, including the parietal lobe and basal ganglia. Infarctions in this area can result in paralysis and sensory loss on the opposite side of the body, as well as aphasia or hemineglect.

      The posterior cerebral artery supplies the thalamus and inferior temporal gyrus, and infarctions here can cause contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing. The anterior cerebral artery supplies the front part of the corpus callosum and superior frontal gyrus, and infarctions can result in paralysis and sensory loss of the lower limb.

      The posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) supplies the posterior inferior cerebellum, inferior cerebellar vermis, and lateral medulla. Occlusion of the PICA can cause vertigo, nausea, and truncal ataxia. Finally, the basilar artery supplies the brainstem and thalamus, and acute occlusion can result in sudden and severe neurological impairment.

      Understanding the specific functions and distributions of these cerebral arteries can help in diagnosing and treating stroke and other cerebrovascular accidents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.8
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  • Question 16 - A middle-aged woman reports to her general practitioner that she has noticed recent...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman reports to her general practitioner that she has noticed recent changes in her strength and endurance. Although she was active in her youth, she now reports weakness in her arms following formerly simple tasks. She no longer goes on long walks because of difficulty catching her breath on exertion. Her eyelids are droopy and she experiences difficulty holding her head upright.
      What is the most likely disease?

      Your Answer: Nemaline myopathy

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Muscle Disorders: Types and Characteristics

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness. It is more common in females and typically appears in early adulthood. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors can provide partial relief.

      Nemaline myopathy is a congenital myopathy that presents as hypotonia in early childhood. It has both autosomal recessive and dominant forms.

      Mitochondrial myopathy is a complex disease caused by defects in oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria. It can result from mutations in nuclear or mitochondrial DNA and typically manifests earlier in life.

      Poliomyelitis is a viral disease that causes muscle weakness, but it is now rare due to widespread vaccination.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked disease that only affects males and typically appears by age 5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Clinic with a complaint of droopy...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Clinic with a complaint of droopy eyelids that have been present for the past 6 months. She reports experiencing intermittent double vision that varies in severity. She has also noticed difficulty swallowing her food at times. Upon examination, she displays mild weakness in eyelid closure bilaterally and mild lower facial weakness. Additionally, there is mild weakness in neck flexion and bilateral shoulder abduction. Reflexes are normal throughout, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Electromyography is performed, revealing a 30% decrease in the compound motor action potential (CMAP) upon repetitive nerve stimulation (right abductor pollicis brevis muscle). Single-fibre electromyography shows normal fibre density and jitter. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Myasthenia Gravis from Other Neuromuscular Disorders

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It occurs when antibodies block the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired muscle function. This can be detected through electromyographic testing, which measures fatigability. However, other neuromuscular disorders can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging.

      Congenital myasthenia gravis is a rare form that occurs in infants born to myasthenic mothers. Guillain-Barré syndrome, although typically presenting with ophthalmoplegia, can also cause muscle weakness and reflex abnormalities. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels and is characterized by absent reflexes. Polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory disorder of the soft tissues, can cause pain and weakness in the shoulder girdle but does not affect nerve conduction or facial muscles.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic testing are necessary to differentiate MG from other neuromuscular disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A final-year medical student takes a history from a 42-year-old man who suffers...

    Correct

    • A final-year medical student takes a history from a 42-year-old man who suffers from narcolepsy. Following this the student presents the case to her consultant, who quizzes the student about normal sleep regulation.
      Which neurotransmitter is chiefly involved in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep regulation?

      Your Answer: Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters and Sleep: Understanding the Role of Noradrenaline, Acetylcholine, Serotonin, and Dopamine

      Sleep architecture refers to the organization of sleep, which is divided into non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. NREM sleep is further divided into stages 1-4, with higher stages indicating deeper sleep. During sleep, individuals cycle between different stages of NREM and REM sleep. While the function of neurotransmitters in sleep is not fully understood, acetylcholine is believed to play a role in the progression of sleep stages, while noradrenaline is the primary regulator of REM sleep. Serotonin’s function in sleep is poorly understood, but studies have shown that its destruction can lead to total insomnia. Dopamine, on the other hand, is not implicated in the regulation of sleep in current neurotransmitter models. Abnormalities in cholinergic function can cause sleep fragmentation in individuals with dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to complaints of bilateral leg weakness and difficulty walking, which has been progressively worsening over the past few years. The patient's father, who passed away from a heart attack four years ago, also had similar issues with his legs. During the examination, the patient was found to have pes cavus, bilateral foot drop, and a stamping gait. Additionally, he had bilateral areflexia and flexor plantar responses, as well as glove-and-stocking sensory loss to the ankle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic idiopathic demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP)

      Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth

      Explanation:

      Neurological Conditions: A Comparison

      Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome, Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord, Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP), Old Polio, and Peripheral Vascular Disease are all neurological conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system. However, each condition has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria.

      Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome is a hereditary sensorimotor polyneuropathy that presents with foot drop, pes cavus, scoliosis, and stamping gait. A strong family history supports the diagnosis.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord is mostly due to vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with a loss of proprioception and vibration sense, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Risk factors include malabsorption problems or being vegan.

      Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP) causes peripheral neuropathy that is mainly motor. It is associated with anti-GM1 antibody, motor conduction block on nerve conduction studies, and elevated protein in the cerebrospinal fluid. It can be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin, prednisolone, plasmapheresis, and azathioprine.

      Old Polio presents with a lower motor neuron pattern of weakness without sensory signs. The signs are often asymmetrical, and the lower limbs are more commonly affected than the upper limbs. Patients may have contractures and fixed flexion deformities from long-standing immobility.

      Peripheral Vascular Disease is accompanied by a history of pain, often in the form of calf claudication on walking, and is unlikely to cause the clinical signs described in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his feet that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his feet that has been gradually increasing over the past six months. Upon examination, his cranial nerves and higher mental function appear normal, as do his bulk, tone, power, light touch and pinprick sensation, co-ordination, and reflexes in both his upper and lower limbs. What condition could these clinical findings be indicative of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small fibre sensory neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Neuropathy and its Different Types

      Neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves and can cause a burning sensation. This sensation is typical of a neuropathy that affects the small unmyelinated and thinly myelinated nerve fibres. However, a general neurological examination and reflexes are usually normal in this type of neuropathy unless there is coexisting large (myelinated) fibre involvement. On the other hand, neuropathy that affects the large myelinated sensory fibres generally causes glove and stocking sensory loss and loss of reflexes.

      There are different types of neuropathy, and conditions in which the small fibres are preferentially affected in the early stages include diabetes and amyloidosis. In the later stages, however, the neuropathy in these conditions also affects large fibres. Another type of neuropathy is associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, which is a pure sensory neuropathy (ganglionopathy). the different types of neuropathy and their symptoms can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man develops a wrist drop after suffering a spiral fracture of the humerus while playing football. As a result, he is unable to extend his wrist and his hand hangs flaccidly. Which nerve is the most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord in the neck and supply the upper limb. Damage to these nerves can occur due to trauma or compression at various points along their course. The radial nerve, which carries fibres from C5 to C8 and a sensory component from T1, can be injured in the axilla, upper arm, elbow or wrist. A lesion at the spiral groove of the humerus can result in a wrist drop. The musculocutaneous nerve, which arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus, can be affected by damage to the shoulder and brachial plexus or compression by the biceps aponeurosis and tendon. The axillary nerve, which supplies the deltoid, teres minor and triceps brachii, can be injured in dislocations of the shoulder joint, compression of the axilla with a crutch or fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. The median nerve, which innervates all of the flexors in the forearm except the flexor carpi ulnaris and that part of the flexor digitorum profundus that supplies the medial two digits, can be compressed in the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve, which supplies the little finger and the adjacent half of the ring finger, can be trapped in the cubital tunnel on the medial side of the elbow. Pinching of the ulnar nerve can cause paraesthesiae in the fourth and fifth digits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving following two unprovoked seizures in 48 hours. What advice do you give the patient regarding their ability to drive their car?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least six months

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences a seizure, they must inform the DVLA. Depending on the circumstances, they may be unfit to drive for six months or up to five years if they drive a bus or lorry. It is important to note that the DVLA must always be informed of any neurological event that could affect driving ability. An assessment by a DVLA medical examiner is not conducted, but a private or NHS neurologist should evaluate the individual’s fitness to drive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and feeling generally unwell for the past two days. She denies having a rash, neck stiffness, photophobia, or vomiting. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The medical team suspects she may have viral encephalitis and orders a computed tomography head scan and lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.

      The initial CSF results confirm the suspected diagnosis, showing a normal opening pressure and CSF glucose level, with a slightly elevated white cell count, mostly lymphocytes, and a protein level of 0.6 g/l (normal value < 0.45 g/l). While waiting for the CSF culture results, what is the most appropriate management for this 20-year-old woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Encephalitis or Meningitis

      Encephalitis is a condition where the brain parenchyma is infected, while meningitis is characterized by inflammation of the meninges. A patient with symptoms of fever, headache, and altered mental state may have viral encephalitis, which is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type I. In such cases, acyclovir should be started immediately, as it has been proven to improve morbidity and mortality. On the other hand, empirical ceftriaxone is often used for suspected bacterial meningitis, while benzylpenicillin is recommended for patients with a non-blanching rash. Dexamethasone is used to reduce inflammation in certain cases of bacterial meningitis. However, supportive management alone with analgesia is not appropriate for suspected encephalitis or meningitis. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and initial CSF results before deciding on the appropriate treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 78-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with his daughter. His daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with his daughter. His daughter reports that he has been increasingly forgetful, frequently forgetting appointments and sometimes leaving the stove on. He has also experienced a few instances of urinary incontinence. The patient's neurological examination is unremarkable except for a slow gait, reduced step height, and decreased foot clearance. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus from Other Conditions: A Guide for Medical Professionals

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is a condition characterized by ventricular dilation without raised cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) levels. Its classic triad of symptoms includes urinary incontinence, gait disturbance, and dementia. While 50% of cases are idiopathic, it is crucial to diagnose NPH as it is a potentially reversible cause of dementia. MRI or CT scans can reveal ventricular enlargement, and treatment typically involves surgical insertion of a CSF shunt.

      When evaluating patients with symptoms similar to NPH, it is important to consider other conditions. Parkinson’s disease, for example, may cause gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and dementia, but the presence of bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity would make a Parkinson’s diagnosis unlikely. Multiple sclerosis (MS) may also cause urinary incontinence and gait disturbance, but memory problems are less likely, and additional sensory or motor problems are expected. Guillain-Barré syndrome involves ascending muscle weakness, which is not present in NPH. Cauda equina affects spinal nerves and may cause urinary incontinence and gait disturbance, but memory problems are not a symptom.

      In summary, while NPH shares some symptoms with other conditions, its unique combination of ventricular dilation, absence of raised CSF levels, and classic triad of symptoms make it a distinct diagnosis that requires prompt attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on the outer part of her thigh. The doctor diagnoses her with meralgia paraesthetica.
      Which nerve provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the thigh?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Branch of the lumbar plexus

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Lower Limb: Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica and Other Neuropathies

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a type of entrapment neuropathy that affects the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This nerve arises directly from the lumbar plexus, which is a network of nerves located in the lower back. Compression of the nerve can cause numbness, tingling, and pain in the upper lateral thigh. Treatment options include pain relief and surgical decompression.

      While meralgia paraesthetica affects the lateral cutaneous nerve, other nerves in the lower limb have different functions. The pudendal nerve, for example, supplies sensation to the external genitalia, anus, and perineum, while the obturator nerve innervates the skin of the medial thigh. The sciatic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and can cause burning sensations and shooting pains if compressed. Finally, the femoral nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh and gives sensation to the front of the thigh.

      Understanding the different nerves of the lower limb and the types of neuropathies that can affect them is important for diagnosing and treating conditions like meralgia paraesthetica. By working with healthcare professionals, individuals can find relief from symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.

      For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.

      However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.

      For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.

      Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old female presents to the hospital with a sudden and severe occipital...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to the hospital with a sudden and severe occipital headache while decorating at home. She experienced vomiting and a brief loss of consciousness. Upon examination, her Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score is 15, and she has a normal physical exam except for an abrasion on her right temple. She is afebrile, has a blood pressure of 146/84 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute. What investigation would be the most beneficial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      The sudden onset of a severe headache in a young woman, accompanied by vomiting and loss of consciousness, is indicative of subarachnoid haemorrhage. The most appropriate diagnostic test is a CT scan of the brain to detect any subarachnoid blood. However, if the CT scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed as it can detect approximately 10% of cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage that may have been missed by the CT scan. It is important to diagnose subarachnoid haemorrhage promptly as it can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying the symptoms and conducting the appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure timely treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department having been picked up...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department having been picked up by a patrolling police car. He was found wandering around a roundabout in his nightgown, and when stopped, had no recollection of where he lived or of his own name. A mini-mental assessment reveals that he is disorientated to time and place and has poor memory. Physical examination is unremarkable. A full history is taken following contact with his wife and she reports that her husband has been suffering from worsening memory and cognition. A differential diagnosis includes dementia. Investigations are requested.
      What is the most common cause of dementia in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Types of Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Dementia is a progressive loss of cognitive function that affects millions of people worldwide. There are several types of dementia, each with its own causes, symptoms, and management strategies. In this article, we will discuss the most common types of dementia, including Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia.

      Alzheimer’s Disease
      Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 60% of cases in the UK. It is a progressive brain disorder that causes memory loss, disorientation, altered personality, and altered cognition. While there is no cure for Alzheimer’s disease, treatment with antioxidants and certain drugs, such as anticholinesterases, can slow or reduce cognitive decline.

      Huntington’s Disease
      Huntington’s disease is a rare autosomal dominant condition that affects approximately 12 per 100,000 of the UK population. It can cause dementia at any stage of the illness.

      Vascular Dementia
      Vascular dementia is the second most common cause of dementia, accounting for approximately 17% of cases in the UK. It is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, which can result from conditions such as stroke or high blood pressure.

      Dementia with Lewy Bodies
      Dementia with Lewy bodies is a type of dementia that accounts for approximately 4% of cases. It is characterized by abnormal protein deposits in the brain, which can cause hallucinations, movement disorders, and cognitive decline.

      Frontotemporal Dementia
      Frontotemporal dementia is a rare form of dementia that accounts for around 2% of cases in the UK. It typically causes personality and behavioral changes, such as apathy, disinhibition, and loss of empathy.

      In conclusion, dementia is a complex and challenging condition that can have a significant impact on individuals and their families. While there is no cure for most types of dementia, early diagnosis and management can help to slow the progression of symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands. He also says that he suffers from embarrassing grunting which can affect him at almost any time. When he is in lectures at the university he manages to control it, but often when he comes home and relaxes the movements and noises get the better of him. His girlfriend who attends the consultation with him tells you that he seems very easily distracted and often is really very annoying, repeating things which she says to him and mimicking her. On further questioning, it transpires that this has actually been a problem since childhood. On examination his BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 74 beats/min and regular. His heart sounds are normal, respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations are entirely normal.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 193 × 109 /l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 23 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilles de la Tourette syndrome

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Movement Disorders: Gilles de la Tourette Syndrome, Congenital Cerebellar Ataxia, Haemochromatosis, Huntington’s Disease, and Wilson’s Disease

      Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is characterized by motor and vocal tics that are preceded by an unwanted premonitory urge. These tics may be suppressible, but with associated tension and mental exhaustion. The diagnosis is based on clinical presentation and history, with an association with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, behavioural problems, and self-mutilation. The pathophysiology is unknown, but treatments include neuroleptics, atypical antipsychotics, and benzodiazepines.

      Congenital cerebellar ataxia typically presents with a broad-based gait and dysmetria, which is not seen in this case. Haemochromatosis has a controversial link to movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily presents with chorea, irregular dancing-type movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic and lack the premonitory urge and suppressibility seen in Tourette’s. Wilson’s disease has central nervous system manifestations, particularly parkinsonism and tremor, which are not present in this case. It is important to distinguish between these movement disorders for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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