-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old male is brought in after a motorcycle accident. According to the paramedic, the patient has suffered a significant loss of blood due to an open femoral fracture, which has been reduced, and a haemothorax. The patient's blood pressure is 95/74 mmHg, and his heart rate is 128 bpm. Although conscious, the patient appears confused. What is the stage of haemorrhagic shock that this patient is experiencing?
Your Answer: Class II (15-30% blood loss)
Correct Answer: Class III (30-40% blood loss)
Explanation:The patient is experiencing Class III haemorrhagic shock, indicated by their tachycardia and hypotension. They are not yet unconscious, ruling out Class IV shock. Class I shock would be fully compensated for, while Class II shock would only cause tachycardia. However, in Class III shock, confusion is also present. Class IV shock is characterized by severe hypotension and loss of consciousness.
Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management
Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.
The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.
Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?Your Answer: Vagal manoeuvres
Explanation:SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate depression presents to his GP after being prescribed a new medication by his psychiatrist. He reports experiencing a significant increase in appetite and subsequent weight gain, as well as constant fatigue and difficulty concentrating at work.
What medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:If a patient does not respond well to initial depression treatments or experiences adverse effects from their current medication, it is common practice to switch them to a different antidepressant. In such cases, it is reasonable to assume that the patient has already been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, making sertraline an unlikely option. Advanced treatments like lithium and carbamazepine are typically reserved for severe mood disorders and are therefore not probable in this scenario. This leaves…
Switching Antidepressants for Depression
When switching antidepressants for depression, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), it is recommended to cross-taper slowly. This involves gradually reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. Similarly, when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine, withdrawal should occur before starting venlafaxine at a low dose and increasing slowly.
Overall, switching antidepressants for depression should be done with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional to ensure a safe and effective transition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential?
Your Answer: By enzymatic breakdown of molecules that give rise to intracellular ions, which alter the membrane potential
Correct Answer: By regulating opening and closing ion channels
Explanation:The Role of Ion Channels in Regulating Membrane Potential
The membrane potential of a cell is the voltage difference between the inside and outside of the cell membrane. This potential is influenced by the movement of ions across the membrane, which is determined by their valence and concentration gradient. However, the permeability of ions also plays a crucial role in regulating membrane potential. This is achieved through the presence of ion channels that can open and close in response to various stimuli, such as action potentials.
Neurons, for example, are able to regulate their membrane potential by controlling the opening and closing of ion channels. This allows them to maintain a stable resting potential and respond to changes in their environment. The permeability of ions through these channels is carefully regulated to ensure that the membrane potential remains within a certain range. This is essential for proper neuronal function and communication.
In summary, the regulation of membrane potential is a complex process that involves the movement of ions across the membrane and the opening and closing of ion channels. This process is critical for maintaining proper cellular function and communication, particularly in neurons.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the neonatal unit. After a few hours, the child shows signs of nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to have jaundice. The observations show a heart rate of 75/min, a respiratory rate of 68/min, and a temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most common organism responsible for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:The leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection by group B streptococcus.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A father brings his 3-month-old daughter into the clinic for her first round of vaccinations. He expresses concerns about the safety of the rotavirus vaccine. Can you provide information about this vaccine to ease his worries?
Your Answer: It is an oral, live attenuated vaccine
Explanation:The vaccine for rotavirus is administered orally and is live attenuated. It is given to infants at two and three months of age, along with other oral vaccines like polio and typhoid. Two doses are necessary, and it is not typically given to three-year-olds. This vaccine is not injected and is not an inactivated toxin, unlike vaccines for tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.
The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Illness and Mortality
Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. This vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.
The rotavirus vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%. It is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70% and provides long-term protection against rotavirus. This vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood illness and mortality, particularly in developing countries where access to healthcare may be limited. By ensuring that children receive the rotavirus vaccine, we can help to protect them from this dangerous and potentially deadly virus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with multiple stab wounds. During clinical examination, eight stab wounds are identified on his abdomen and one on the front of his chest. His airway has been secured, and he is receiving oxygen at a rate of 15 L/min while IV fluid resuscitation has been initiated.
Following CT scans of his abdomen, the patient has been transferred to the operating room for an emergency laparotomy. The surgeons are assessing the condition of his spleen based on the CT and laparotomy findings to determine the next steps in his treatment.
What is one reason that may indicate the need for a splenectomy in this patient?Your Answer: Haemodynamic instability and complete devascularisation of the spleen
Explanation:When trauma patients experience uncontrollable bleeding in the spleen, a splenectomy may be necessary. CT imaging can be used to grade the severity of the splenic injury, with grades 1-3 typically managed conservatively if the patient is stable, and grades 4-5 often requiring surgical intervention. During emergency laparotomy, if certain findings such as uncontrollable bleeding, hilar vascular injuries, or a devascularized spleen are present, a splenectomy may be indicated.
Managing Splenic Trauma
The spleen is a commonly injured intra-abdominal organ, but in most cases, it can be conserved. The management of splenic trauma depends on several factors, including associated injuries, haemodynamic status, and the extent of direct splenic injury.
Conservative management is appropriate for small subcapsular haematomas, minimal intra-abdominal blood, and no hilar disruption. However, if there are increased amounts of intra-abdominal blood, moderate haemodynamic compromise, or tears or lacerations affecting less than 50%, laparotomy with conservation may be necessary.
In cases of hilar injuries, major haemorrhage, or major associated injuries, resection is the preferred management option. It is important to note that the management approach should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and circumstances. Proper management of splenic trauma can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old waitress presents with a 2-day history of increasing confusion. She has no significant medical history, takes only oral contraceptives, and denies any substance use. Blood and urine tests suggest a possible diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following statements regarding SIADH secretion is accurate?
Your Answer: Intravenous saline is the treatment of choice
Correct Answer: It may occur in subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:Understanding SIADH: Causes and Treatment Options
SIADH, or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, is a condition characterized by excessive production of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia. While it can occur in various medical conditions, subarachnoid haemorrhage is a known cause of SIADH. In such cases, monitoring sodium levels is crucial. The treatment of choice for SIADH is fluid restriction, but in severe cases, hypertonic saline may be used. Demeclocycline, a tetracycline, is sometimes used to treat hyponatraemia in SIADH. It’s important to note that small cell lung cancer, not adenocarcinoma of the lung, is a well-known cause of SIADH through ectopic ADH secretion. Understanding the causes and treatment options for SIADH is essential for managing this condition effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which volatile agent was linked to the development of fulminant hepatitis after secondary exposure?
Your Answer: Isoflurane
Correct Answer: Halothane
Explanation:Halothane Hepatitis and Precautions
Halothane hepatitis is a condition that can range from minor liver function issues to severe liver failure. It occurs when liver damage appears within 28 days of exposure to halothane, after excluding other known causes of liver disease. About 75% of patients with halothane hepatitis have antibodies that react to halothane-altered antigens. Therefore, it is important to take precautions when using halothane.
Halothane should be avoided if there has been a previous exposure within three months, if there is a known adverse reaction to halothane, if there is a family history of adverse reactions, or if there is pre-existing liver disease. These precautions can help prevent the occurrence of halothane hepatitis and ensure the safety of patients. It is important to carefully consider the use of halothane and take necessary measures to avoid any potential harm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man presents with fatigue. His complete blood count and iron studies are provided below.
Hemoglobin: 95g/L (normal range: 135-180g/L)
Mean Corpuscular Volume: 58fL (normal range: 78-100fL)
Platelets: 210* 109/L (normal range: 150-400* 109/L)
White Blood Cells: 7* 109/L (normal range: 4-11* 109/L)
Ferritin: 14 ug/L (normal range: 41-400 ug/L)
Total Iron Binding Capacity: 80 micromoles/L (normal range: 45-66 micromoles/L)
What is the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer: Bone marrow biopsy
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:The complete blood count results indicate that the patient has microcytic anemia, which is caused by iron deficiency according to the iron studies. In men over 60 years old, iron deficiency anemia is often linked to colorectal cancer, so urgent referral to colorectal services is necessary for suspected cancer cases. A colonoscopy and OGD are likely to be performed. CEA is a tumor marker for colon cancer, but it is not used for diagnosis due to its poor specificity. B12 and folate deficiency would result in an increased MCV, so they are not the cause of this patient’s anemia. If bone marrow failure were suspected, a bone marrow biopsy might be performed, but the patient’s platelets and white cell count would be reduced in such cases.
Understanding Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of mortality rates. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%. Understanding the location of the cancer is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. With early detection and proper medical care, the prognosis for colorectal cancer can be improved.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.
The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Which of the following statements about the use of aspirin in patients with ischemic heart disease is accurate?
Your Answer: All patients should take aspirin if there is no contraindication
Explanation:Aspirin is recommended for all patients with ischaemic heart disease, unless there is a contraindication. However, the guidelines have been updated to suggest that patients with other types of cardiovascular disease, such as stroke and peripheral arterial disease, should be given clopidogrel as the first-line treatment.
The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Sarah, a 13-year-old girl presented with hip pain that worsened with walking and a snapping sensation when moving her hip. She has a history of recurrent left shoulder dislocations, but no past medical history of congenital hip dysplasia. Her father has Ehler-Danlos syndrome. On examination, there was no joint swelling and normal passive and active movement without restriction in the range of motion. What is a useful assessment for hypermobility?
Your Answer: MRI scan
Correct Answer: Beighton score
Explanation:The Beighton score is a valuable method for evaluating hypermobility, with a positive result indicating at least 5 out of 9 criteria met in adults or at least 6 out of 9 in children. In contrast, Schirmer’s test is commonly employed to diagnose Sjogren syndrome, while plain radiographs and MRI scans are not effective for assessing hypermobility.
Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile and easily bruised skin, as well as recurrent joint dislocations. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presented with 1-week history of acute onset, pruritic violaceous papular rash.
Around six months ago, he was started on ramipril for his hypertension.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Erythema multiforme
Correct Answer: Lichenoid eruption
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Lichenoid Eruption: A papular rash that appears 2-3 months after starting certain drugs, including ACE inhibitors. Diagnosis is made by skin biopsy.
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A drug-induced condition that can occur up to one month after starting the offending drug. Symptoms include fever, malaise, myalgia, and tender, pruritic erythematous macules that spread rapidly onto the face and limbs.
Psoriasis: A chronic inflammatory condition characterized by symmetrically distributed, well-defined erythematous scaly plaques.
Erythema Multiforme: In 90% of cases, this condition is caused by an infection. Drugs rarely cause erythema multiforme.
Contact Dermatitis: A variable cutaneous presentation that can occur anywhere on the body as a result of direct contact with a causative agent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
An 80-year-old woman has been referred to a Gastroenterologist by her General Practitioner due to epigastric discomfort and the development of jaundice over several months. The patient reports no pain but has experienced unintentional weight loss. During examination, no abdominal tenderness or mass is detected. Serology results indicate that the patient has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pancreatic carcinoma
Explanation:Differentiating between Gastrointestinal Conditions
When presented with a patient experiencing symptoms such as weight loss, jaundice, and epigastric discomfort, it is important to consider various gastrointestinal conditions that may be causing these symptoms. One possible diagnosis is pancreatic carcinoma, which is often associated with painless jaundice and the development of diabetes. Hepatitis, caused by viral infection or excessive alcohol intake, can also lead to liver cancer. Chronic pancreatitis, typically caused by alcohol misuse, can result in pain and dysfunction of the pancreas. Gastritis, on the other hand, is often caused by prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or infection with Helicobacter pylori, and can lead to gastric ulcers and bleeding. Finally, hepatocellular carcinoma can be caused by chronic hepatitis B or C, or chronic excessive alcohol intake. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these conditions is crucial for the patient’s health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with complaints of swelling around her left eye. She has been experiencing this for the past 2 days and has also been feeling feverish and lethargic. The patient denies any history of trauma or vision loss.
Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.2ºC and is found to have left-sided proptosis. All eye movements are painful and reduced in the affected eye. Fundoscopy is normal, and the patient has a visual acuity of 6/6 in the right eye and 6/12 in the left eye.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis is characterized by sudden swelling of one eye, accompanied by proptosis and limited eye movement. Pain and visual changes may also occur depending on the severity of the condition. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical examination, but in severe or resistant cases, microbiology and imaging techniques such as CT may be used. Conjunctivitis and iritis can cause red eyes, but they do not typically result in orbital swelling. Retinoblastoma is a type of cancer that primarily affects children under the age of 5 and is usually detected during routine fundoscopy or due to a decline in vision.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A diabetic woman attends for an ultrasound scan during her third trimester of pregnancy. The physician reporting the scan calculates an amniotic index >95th centile and diagnoses polyhydramnios.
What volume of amniotic fluid is considered to be consistent with polyhydramnios?Your Answer: >3–4 l of amniotic fluid
Correct Answer: >2–3 l of amniotic fluid
Explanation:Understanding Polyhydramnios: Excess Amniotic Fluid in Pregnancy
Polyhydramnios is a condition in which there is an excess of amniotic fluid in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. This excess fluid is produced by the fetal kidneys and is normally swallowed by the fetus. Diagnosis of polyhydramnios is made by ultrasound assessment of the amount of fluid. If the deepest vertical pool is greater than 8 cm or if the amniotic fluid index (AFI) is greater than the 95th percentile for the corresponding gestational age, polyhydramnios is diagnosed.
Polyhydramnios occurs in approximately 2% of all pregnancies and is associated with maternal diabetes and fetal anomalies resulting in gastrointestinal obstruction, such as esophageal atresia and poor fetal swallowing.
It is important to note that normal amniotic fluid varies and increases with gestational age, peaking at around 1 liter. An excess of 2 liters or more is considered consistent with polyhydramnios. Understanding this condition can help healthcare providers monitor and manage pregnancies for the best possible outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with a significant obstetric hemorrhage due to uterine atony. What is the initial medical management after stabilization and general measures?
Your Answer: Syntocinon
Explanation:To treat postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony, medical options include oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol.
The leading cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.52) for managing primary PPH due to uterine atony. The first-line treatment recommended is 5U of IV Syntocinon (oxytocin), followed by 0.5 mg of ergometrine.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with symptoms of a vasculitic rash, joint pains, and swollen ankles. He reports feeling unwell, fatigued, and experiencing weight loss. During the visit, his urine dipstick shows blood and protein, and urgent blood tests reveal worsening kidney function with elevated inflammatory markers. The doctor suspects microscopic polyangiitis and requests an autoimmune screening. What autoantibody is expected to be positive in this case?
Your Answer: c-ANCA with MPO specificity
Correct Answer: p-ANCA with MPO specificity
Explanation:ANCA and its association with small vessel vasculitides
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are a characteristic feature of small vessel vasculitides such as microscopic polyangiitis (MPA) and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). These antibodies can also be seen in eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (eGPA), previously known as Churg-Strauss syndrome. ANCA has two staining patterns, cytoplasmic (c-ANCA) and perinuclear (p-ANCA), which are detected through immunofluorescence. These antibodies are directed against proteins within the cytoplasmic granules of neutrophils. In most cases, c-ANCA has specificity for proteinase 3 (PR3) and p-ANCA has specificity for myeloperoxidase (MPO).
In patients with GPA, ANCA positivity is observed in approximately 90% of cases, with 80-90% being c-ANCA positive with PR3 specificity. In contrast, in patients with MPA, approximately 60% are p-ANCA positive with MPO specificity, and around 35% have c-ANCA.
The history of the patient in question is more consistent with MPA, and therefore, the most likely test to be positive is p-ANCA with MPO specificity. ANA is usually associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, which could present with similar symptoms, but the patient’s age and sex are more in line with ANCA vasculitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple gallstones is presenting with jaundice due to a common bile duct obstruction caused by a large stone. What biochemical abnormalities are expected to be observed in this patient?
Your Answer: Increased urobilinogen in the urine
Correct Answer: Decreased stercobilin in the stool
Explanation:Effects of Biliary Tree Obstruction on Bilirubin Metabolism
Biliary tree obstruction can have various effects on bilirubin metabolism. One of the consequences is a decrease in stercobilin in the stool, which can lead to clay-colored stools. Additionally, there is an increase in urobilinogen in the urine due to less bilirubin in the intestine. However, there is a decrease in urobilinogen in the urine due to reduced excretion. The plasma bilirubin level is increased, leading to jaundice. Finally, there is an increase in plasma conjugated bilirubin, which is water-soluble and can be excreted by the kidneys.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerns about weight gain and irregular periods. She reports feeling fatigued and sad. There are several purple stretch marks on her stomach and bruises on her legs. Blood tests show normal thyroid hormone levels and an elevated amount of cortisol being produced. If this patient has adrenal hyperactivity, what other symptoms might she experience?
Your Answer: Hirsutism
Explanation:Effects of Cortisol on the Body: Misconceptions and Clarifications
Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. However, there are some misconceptions about the effects of cortisol on the body. Here are some clarifications:
Hirsutism: Elevated cortisol levels can cause a condition called Cushingoid, which may result in hirsutism in women. This is characterized by excessive hair growth in areas such as the face, chest, and back.
Hypoglycemia: Contrary to popular belief, cortisol does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it increases gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) and reduces glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, resulting in hyperglycemia.
Enhanced glucose uptake: Cortisol actually has the opposite effect on glucose uptake. It reduces the uptake of glucose into peripheral tissues and accelerates gluconeogenesis.
Hypotension: Patients with adrenal hyperfunction (excessive cortisol production) often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure). This is because excessive mineralocorticoids are released, which can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure.
Hypocalciuria: Cortisol can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis by increasing bone breakdown. This may result in hypercalcemia (high levels of calcium in the blood), which can cause hypercalciuria (excessive calcium in the urine), not hypocalciuria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic asking for the progesterone-only injectable contraceptive. She reports that she has used it before and it has been effective for her. However, she has a medical history of migraines with aura and irritable bowel syndrome. She is currently undergoing treatment for breast cancer and is awaiting further tests for unexplained vaginal bleeding. Additionally, she is a heavy smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes per day. What makes this contraceptive method unsuitable for her?
Your Answer: Smoking >15 cigarettes a day
Correct Answer: Current breast cancer
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives should not be used in individuals with current breast cancer, as it is an absolute contraindication as per the UK medical eligibility criteria. Smoking more than 15 cigarettes a day is also a contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill, while migraine with aura is a contraindication for the same. Additionally, unexplained vaginal bleeding is a contraindication for starting the intrauterine device (IUD) or the intrauterine system (IUS).
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left parietal region with another smaller similar area nearby. The skin in the patch is itchy and the few remaining hairs seem to have fallen out near the scalp surface. Her father has noticed that the area of alopecia is spreading. There is no itching of the right scalp and there is no rash elsewhere on her body.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Correct Answer: Tinea capitis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Hair Loss: A Guide
Hair loss can be a distressing experience, but it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common causes of hair loss and their distinguishing features:
Tinea Capitis: This fungal infection can cause abnormal scalp skin and alopecia. The affected area may be scaly or inflamed, and broken hairs do not taper at the base.
Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease results in circular areas of hair loss without scaling, inflammation, or broken hair.
Discoid Lupus Erythematosus: This condition causes red, scaly patches that leave white scars and permanent hair loss due to scarring alopecia.
Psoriasis: Thick scaling on the scalp may cause mild hair loss, but it does not result in permanent balding. Psoriasis may also be present elsewhere on the body.
Trichotillomania: Hair pulling disorder does not cause abnormalities to the scalp skin.
By understanding the distinguishing features of these causes of hair loss, prompt and appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent permanent hair loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 21-year-old woman is referred to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-day history of right flank pain, dysuria and fever. Urosepsis is suspected, and the Sepsis Six Pathway is implemented in the Emergency Department.
Which of the following is part of the ‘Sepsis Six’, the six key components to managing sepsis?Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) fluids
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sepsis: IV Fluids, Corticosteroids, Antipyretics, and More
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate treatment. The following are some of the treatment options available for sepsis:
IV Fluids: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends giving an IV fluid bolus without delay for suspected sepsis. Reassess the patient after completion of the IV fluid bolus, and if no improvement is observed, give a second bolus.
Corticosteroids: In patients with septic shock, corticosteroid therapy appears to be safe but does not reduce 28-day all-cause mortality rates. It does, however, significantly reduce the incidence of vasopressor-dependent shock. Low-quality evidence indicates that steroids reduce mortality among patients with sepsis.
Antipyretics: Treating sepsis is the most important immediate treatment plan. This will also reduce fever, although Antipyretics can be given in conjunction with this treatment, it will not reduce mortality.
Maintain Blood Glucose 8–12 mmol/l: Measuring blood glucose on venous blood gas is important, as sepsis may cause hypo- or hyperglycaemia, which may require treatment. However, maintaining blood glucose between 8 and 12 mmol/l is not an evidence-based intervention and could cause iatrogenic hypo- and hyperglycaemia.
Avoid Oxygen Therapy Unless Severe Hypoxia: Give oxygen to achieve a target saturation of 94−98% for adult patients or 88−92% for those at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.
Treatment Options for Sepsis: What You Need to Know
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
An 81-year-old man has fallen off his bike and hit his head. His friend at the scene reports that he was unconscious for less than a minute. The man was cycling slowly on a path beside a canal. Upon initial assessment, he has some bruising on his upper and lower limbs, a Glasgow coma score (GCS) of 15, and no neurological deficit. He has not experienced vomiting or seizures since the accident and was able to describe the incident. He takes antihypertensives but has no significant medical history. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Perform a CT head scan within 1 hour
Correct Answer: Perform a CT head scan within 8 hours
Explanation:When it comes to detecting significant brain injuries in the acute setting, CT imaging of the head is currently the preferred method of investigation. MRI is not typically used due to safety concerns, logistical challenges, and resource limitations.
According to NICE guidelines, patients over the age of 65 who experience a head injury resulting in loss of consciousness or amnesia should undergo a CT head scan within 8 hours. However, if there is an indication for a CT head scan within 1 hour, that should take priority. The specific indications for CT head scans within 1 hour and 8 hours can be found below.
Reference:
NICE (2014): Head injury: assessment and early management.NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old factory worker has contacted his GP, reporting that he has been feeling unwell for the past ten days. He has been experiencing back pain, which he believes is due to bending over at work. The patient visited the Emergency Department five days ago due to the pain and is worried about his ability to go back to work.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Inform the patient that you are unable to issue a fit note until he comes in for an examination
Correct Answer: Certify the patient as maybe being fit for work if his employer can amend his duties
Explanation:Clarifying Misconceptions About Fit Notes
Fit notes are an important tool for doctors to help patients return to work after an illness or injury. However, there are some common misconceptions about fit notes that can cause confusion for both patients and doctors. Here are some clarifications on some of these misconceptions:
Clarifying Misconceptions About Fit Notes
1. Certify the patient as maybe being fit for work if his employer can amend his duties
Encouraging a patient to return to work with amended duties or workplace adaptations is a viable option for doctors. It is important to consider this option before certifying a patient as unfit for work.2. Certify the patient as being unfit for work
While certifying a patient as unfit for work is an option, it should only be used when necessary. Encouraging a patient to return to work with amended duties or workplace adaptations should be considered first.3. Inform the patient that he can certify his own inability to work for the first two weeks
Patients can only self-certify for up to seven days. After that, they will need a fit note from a doctor.4. Inform the patient that you cannot certify him as being unfit because you did not treat him initially
Any doctor who is responsible for the care of the patient can provide a statement of fitness. It does not matter if the doctor did not treat the patient initially.5. Inform the patient that you are unable to issue a fit note until he comes in for an examination
Doctors do not need to physically examine a patient to issue a fit note. They can provide a statement of fitness based on medical notes or speaking to the patient. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 58-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with cholecystitis. During her stay, her blood glucose levels remain consistently high. Her lab results reveal an HbA1c level of 68 mmol/mol. As her healthcare provider, you initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg immediate release. What is the recommended time interval before considering a dose increase?
Your Answer: 1 week
Explanation:Metformin dosage should be increased slowly, with a minimum of 1 week between each increase. The recommended starting dose for immediate-release metformin is 500 mg once daily for at least 1 week, followed by an increase to 500 mg twice daily for at least another week. This gradual increase is necessary to avoid exacerbating the common side effect of diarrhoea. Increasing the dosage within a day is not recommended as it can lead to more side effects. Waiting for several months before increasing the dosage is also not advisable. For modified-release preparations, the dosage should be increased gradually every 10-15 days. However, since the medication in this scenario is immediate-release, waiting for 1 week is the appropriate course of action.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe chloramphenicol eye drops and remove the foreign body the next morning at the practice
Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day
Explanation:If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment to prevent further complications. This is especially important in cases where the injury was caused by high-velocity objects, such as during grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal to the following day is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and prolong the patient’s discomfort. It is essential to seek specialist care to ensure proper treatment and avoid any potential complications.
A corneal foreign body can cause eye pain, a sensation of something being in the eye, sensitivity to light, watering, and redness. If the injury was caused by high-velocity objects or sharp items, or if there is significant trauma to the eye or surrounding area, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist. If a chemical injury has occurred, the eye should be irrigated for 20-30 minutes before referral. Foreign bodies made of organic material, such as seeds or soil, also require referral due to a higher risk of infection and complications. If the foreign body is located in or near the center of the cornea, or if there are any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or reduced vision, referral is necessary. For more information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
In which tissue is glycolysis the primary direct means of generating ATP?
Your Answer: Erythrocytes
Explanation:The Importance of Glycolysis in Erythrocytes
Mature erythrocytes lack mitochondria, which means that they can only produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through anaerobic glycolysis. This makes them particularly vulnerable to deficiencies in glycolytic enzymes, such as pyruvate kinase deficiency, which affects 1 in 20,000 people and can cause varying degrees of haemolytic anaemia. The lack of pyruvate kinase directly impairs ATP production, as it is responsible for producing 2 ATP molecules from each glucose. Additionally, the build-up of intermediaries like 2,3 DPG can cause feedback inhibition of earlier stages of glycolysis, further impairing ATP production.
In contrast, other tissues rely on oxidative phosphorylation to generate the majority of their ATP under normal, aerobic conditions. The importance of glycolysis in erythrocytes highlights the unique metabolic needs of these cells and the consequences of deficiencies in glycolytic enzymes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 6-week old infant is seen by the health visitor. She was born via breech caesarean section at 36+2 weeks gestation due to suspected chorioamnionitis and received antibiotics post-partum. Her hospital newborn physical examination (NIPE) was normal. She is currently thriving and following the 60th centile. What further assessments should the health visitor arrange for this infant based on her medical history?
Your Answer: Once weekly review for progression of weight and length in the community
Correct Answer: Ultrasounds of pelvis in 2 weeks
Explanation:An ultrasound of the pelvis in 2 weeks is the correct answer. This is because infants born in a breech position have an increased risk of DDH and require screening at 6 weeks to ensure there is no hip laxity. Vaginal swabs for group B streptococcus are not necessary if the mother is asymptomatic. Reviewing the infant’s progress along the centiles once or twice weekly is too frequent, as infants are usually weighed no more than once a month up to 6 months of age unless there are concerns about development. A full blood count is unnecessary for a well-looking infant without signs of anaemia or infection.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)