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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden onset of difficulty breathing and sharp chest pain that worsens when he inhales. He has no significant medical history and is generally healthy and active. He admits to smoking and drinking occasionally. The patient is diagnosed with a pneumothorax caused by the spontaneous rupture of an apical bulla.
What is the most accurate description of the lung volume and chest wall position in this patient?Your Answer: The lung collapses inward and the chest wall collapses inward
Correct Answer: The lung collapses inward and the chest wall expands outward
Explanation:Understanding Pneumothorax: Causes and Management
Pneumothorax is a common thoracic disease characterized by the presence of air in the pleural space. It can be spontaneous, traumatic, secondary, or iatrogenic. When air enters the pleural space, it causes the lung to collapse inward and the chest wall to expand outward. In cases of tension pneumothorax, immediate medical attention is required to decompress the pleural space with a wide-bore needle. For non-tension pneumothorax, management depends on the patient’s symptoms. If the pneumothorax is larger than 2 cm and the patient is breathless, aspiration with a large-bore cannula and oxygen therapy may be necessary. If the pneumothorax is small and the patient is asymptomatic, they can be discharged with an outpatient appointment in 6 weeks. However, if the pneumothorax is larger than 2 cm or the patient remains breathless after decompression, a chest drain will need to be inserted. It is important to understand the causes and management of pneumothorax to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated?
Your Answer: Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Explanation:Sipple Syndrome (MEN 2A)
Sipple syndrome, also known as Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 2A, is a group of endocrine disorders that occur together in the same patient and are typically inherited. This syndrome is caused by a defect in a gene that controls the normal growth of endocrine tissues. As a result, individuals with Sipple syndrome may develop bilateral medullary carcinoma or C cell hyperplasia, phaeochromocytoma, and hyperparathyroidism.
Sipple syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, which means that if a person has the defective gene, they have a 50% chance of passing it on to their offspring. This syndrome affects both males and females equally, and the peak incidence of medullary carcinoma in these patients is typically in their 30s.
In summary, Sipple syndrome is a rare inherited disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands. It is important for individuals with a family history of this syndrome to undergo genetic testing and regular screenings to detect any potential tumors or abnormalities early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with creamy nipple discharge. She had a mammogram screening a year ago which was normal. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Upon examination, there were no alarming findings. A repeat mammogram was conducted and no abnormalities were detected. Although she is concerned about the possibility of a tumor, she is not bothered by the discharge itself. Her serum prolactin level is provided below.
Prolactin 200 mIU/L (<600)
What is the most probable diagnosis and what would be the best initial treatment?Your Answer: Total duct excision
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Duct ectasia does not require any specific treatment. However, lumpectomy may be used to treat breast masses if they meet certain criteria such as being small-sized and peripheral, and taking into account the patient’s preference. Mastectomy may be necessary for malignant breast masses if lumpectomy is not suitable. In young women with duct ectasia, microdochectomy may be performed if the condition is causing discomfort. It is also used to treat intraductal papilloma.
Understanding Duct Ectasia
Duct ectasia is a condition that affects the terminal breast ducts located within 3 cm of the nipple. It is a common condition that becomes more prevalent as women age. The condition is characterized by the dilation and shortening of the ducts, which can cause nipple retraction and creamy nipple discharge. It is important to note that duct ectasia can be mistaken for periductal mastitis, which is more common in younger women who smoke. Periductal mastitis typically presents with infections around the periareolar or subareolar areas and may recur.
When dealing with troublesome nipple discharge, treatment options may include microdochectomy for younger patients or total duct excision for older patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 44-year-old man with untreated tertiary syphilis is undergoing screening for complications of neurosyphilis. During questioning, he reports experiencing a decrease in visual acuity and color vision on his left side. He denies any headaches or changes in vision when coughing.
Upon examination, there are no signs of gaze or eye movement abnormalities. However, a relative afferent pupillary defect is present, and fundoscopy reveals swelling of the optic disc on the left side. Based on this likely diagnosis, what other visual abnormality may be anticipated?Your Answer: Central scotoma
Explanation:Optic neuritis is characterized by a central scotoma, which is a grey, black, or blind spot in the middle of the visual field. This condition is often associated with uveitis, but in rare cases, it can lead to optic papillitis, as seen in this patient. While the fundoscopy may suggest papilloedema, this is unlikely to be the case as it is typically bilateral and associated with other symptoms such as vision changes when coughing. Flashers, floaters, halos, and homonymous hemianopia are not associated with optic neuritis as they arise from different parts of the eye and visual pathway.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Low molecular weight heparin has the most significant inhibitory impact on which of the following proteins involved in the coagulation cascade?
Your Answer: Factor XIIa
Correct Answer: Factor Xa
Explanation:Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Re-check glucose in 2 weeks' time
Correct Answer: Start insulin only
Explanation:The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes with a fasting glucose level of >= 7 mmol/L at diagnosis is to commence insulin. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority according to NICE guidelines. Re-checking glucose in 2 weeks, starting exenatide, or relying on lifestyle changes alone would not be appropriate. Metformin alone may not be sufficient for glucose levels above 7 mmol/L, but it can be used in combination with insulin. If glucose levels are below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be trialed before considering metformin.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor's office, reporting a recent onset of a red, swollen, and hot great left toe. He denies any injury to the toe and has a medical history of hypertension, which is being treated with a single medication. The doctor suspects acute gout as the diagnosis.
What medication is most likely responsible for triggering the acute gout?Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Understanding Gout and its Causes: A Review of Medications and Differential Diagnosis
Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the joint. This article reviews the causes of gout, which can be primary or secondary hyperuricaemia. Secondary hyperuricaemia can be caused by overproduction or decreased renal excretion, including the use of thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide. The differential diagnosis for an acute red, hot swollen joint includes septic arthritis, gout, pseudogout, inflammatory monoarthritis, and post-traumatic causes. Treatment for gout includes medications for chronic and acute gout, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, colchicine, or prednisolone. This article also discusses the effects of medications like colchicine, propranolol, lisinopril, and moxonidine on gout and other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?
Rewritten: Which ONE of the following women, who are all 35 years old, has gestational hypertension?Your Answer: 22 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and no proteinuria
Explanation:If high blood pressure occurs after 20 weeks gestation and there is no proteinuria, it is considered gestational hypertension. However, if high blood pressure is present before 20 weeks, it is likely pre-existing hypertension.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 26-year-old electrician is instructed to be nil by mouth upon admission with suspected appendicitis, and is prescribed IV fluids to be given before and after the procedure to ensure proper hydration.
What is the composition of a bag of normal saline 0.9% (in mmol/l)?Your Answer: Sodium 154, chloride 154, potassium 0, bicarbonate 0
Explanation:Different Types of Intravenous Solutions and Their Uses
Intravenous solutions are used in hospitals for various purposes such as rehydration, fluid resuscitation, and management of electrolyte imbalances. Here are some common types of intravenous solutions and their compositions:
1. 0.9% Normal Saline (NaCl)
Composition: Sodium 154, Chloride 154, Potassium 0, Bicarbonate 0
Use: Rehydration and maintenance
Note: Excessive use can lead to hyperchloraemic acidosis.2. 5% Dextrose
Composition: Sodium 30, Chloride 30, Potassium 0, Bicarbonate Dextrose 50 g
Use: Treatment of hypoglycaemia or fluid loss without electrolyte imbalance
Note: Can also be used in the treatment of hyperkalaemia in combination with intravenous insulin.3. Hartmann’s Solution
Composition: Sodium 131, Chloride 111, Potassium 5, Bicarbonate 29, Calcium 2
Use: Fluid resuscitation in the operative and post-operative period, as well as initial management in injuries
Note: Use may lead to hyperkalaemia, so its use needs to be monitored.4. 10% Dextrose
Composition: Sodium 30, Chloride 30, Potassium 0, Bicarbonate Dextrose 100 g
Use: Treatment of hypoglycaemia
Note: This is a sterile hypertonic solution.5. Gelofusin
Composition: Sodium 154, Chloride 125, Potassium 0
Use: Volume expander in shock arising from burns or septicaemia, and in the immediate treatment of haemorrhage while awaiting for blood to become available
Note: This is a colloid solution or plasma substitute containing modified fluid gelatin.Intravenous solutions are an essential part of medical treatment, and their appropriate use can help in the management of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with haematuria underwent a kidney biopsy, but light microscopy results were inconclusive. As a result, the specimen was sent for electron microscopy. Which renal disease requires electron microscopy for diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thin membrane disease
Explanation:Renal Diseases and their Diagnostic Methods
Renal diseases can be diagnosed through various methods, including electron microscopy, blood tests, and renal biopsy. Here are some examples:
Thin Membrane Disease: Electron microscopy is crucial in diagnosing thin membrane disease, as well as Alport syndrome and fibrillary glomerulopathy.
Anti-GBM Disease: Blood tests for anti-GBM can confirm Goodpasture’s syndrome, but a renal biopsy can also be taken to show IgG deposits along the basement membrane.
Lupus Nephritis: While electron microscopy can show dense immune deposits in lupus nephritis, diagnosis can also be made through immunofluorescence without the need for electron microscopy.
IgA Nephropathy: A renal biopsy can confirm IgA nephropathy, showing mesangium proliferation and IgA deposits on immunofluorescence.
Churg-Strauss Syndrome: Also known as eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), Churg-Strauss syndrome can be diagnosed through blood tests showing high eosinophils and ANCA, as well as renal biopsy showing eosinophil granulomas.
Diagnostic Methods for Renal Diseases
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 11
Correct
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Liam, a 3-year-old boy and his father visit a paediatric neurology clinic. Liam's father is worried about epilepsy, but the consultant explains that Liam has been experiencing reflex anoxic seizures. What characteristics could distinguish between epilepsy and Liam's condition?
Your Answer: Quick recovery following seizure
Explanation:Both epilepsy and reflex anoxic seizures can cause collapse, jerking, stiffness, and cyanosis. However, reflex anoxic seizures have a faster recovery time compared to epileptic seizures, which usually have a longer recovery period.
Reflex Anoxic Seizures: A Brief Overview
Reflex anoxic seizures are a type of syncope or fainting episode that occurs in response to pain or emotional stimuli. This condition is believed to be caused by a temporary pause in the heart’s electrical activity due to overstimulation of the vagus nerve in children with sensitive reflexes. Reflex anoxic seizures are most commonly seen in young children between the ages of 6 months and 3 years.
During a reflex anoxic seizure, the child may suddenly become very pale and fall to the ground. Secondary anoxic seizures may also occur, which are brief episodes of muscle twitching or jerking. However, the child typically recovers quickly and without any long-term effects.
There is no specific treatment for reflex anoxic seizures, but it is important to identify and avoid triggers that may cause these episodes. The prognosis for children with reflex anoxic seizures is excellent, and most children outgrow this condition as they get older. By understanding the symptoms and triggers of reflex anoxic seizures, parents and caregivers can help manage this condition and ensure the safety and well-being of their child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe diarrhoea and vomiting for the past week. During his initial assessment, an ECG is performed, which reveals a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. His blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, heart rate is 82 bpm, and GCS is 15/15. Routine blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
- Sodium: 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium: 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Magnesium: 0.4 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
- Urea: 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine: 120 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What would be the initial management plan for this patient?Your Answer: IV magnesium
Explanation:In cases of hypomagnesaemia, particularly if the patient’s magnesium levels are below 0.4 mmol/L or if they are experiencing symptoms such as tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, IV magnesium is typically administered. This is the appropriate course of action for a patient who has presented with severe vomiting and diarrhea, as well as polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, as it is likely that their gastrointestinal losses have resulted in hypomagnesaemia, which has in turn led to torsades des pointes.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.
When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to your General Practice clinic complaining of worsening hearing and tinnitus. She is currently pregnant and has noticed a significant decline in her hearing, although she had hearing problems before her pregnancy. Her father and grandfather also had hearing problems, and she is concerned about her future. During the examination, both tympanic membranes appear normal without abnormalities detected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Eustachian tube dysfunction
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Common Cause of Hearing Loss in Pregnancy
Otosclerosis is a genetic condition that causes the stapes footplate to become fused to the oval window, resulting in hearing loss. While it is an autosomal dominant condition, many people develop it without a family history. Women are twice as likely to be affected, and bilateral deafness is common. The condition typically manifests during middle age and is worsened by pregnancy. Interestingly, background noise can actually improve hearing. Eustachian tube dysfunction is another common cause of hearing loss in pregnancy, but it is usually accompanied by otitis media with effusion. Wax build-up is unlikely to be the cause of hearing loss in this case, and normal age-related hearing loss is not consistent with the rapid progression of symptoms. While Meniere’s disease is a possibility, the lack of vertigo and family history make otosclerosis the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents to the Accident & Emergency Department following an overdose of one of his medications. On initial triage, his blood pressure is found to be 72/48 mmHg, heart rate 34 bpm and his serum blood glucose is recorded as 1.4 mmol/l. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus bradycardia. He has a past medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia.
Which of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Toxidrome Analysis: Identifying the Causative Agent in a Hypoglycaemic Patient
In cases of hypoglycaemia, it is important to consider all possible causative agents before initiating treatment. In this scenario, the patient presents with hypoglycaemia, bradycardia, and hypotension. After reviewing the patient’s medication history, the most likely agent responsible for this toxidrome is bisoprolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and dysrhythmias.
While amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, can cause hypotension in overdose, it is unlikely to cause the marked hypoglycaemia seen in this case. Digoxin, a cardiovascular agent, can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias, but the patient’s sinus bradycardia and hypoglycaemia make it a less likely causative agent than bisoprolol. Insulin overdose results in neuroglycopenia, but it would not lead to bradycardia and hypotension. Metformin overdose rarely results in hypoglycaemia, but the major concern is lactic acidosis.
Treatment for bisoprolol overdose involves airway management, fluid resuscitation, and glucagon therapy. Additional treatment options include vasopressors and lipid emulsion therapy. It is important to consider all possible causative agents and their specific toxidromes before initiating treatment for hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Rest and observation, with the patient kept nil by mouth
Correct Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery
Explanation:Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery
When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.
While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.
In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 40-year-old man in a heterosexual relationship is seeking advice on contraception options after undergoing a vasectomy. What recommendations can be provided to him?
Your Answer: Use additional contraception until semen analysis reveals azoospermia
Explanation:It is important to inform the patient that vasectomy is not an immediate form of contraception. A semen analysis must be performed twice after the procedure to confirm azoospermia before it can be used as contraception. Therefore, the most appropriate advice would be to use additional contraception until the semen analysis confirms azoospermia. While abstinence is a safe option, it may not be practical for the patient’s sexual life. Advising that there is no need for additional contraception or suggesting that the patient’s partner use hormonal contraception is incorrect. It is important to give advice directly to the patient. Additionally, there is no defined timeframe for when vasectomy becomes effective. The patient will need to produce a sample for analysis about 12 weeks after the procedure, and only when tests confirm azoospermia can the patient stop using additional contraception. This typically occurs around 16 to 20 weeks after the procedure.
Vasectomy: A Simple and Effective Male Sterilisation Method
Vasectomy is a male sterilisation method that has a failure rate of 1 per 2,000, making it more effective than female sterilisation. The procedure is simple and can be done under local anesthesia, with some cases requiring general anesthesia. After the procedure, patients can go home after a couple of hours. However, it is important to note that vasectomy does not work immediately.
To ensure the success of the procedure, semen analysis needs to be performed twice following a vasectomy before a man can have unprotected sex. This is usually done at 12 weeks after the procedure. While vasectomy is generally safe, there are some complications that may arise, such as bruising, hematoma, infection, sperm granuloma, and chronic testicular pain. This pain affects between 5-30% of men.
In the event that a man wishes to reverse the procedure, the success rate of vasectomy reversal is up to 55% if done within 10 years. However, the success rate drops to approximately 25% after more than 10 years. Overall, vasectomy is a simple and effective method of male sterilisation, but it is important to consider the potential complications and the need for semen analysis before engaging in unprotected sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Correct
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A 42-year-old male accountant suddenly collapsed at work, complaining of a severe headache and nausea. He had been feeling fine in the days leading up to this incident. He had a medical history of hypertension and took regular medication for it. He did not smoke or drink alcohol.
Upon arrival at the Emergency department, the patient had a Glasgow coma scale score of 12/15 (motor 6, vocal 3, eyes 3) and nuchal rigidity. His blood pressure was 145/85 mmHg, pulse was 90 beats per minute and regular, and temperature was 37.1°C. Heart sounds were normal and the chest appeared clear.
During cranial nerve examination, a left dilated unreactive pupil with oculoparesis of the left medial rectus was observed. Fundoscopy showed no abnormalities. There were no obvious focal neurological signs on examining the peripheral nervous system, although both plantar responses were extensor.
A lumbar puncture was performed, revealing straw-colored fluid with the following results:
- Opening pressure: 15 cmH2O (normal range: 6-18)
- CSF white cell count: 6 cells per ml (normal range: <5)
- CSF red cell count: 1450 cells per ml (normal range: <5)
- CSF protein: 0.46 g/L (normal range: 0.15-0.45)
- Cytospin: Negative for cells
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
Explanation:The Oculomotor Nerve and its Effects on Eye Movement and Pupil Size
The oculomotor nerve nucleus complex is located in the midbrain and is responsible for controlling the movement of several eye muscles. Motor neurons from this complex project to the ipsilateral medial rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles, as well as the contralateral superior rectus. Additionally, a central nucleus innervates the levator palpebrae superioris bilaterally, so damage to this area can result in bilateral ptosis.
If the oculomotor nerve is damaged during its course, it can result in ipsilateral ptosis and restrict movement of the eye in certain directions. The effect on the pupil can vary depending on the location of the lesion. However, compression of the nerve, such as by a tumor or aneurysm, can result in an acute total third nerve palsy with a dilated unreactive pupil. This is because the parasympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the iris are carried on the outside of the nerve bundle, causing pupillary dilation early on.
Interestingly, third nerve lesions caused by infarction in patients over 50 years old with diabetes or hypertension often spare the pupil. This means that the pupil remains reactive despite the damage to the nerve. the effects of oculomotor nerve damage can help diagnose and treat various eye conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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As a first-year resident on a surgical rotation, which of the following procedures would necessitate the use of prophylactic antibiotics?
Your Answer: Appendicectomy
Explanation:Preventing Surgical Site Infections
Surgical site infections (SSI) are a common complication following surgery, with up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections being SSIs. These infections occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces, allowing normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. In many cases, the organisms causing the infection are derived from the patient’s own body. Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include shaving the wound using a razor, using a non-iodine impregnated incise drape, tissue hypoxia, and delayed administration of prophylactic antibiotics in tourniquet surgery.
To prevent SSIs, there are several steps that can be taken before, during, and after surgery. Before surgery, it is recommended to avoid routine removal of body hair and to use electrical clippers with a single-use head if hair needs to be removed. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be considered for certain types of surgery, such as placement of a prosthesis or valve, clean-contaminated surgery, and contaminated surgery. Local formulary should be used, and a single-dose IV antibiotic should be given on anesthesia. If a tourniquet is to be used, prophylactic antibiotics should be given earlier.
During surgery, the skin should be prepared with alcoholic chlorhexidine, which has been shown to have the lowest incidence of SSI. The surgical site should be covered with a dressing, and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer any benefit. Postoperatively, tissue viability advice should be given for the management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention. The use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated in the NICE guidelines, but several randomized controlled trials have demonstrated no increase in the risk of SSI when diathermy is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Correct
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A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having been admitted multiple times in the past six months for the same issue. His admission blood work reveals the following:
Na+ 143 mmol/l Bilirubin 8 µmol/l
K+ 3.8 mmol/l ALP 88 u/l
Urea 4.3 mmol/l ALT 33 u/l
Creatinine 88 µmol/l γGT 33 u/l
Amylase 103 u/l Albumin 49 g/l
The medical team suspects chronic pancreatitis. Which imaging modality would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?Your Answer: CT pancreas with intravenous contrast
Explanation:The preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis is a CT scan of the pancreas, which uses intravenous contrast to detect pancreatic calcification. This is because calcification may not be visible on plain abdominal X-rays, which are less sensitive. While a CT scan of the abdomen may also detect calcifications, it is less clear for the pancreas than a pancreatic protocol CT. MRI and ultrasound are not effective for imaging a non-inflamed pancreas, and MRI is particularly poor at detecting calcification as it relies on fluid in the imaged tissues, which calcified tissue lacks.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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A 71-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding. The blood is not mixed in with the stool and is noticed on the paper after defecation. She has been becoming more constipated over the last 6 months; however, she reports no weight loss or change in dietary habits. There is a past medical history of haemorrhoids 10 years ago, which were treated with creams. On examination, she appears well. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, without organomegaly. Rectal examination reveals two third-degree haemorrhoids. She is anxious because her father died 15 years ago from colorectal cancer.
What is the gold standard investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Colorectal Cancer Investigations: Colonoscopy, CT Colonography, Barium Enema, Flexible Sigmoidoscopy, and Proctoscopy
When a patient has a first-degree relative with colorectal carcinoma or reports persistent and progressive changes in bowel habits, investigations are necessary to detect any malignancy. While haemorrhoids may be the cause of bleeding, the presence of a coexisting lesion cannot be excluded without further investigation.
Colonoscopy is the gold standard investigation for suspected colorectal cancer, allowing for examination of the large bowel and removal of suspicious lesions. CT colonography is a second-line alternative for patients unable to undergo a full colonoscopy, while a barium enema may be considered for those unable to complete colonoscopy.
Flexible sigmoidoscopy views the rectum, sigmoid colon, and distal descending colon, but does not provide information about the more proximal colon. Proctoscopy allows views of the rectum but does not provide information about lesions found further along the bowel.
In summary, early detection of colorectal cancer is crucial, and these investigations play a vital role in identifying and treating the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 21
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A 28-year-old female presents with acute kidney injury and pulmonary haemorrhage, and is diagnosed with anti-GBM disease (Goodpasture's disease) with very high antibody titres. She is started on plasma exchange with daily treatments for five days in addition to methylprednisolone. What is a complication of plasma exchange that is unlikely to occur?
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Plasma Exchange and its Side Effects
Plasma exchange is a medical procedure that involves taking blood from a patient, separating the cells and large proteins from the plasma and smaller proteins, and replacing the plasma with either donated fresh-frozen plasma or human albumin solution. This process removes low molecular weight proteins such as antibodies, but it also has a number of side effects. These side effects are partly due to the removal of other components such as clotting factors, but they are also due to the blood products and anticoagulants used.
To address these complications, more specific methods of antibody removal have been developed, such as immunoabsorption. This method uses a column of beads coated in specific antigen, which separates the plasma and passes it over the column. Antigen-specific antibodies bind to the column, and antibody-free plasma can then be returned to the patient. This method is better for the patient because they do not lose clotting factors and avoid exposure to blood products.
Common side effects of plasma exchange include hypocalcaemia, which is a decrease in plasma ionised calcium due to the citrate anticoagulants used for replacement fluids such as human albumin solution and fresh frozen plasma. Bleeding can also occur due to the loss of clotting factors in the exchange, and transfusion with any blood products can lead to allergic reactions. Infection is also a risk due to the loss of protective immunoglobulins along with the autoantibodies, so it is important to monitor immunoglobulin levels during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 22
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The arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.2, p(O2) of 16.3 kPa, p(CO2) of 3.9 kPa, HCO3– of 16 mmol/l, and SaO2 of 94% on high-flow oxygen. Based on these results, which clinical scenario is most likely?
Your Answer: Bowel ischaemia
Explanation:Bowel ischaemia leads to a metabolic acidosis, as evidenced by a low pH, low HCO3–, and low p(CO2). This is caused by the release of lactate due to the lack of blood flow to the bowel. Pneumonia may cause a type 1 respiratory failure with low p(O2) and normal or low p(CO2), but it is less likely to cause an acidosis without hypoxia. Cardiogenic shock may result in pulmonary oedema and hypoxia, but it is unlikely to cause an acidosis. Chronic furosemide ingestion can cause metabolic acidosis, but it is not a likely cause for this patient. Hyperventilation can lead to an elevated pH and low p(CO2) due to the loss of p(CO2) faster than the kidneys can compensate with HCO3– reduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 23
Correct
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A family planning clinic is consulted by a couple who are hoping to have another child. They previously lost their first child to Tay Sachs disease. Upon genetic testing, it is discovered that both parents are carriers of the condition. What is the likelihood that their next child will also be a carrier?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:There are two possible scenarios for inheriting the TSD gene. In the first scenario, known as CC, both parents pass on the TSD gene to their child. In the second scenario, known as Cc, only one parent passes on the TSD gene while the other does not. Regardless of which scenario occurs, the patient will be a carrier and heterozygous. The likelihood of either scenario occurring is 25%.
Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of palpitations, tremors, sweating, and diarrhoea. She has a medical history of gestational hypertension and type 1 diabetes, which is managed with insulin. The patient gave birth to her first child 8 weeks ago without any complications.
Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 109 bpm, respiratory rate of 19 breaths/minute, temperature of 37.7ºC, oxygen saturation of 98%, blood pressure of 129/88 mmHg, and blood glucose of 4 mmol/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:The recommended treatment for the thyrotoxicosis phase of postpartum thyroiditis is typically propranolol alone. This is because the condition is usually temporary and self-resolving, with thyroid function returning to normal within a year after childbirth. Carbimazole is not necessary as it is typically reserved for more severe cases of hyperthyroidism. Dexamethasone is not appropriate as it is used to treat thyroid storm, a complication of thyrotoxicosis that is not present in this case. Levothyroxine is also not indicated as it is used to treat hypothyroidism, which is the opposite of the patient’s current condition.
Understanding Postpartum Thyroiditis: Stages and Management
Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition that affects some women after giving birth. It is characterized by three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, and normal thyroid function. During the thyrotoxicosis phase, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, leading to symptoms such as anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. In the hypothyroidism phase, the thyroid gland becomes underactive, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. However, in the final stage, the thyroid gland returns to normal function, although there is a high recurrence rate in future pregnancies.
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients with postpartum thyroiditis, which suggests an autoimmune component to the condition. Management of postpartum thyroiditis depends on the stage of the condition. During the thyrotoxic phase, symptom control is the main focus, and propranolol is typically used. Antithyroid drugs are not usually used as the thyroid gland is not overactive. In the hypothyroid phase, treatment with thyroxine is usually necessary to restore normal thyroid function.
It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to properly diagnose and manage postpartum thyroiditis to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 34-year-old female who is 28 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain. She is tachycardic but is otherwise stable. On examination, her uterus is tender and hard, but fetal lie is normal. Cardiotocography shows no signs of fetal distress.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Admit her and administer steroids
Explanation:When managing placental abruption in a case where the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks old, and not displaying any signs of distress, the appropriate course of action is to admit the patient and administer steroids. Admitting the patient is necessary for monitoring and providing necessary care. Steroids are given to aid in the maturation of fetal lungs. It is recommended to deliver the baby at 37-38 weeks due to the increased risk of stillbirth. Tocolytics are not routinely given due to their controversial nature and potential for maternal cardiovascular side effects. Discharging the patient with safety netting is not appropriate as the patient is symptomatic. Activating the major haemorrhage protocol, calling 2222, and performing an emergency caesarean section are not the most suitable options as the patient is not hypotensive and there are no signs of fetal distress.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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As an F1 on your first weekend on call, you are swamped with tasks. During this time, the nurses on a ward contact you to attend to a patient who has developed a fever. You diagnose the patient with an infection and prescribe antibiotics without verifying their allergies. The following day, during the post-take ward round, you learn that the patient is allergic to penicillin and that you had prescribed co-amoxiclav.
What is the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Ignore the error, as the patient is fine
Correct Answer: Stop the medication running immediately and inform the patient
Explanation:The Importance of Stopping Medication Errors Immediately
Prescription errors are common in medicine, and patient safety is always a priority. In the event of a medication error, the most appropriate action is to stop the medication running immediately to prevent harm to the patient. It is also important to inform the patient of the error, as they may have a delayed reaction. Creating a Datix form to emphasize prescribing safety is also important, but it should not take precedence over stopping the medication. It is unprofessional to ignore the error or cross off the prescription and pretend it never happened. Admitting the error to the team is important for transparency, but stopping the prescription should be the first action taken. Overall, stopping medication errors immediately is crucial for ensuring patient safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old receptionist visited her GP due to a rash on her left nipple area. She expressed discomfort and itchiness in the areola region. Upon further inquiry, she revealed that the rash has persisted for 8 weeks and has not improved with the use of E45 cream. The patient has a history of eczema, which is usually managed with E45 cream. She also mentioned that the rash started on the nipple and has spread outwards to the areola. During examination, the rash appeared crusty and erythematosus, but it did not extend beyond the nipple-areola complex. What additional measures should be taken?
Your Answer: Refer for routine dermatology opinion
Correct Answer: Breast clinic referral to be seen urgently by breast specialist
Explanation:The crucial aspect of this inquiry lies in the progression of the rash, which originated on the nipple and has since extended to encompass the areola. Despite any previous instances of eczema, it is imperative that a breast specialist is consulted immediately to eliminate the possibility of Paget’s disease.
Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with breast cancer. It is present in a small percentage of patients with breast cancer, typically around 1-2%. In half of these cases, there is an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of those patients will have an invasive carcinoma. Even in cases where there is no mass lesion, around 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma. The remaining cases will have carcinoma in situ.
One key difference between Paget’s disease and eczema of the nipple is that Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar, whereas eczema does the opposite. Diagnosis of Paget’s disease involves a punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment will depend on the underlying lesion causing the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed as being vitamin B12-deficient with a B12 level of < 50 pmol/l (160–900 pmol/l) and a haemoglobin (Hb) level of 85 (115–155 g/l). It is not diet-related.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg im three times a week for two weeks and then 1 mg im 3-monthly
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pernicious Anemia with Hydroxocobalamin
Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, often due to the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Hydroxocobalamin is a form of vitamin B12 that can be used for supplementation in patients with pernicious anemia. Here are some treatment options with hydroxocobalamin:
1. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM three times a week for two weeks, then 1 mg IM every three months: This is the standard dose for patients with pernicious anemia without neurological deficits.
2. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM on alternate days indefinitely: This is used for patients with pernicious anemia and neurological involvement until symptom improvement reaches a plateau, then maintenance involves 1 mg IM every two months.
3. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IV three times a week for two weeks, then monthly: This is used for the treatment of cyanide poisoning, not for pernicious anemia.
4. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg IM three times a week for two weeks, then oral 1 mg hydroxocobalamin: Oral supplementation is not appropriate for patients with pernicious anemia due to absorption issues.
5. Hydroxocobalamin 1 mg subcutaneously three times a week for two weeks, monthly for three months, then 3-monthly: Hydroxocobalamin is administered IM, not subcutaneously.
In conclusion, hydroxocobalamin is an effective treatment option for pernicious anemia, but the dosage and administration route should be carefully considered based on the patient’s individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male with a history of alcohol dependence and chronic hepatitis presents with reduced consciousness. He was discovered at home by a friend who reported that he had been depressed and threatening suicide.
Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachycardic and hypotensive, with a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. His Glasgow coma scale is 13/15, and there are no signs of jaundice or hepatomegaly. A plasma-paracetamol concentration of 70 mg/litre is detected.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV acetylcysteine
Explanation:Treatment for Paracetamol Overdose
This patient may have taken too much paracetamol, but it is unclear when this occurred. The paracetamol level in their blood is 70 mg/litre, which is difficult to interpret without knowing the timing of the overdose. If there is any doubt about the timing or need for treatment, the patient should receive N-acetylcysteine. In remote areas where this is not available, oral methionine can be used instead. Gastric lavage, which involves washing out the stomach, is not typically helpful for patients who have only overdosed on paracetamol. Overall, prompt treatment is essential to prevent serious liver damage and other complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with four episodes of oral ulceration in the course of 1 year. These have taken up to 3 weeks to heal properly. She has also suffered from painful vaginal ulceration. Additionally, there have been intermittent headaches, pain and swelling affecting both knees, and intermittent diarrhoea. On examination, there are several mouth ulcers of up to 1 cm in diameter. She also has erythema nodosum.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 50 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Elevated level of immunoglobulin A (IgA)
ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) negative
antiphospholipid antibody negative
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behçet’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Behçet’s Disease from Other Conditions: A Guide
Behçet’s disease is a syndrome characterized by recurrent painful oral ulceration, genital ulcers, ophthalmic lesions, skin lesions, and possible cerebral vasculitis. However, these symptoms can also be present in other conditions, making diagnosis challenging. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) mainly affects the lungs, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract, but does not typically present with ulceration. Herpes simplex is not associated with systemic features, while bullous pemphigoid affects the skin and rarely the mouth. Pemphigus, on the other hand, presents with oral bullae and skin bullae but does not involve elevated levels of IgA. Treatment for Behçet’s disease is complex and depends on the extent of organ involvement and threat to vital organ function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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