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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is characterized by an increase in the size of the ventricles on structural neuroimaging over time?
Your Answer: Alzheimer's dementia
Explanation:Neuroimaging studies have shown that Alzheimer’s dementia is linked to a gradual increase in ventricular size, while schizophrenia is associated with non-progressive enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles. Although some studies have reported increased ventricular size in individuals with affective disorders, the findings are not consistent. Additionally, individuals with antisocial personality disorder may have reduced prefrontal gray matter volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is a subset of the WAIS that measures perceptual reasoning?
Your Answer: Letter-number sequencing
Correct Answer: Block Design
Explanation:The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the effect of naloxone?
Your Answer: It causes miosis at therapeutic doses
Correct Answer: It displaces both opioid agonists and partial antagonists
Explanation:Naloxone hydrochloride is a morphine derivative that acts as a specific opioid antagonist by competitively binding to opioid receptors. It has a strong affinity for these receptor sites and can displace both opioid agonists and partial antagonists. Despite being administered at high doses (up to 10 times the usual therapeutic dose), naloxone does not produce significant analgesia, respiratory depression, psychotomimetic effects, circulatory changes, of miosis. In the absence of opioids of other agonistic effects of opioid antagonists, naloxone has no pharmacologic activity. It is a competitive antagonist at the mu, kappa, and delta receptors, with a high affinity for the mu receptor but lacking any mu receptor efficacy.
Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications
Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.
There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.
Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following indicates evidence of linkage based on the LOD score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: > 3
Explanation:Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics
In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.
To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A high school student passes their final exams having based their revision solely on past exam papers. On the other hand, another student who has studied extensively from textbooks fails the same exams despite having gained vast knowledge. What does this scenario illustrate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Practice effect
Explanation:When preparing for the MRCPsych exam, it is not advisable to solely rely on textbooks. One question that has been appearing on the exam is about the Hawthorne effect, which describes how individuals alter their behavior when they are aware of being observed. Another cognitive bias is the halo effect, where the perception of one trait is influenced by the perception of another trait, such as assuming intelligence based on the presence of glasses. It is worth noting that this question was originally written here.
The Practice Effect and Its Impact on Test Scores
The practice effect is a phenomenon that occurs when individuals take a test multiple times, resulting in higher scores due to their previous experience. This effect is most noticeable when the time between the two tests is short. The practice effect can have a significant impact on test scores, as individuals who have taken a test before are likely to perform better than those who have not. This effect is particularly relevant in educational settings, where students may take multiple tests throughout a semester of academic year. Understanding the practice effect can help educators and researchers better interpret test scores and make more informed decisions about student performance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is a common compulsion that may be present in individuals with OCD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Checking locks
Explanation:The typical compulsive behaviors in OCD involve checking locks, taps, and safety issues, which serve to alleviate anxiety and reinforce the behavior. Breath-holding is not a common manifestation of OCD, nor is hand-wringing of stepping on cracks in the pavement. While fear of contamination is a common obsession, it is not a compulsion in and of itself. Instead, the compulsion typically involves behaviors aimed at avoiding contamination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is a common phenomenon observed among adolescents from immigrant backgrounds where adolescents take on the culture/practices of their new country and give up their own culture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Assimilation
Explanation:Assimilation is another phenomenon commonly observed among adolescents from immigrant backgrounds.
Assimilation refers to the process by which individuals adopt the cultural norms, values, and practices of the dominant culture in which they reside, often at the expense of their own cultural heritage. In the context of immigrant adolescents, assimilation may involve adopting the language, customs, clothing, and behaviors of the majority culture in order to fit in and gain acceptance within their new environment.
While assimilation can facilitate integration into the mainstream society and may provide certain advantages, such as improved access to education and employment opportunities, it can also result in a loss of cultural identity and connection to one’s heritage.
High degree of adoption of new culture and high degree of retention of culture of origin result in integration, while low degree of adoption of new culture and high degree of retention of culture of origin lead to separation. On the other hand, high degree of adoption of new culture and low degree of retention of culture of origin result in assimilation, while low degree of adoption of new culture and low degree of retention of culture of origin lead to marginalization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman complains of muscle stiffness and a face that appears frozen. She undergoes a DAT scan.
Which region of the brain would exhibit a decrease in dopaminergic function on the DAT scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Substantia nigra
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is caused by the destruction of dopaminergic cells in the substantia nigra, resulting in a reduction of dopamine levels that can be detected through a DAT scan. The corpus callosum is a bundle of nerve fibers that connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres, allowing for communication between them. The dentate gyrus, located in the medial temporal lobe, plays a role in memory. Wernicke’s area, found on the left temporal lobe, is responsible for language comprehension and development. The cerebellum, located in the hindbrain, coordinates movement, muscle tone, balance, and equilibrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological Examination
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes sporadic CJD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It tends to affect older rather than younger people
Explanation:Variant CJD primarily affects younger individuals, while sporadic CJD is more commonly seen in older individuals.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.
vCJD:
– Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
– Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
– MRI shows pulvinar sign
– EEG shows generalized slowing
– Originates from infected meat products
– Affects younger people (age 25-30)CJD:
– Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
– Presents with neurological symptoms
– MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
– EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
– Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
– Affects older people (age 55-65)Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A male adolescent patient reports experiencing erectile dysfunction and premature ejaculation after starting antipsychotic medication. Which receptor site is responsible for the antipsychotic effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: alpha 1
Explanation:Men may experience difficulties with achieving erections and ejaculation when taking medications that inhibit peripheral alpha 1-adrenoceptors. Antipsychotics can lead to disrupted sexual arousal due to their antimuscarinic effects. Impairment of both desire and arousal may occur as a result of dopaminergic blockade and hyperprolactinaemia. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants, which increase serotonin activity, have been associated with anorgasmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult male?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 440
Explanation:While the upper limit technically reaches 439, it is evident that 440 is the optimal choice among the options provided.
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An individual who has struggled with alcohol addiction expresses frustration over constantly craving alcohol despite no longer enjoying its effects. What is this an example of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incentive salience
Explanation:Understanding Incentive Salience and its Role in Addiction and Grief
Incentive salience is a process that drives the brain to desire certain things, such as drugs, and is mediated by mesolimbic dopamine systems. This process is separate from the experience of pleasure, and a person can want something they don’t necessarily like. Desire is amplified by brain states that heighten dopamine reactivity, such as stress, emotional excitement, relevant appetites, of intoxication. This state-dependent amplification of incentive salience is one reason why many addicts find it difficult to stop at just one hit.
Interestingly, grief has been hypothesized to be underpinned by a very similar process as drug addiction, referred to as the ‘incentive salience theory of grief’. Understanding the distinction between liking and wanting can help us better understand addiction and grief, and how the brain processes these experiences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about clozapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It affects adrenergic receptors
Explanation:Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a patient undergoing neuropsychiatric evaluation with a CT scan revealing atrophy of the head of the caudate nucleus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:The Basal Ganglia: Functions and Disorders
The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical structures that play a crucial role in controlling movement and some cognitive processes. The components of the basal ganglia include the striatum (caudate, putamen, nucleus accumbens), subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra (divided into pars compacta and pars reticulata). The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the lenticular nucleus.
The basal ganglia are connected in a complex loop, with the cortex projecting to the striatum, the striatum to the internal segment of the globus pallidus, the internal segment of the globus pallidus to the thalamus, and the thalamus back to the cortex. This loop is responsible for regulating movement and cognitive processes.
However, problems with the basal ganglia can lead to several conditions. Huntington’s chorea is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus, while Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper deposition in the basal ganglia. Parkinson’s disease is associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra, and hemiballism results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus.
In summary, the basal ganglia are a crucial part of the brain that regulate movement and some cognitive processes. Disorders of the basal ganglia can lead to significant neurological conditions that affect movement and other functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the underlying cause of disease according to the diathesis-stress model?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A predisposition for a disease and a triggering event
Explanation:Diathesis-Stress Model
The Diathesis-Stress Model acknowledges that a person’s behavior is influenced by both their experiences and genetics. This model proposes that some individuals have a pre-existing vulnerability (diathesis) towards a particular illness, and that certain environmental stressors can trigger the onset of the illness. The model emphasizes the interplay between nature and nurture in shaping a person’s mental health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which area of the central nervous system is indicated by a positive outcome in the finger-to-nose test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:The finger-nose test requires the patient to touch their nose and then the examiner’s finger consecutively. If the patient is unable to perform this task, it indicates motor dysmetria, which is a lack of coordination and may indicate a cerebellar injury.
Cerebellar Dysfunction: Symptoms and Signs
Cerebellar dysfunction is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. The symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction include ataxia, intention tremor, nystagmus, broad-based gait, slurred speech, dysdiadochokinesis, and dysmetria (lack of finger-nose coordination).
Ataxia refers to the lack of coordination of voluntary movements, resulting in unsteady gait, difficulty with balance, and clumsiness. Intention tremor is a type of tremor that occurs during voluntary movements, such as reaching for an object. Nystagmus is an involuntary movement of the eyes, characterized by rapid, jerky movements.
Broad-based gait refers to a wide stance while walking, which is often seen in individuals with cerebellar dysfunction. Slurred speech, also known as dysarthria, is a common symptom of cerebellar dysfunction, which affects the ability to articulate words clearly. Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as tapping the fingers on the palm of the hand.
Dysmetria refers to the inability to accurately judge the distance and direction of movements, resulting in errors in reaching for objects of touching the nose with the finger. These symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction can be caused by a variety of conditions, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and alcoholism. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, physical therapy, and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of developing Alzheimer's disease (AD) in an individual with one copy of the apoE4 allele compared to those without any copies of the allele?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three times higher (odds ratio = 3)
Explanation:First degree relatives of patients with Alzheimer’s disease (AD) have a threefold higher risk of developing the disease compared to non-relatives. The most significant genetic risk factor for AD is the apolipoprotein E (apo E) gene, located on chromosome 19q, which has three codominant alleles: e2, e3, and e4. The e4 allele, which is overrepresented, and the e2 allele, which is underrepresented, are associated with AD. In Caucasians, individuals who are homozygous for e4 have 14.9 times greater odds of developing AD, while those who are heterozygous for e3/e4 have 3.2 times greater odds compared to those who are homozygous for e3. Additionally, e4 homozygotes tend to develop AD at an earlier age, by approximately two decades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which type of dementia is characterized by the presence of clumps of aggregated alpha synuclein in the cell bodies and axons of neurons?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Alpha-synuclein is the main component of Lewy bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the cytoplasm of neurons and appear eosinophilic.
Lewy body dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopically, there is cerebral atrophy, but it is less marked than in Alzheimer’s disease, and the brain weight is usually in the normal range. There is also pallor of the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus, which are regions of the brain that produce dopamine and norepinephrine, respectively.
Microscopically, Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular protein accumulations called Lewy bodies. The major component of a Lewy body is alpha synuclein, and as they grow, they start to draw in other proteins such as ubiquitin. Lewy bodies are also found in Alzheimer’s disease, but they tend to be in the amygdala. They can also be found in healthy individuals, although it has been suggested that these may be pre-clinical cases of dementia with Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are also found in other neurodegenerative disorders such as progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, and multiple system atrophy.
In Lewy body dementia, Lewy bodies are mainly found within the brainstem, but they are also found in non-brainstem regions such as the amygdaloid nucleus, parahippocampal gyrus, cingulate cortex, and cerebral neocortex. Classic brainstem Lewy bodies are spherical intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, characterized by hyaline eosinophilic cores, concentric lamellar bands, narrow pale halos, and immunoreactivity for alpha synuclein and ubiquitin. In contrast, cortical Lewy bodies typically lack a halo.
Most brains with Lewy body dementia also show some plaques and tangles, although in most instances, the lesions are not nearly as severe as in Alzheimer’s disease. Neuronal loss and gliosis are usually restricted to brainstem regions, particularly the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heroin
Explanation:The mechanism of action of heroin involves attaching to opiate receptors, which are G-coupled. This attachment results in the suppression of cellular activity through stimulation.
Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A boy who is secretly struggling with their sexuality puts on a show of being interested in the opposite sex and constantly talks about their crushes on girls to their peers. What defense mechanism are they exhibiting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old individual who wants to quit smoking is considering bupropion. What class of antidepressant does bupropion fall under?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI)
Explanation:Bupropion is classified as a norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) and is used in smoking cessation by increasing dopamine levels in the limbic area, which reduces cravings. Other types of reuptake inhibitors include norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (NRIs) such as atomoxetine and reboxetine, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as fluoxetine, paroxetine, citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, and fluvoxamine, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) such as venlafaxine, desvenlafaxine, duloxetine, and milnacipran, and tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline, nortriptyline, trazodone, and nefazodone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A clinical trial involving participants with depression administered an intravenous infusion of a trial drug, while the control arm received midazolam (benzodiazepine). Within 24 hours of the infusion, those in the active arm of the trial exhibited a higher average response on the clinical rating scale and a greater number of responders overall. However, notable side effects were observed in the active trial arm, including dizziness, blurred vision, headache, nausea of vomiting, dry mouth, poor coordination, poor concentration, feelings of dissociation, and restlessness. What is the most likely drug used in the active arm of the trial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine, typically used in emergency medicine and paediatric anaesthesia, has been found to possess antidepressant properties and is currently being studied for its rapid onset efficacy. However, its acute side effect of inducing dissociation has raised concerns about its suitability for individuals with psychotic symptoms of emotionally unstable personality disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What structure is situated in the anterior part of the brain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens
Explanation:The nucleus accumbens is situated in the forebrain and is a component of the basal ganglia, which is one of the three major divisions of the brain. The remaining choices refer to structures located in the midbrain.
The Basal Ganglia: Functions and Disorders
The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical structures that play a crucial role in controlling movement and some cognitive processes. The components of the basal ganglia include the striatum (caudate, putamen, nucleus accumbens), subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra (divided into pars compacta and pars reticulata). The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the lenticular nucleus.
The basal ganglia are connected in a complex loop, with the cortex projecting to the striatum, the striatum to the internal segment of the globus pallidus, the internal segment of the globus pallidus to the thalamus, and the thalamus back to the cortex. This loop is responsible for regulating movement and cognitive processes.
However, problems with the basal ganglia can lead to several conditions. Huntington’s chorea is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus, while Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper deposition in the basal ganglia. Parkinson’s disease is associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra, and hemiballism results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus.
In summary, the basal ganglia are a crucial part of the brain that regulate movement and some cognitive processes. Disorders of the basal ganglia can lead to significant neurological conditions that affect movement and other functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which condition is characterized by experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations and excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcolepsy
Explanation:Sleep Disorders
The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.
Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A postdoctoral researcher studying neurodegenerative diseases is interested in investigating the genetic mutation linked to tau protein in FTLD. Their goal is to conduct gene modification experiments in rodent models. What is the gene symbol associated with tau protein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MAPT
Explanation:MAPT, C9ORF72, CHMP2B, PGRN, and VCP are all genes that have been implicated in neurodegenerative diseases. Mutations in these genes can lead to changes in protein function and aggregation, which can disrupt normal cellular processes and contribute to disease pathology. Specifically, MAPT mutations affect the tau protein’s ability to stabilize microtubules, C9ORF72 mutations lead to neuronal inclusions, CHMP2B mutations disrupt protein degradation pathways, PGRN mutations affect inflammation and wound repair, and VCP mutations affect a wide range of cellular functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is true about hyponatremia caused by antidepressants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset is usually within 30 days of starting treatment
Explanation:Hyponatremia is commonly linked to the use of SSRIs (antidepressants) and typical antipsychotics.
Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
-
The shift towards a more typical existence for individuals with developmental disabilities, away from institutionalized care, is known as what?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normalisation
Explanation:Normalisation in Learning Disability Care
Normalisation is a concept that is widely used in the field of learning disability care. It refers to the principles of providing individuals with a life experience that is as normal as possible. This approach is a departure from the traditional model of institutionalised care, which often isolates individuals from the wider community. Normalisation aims to create an environment that is inclusive and supportive, where individuals can participate in everyday activities and have access to the same opportunities as everyone else. By promoting independence and social integration, normalisation helps to improve the quality of life for people with learning disabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 29
Incorrect
-
During what time frame is social smiling typically observed in child development?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6-8 weeks
Explanation:The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants
Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.
Child Development Milestones:
4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
6 weeks Begins social smiling*
3 months Holds head steady on sitting
6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
5 years Copies a triangle, skips -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient with first onset psychosis is prescribed olanzapine and shows a good response. After twelve months of therapy, their BMI has increased from 25 to 35. An attempt to reduce the dose precipitates a relapse in their illness, lifestyle interventions are also unsuccessful. A trial of a switch to which of the following antipsychotics would be indicated in order to attempt to reduce their weight whilst also addressing the psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 31
Incorrect
-
What is the cell type that offers structural support in the central nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Astrocyte
Explanation:Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System
The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.
Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.
Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.
Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.
Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.
In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
Which component is not considered a key element in Link and Phelan's stigma model?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scapegoating
Explanation:Stigma Models
Stigma refers to any attribute, trait, of disorder that marks an individual as being unacceptably different from the normal people with whom they routinely interact, and that elicits some form of community sanction. The most popular model of stigma comes from the work of Link and Phelan, which has four aspects to it.
The first aspect is labelling, which refers to personal characteristics that mark individuals as different. These characteristics can be physical, mental, of social in nature and can include things like race, gender, sexual orientation, of mental illness.
The second aspect is stereotyping, which involves linking labelled characteristics to undesirable characteristics. For example, people with mental illness may be stereotyped as violent of unpredictable, even though the vast majority of them are not.
The third aspect is separating, which involves separating the labelled group and normal people by viewing them as very different. This can lead to social isolation and exclusion, which can further exacerbate the negative effects of stigma.
The fourth and final aspect is status loss and discrimination, which refers to the devaluing, rejecting, and excluding of the labelled group. This can take many forms, including employment discrimination, housing discrimination, and social exclusion.
Overall, the model of stigma developed by Link and Phelan provides a useful framework for understanding the complex and multifaceted nature of stigma and its effects on individuals and society as a whole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
What triggers the release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a catecholamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:Catecholamines are a group of chemical compounds that have a distinct structure consisting of a benzene ring with two hydroxyl groups, an intermediate ethyl chain, and a terminal amine group. These compounds play an important role in the body and are involved in various physiological processes. The three main catecholamines found in the body are dopamine, adrenaline, and noradrenaline. All of these compounds are derived from the amino acid tyrosine. Overall, catecholamines are essential for maintaining proper bodily functions and are involved in a wide range of physiological processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
Piaget's theory of child development suggests that when a child attempts to feed from a bottle for the first time, they must adjust their sucking technique. What is this an example of according to Piaget's theory?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accommodation
Explanation:Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts
Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.
The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.
The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.
The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.
Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.
Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
A teacher is eager to teach her middle school student better study habits. She starts by praising the student for simply sitting down at their desk to do homework. She then gives praise when the student opens their textbook and begins reading. She waits until the student has read a few pages and takes notes before issuing more praise. How would you describe the teacher's approach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shaping
Explanation:Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the occurrence where natural fluctuations in repeated data can appear as actual change due to the tendency of unusually high of low measurements to be followed by measurements that are closer to the average?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regression to the mean
Explanation:Regression to the mean is a statistical occurrence where the natural fluctuations in repeated data can appear as actual changes. This happens because measurements that are exceptionally high of low are typically followed by measurements that are closer to the average.
Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about attachment theory?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bowlby's 'attachment in the making' phase occurs from 6 weeks to 8 months
Explanation:Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys
Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.
Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.
Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors is believed to have no negative effect on sexual function?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lurasidone
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management
Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
In what type of epilepsy is it most common to experience an aura?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complex partial
Explanation:This question is presented in two variations on the exam, with one implying that auras are primarily linked to temporal lobe epilepsy and the other to complex partial seizures. In reality, partial seizures are most commonly associated with auras compared to other types of seizures. While partial seizures can originate in any lobe of the brain, those that arise in the temporal lobe are most likely to produce an aura. Therefore, both versions of the question are accurate.
Epilepsy and Aura
An aura is a subjective sensation that is a type of simple partial seizure. It typically lasts only a few seconds and can help identify the site of cortical onset. There are eight recognized types of auras, including somatosensory, visual, auditory, gustatory, olfactory, autonomic, abdominal, and psychic.
In about 80% of cases, auras precede temporal lobe seizures. The most common auras in these seizures are abdominal and psychic, which can cause a rising epigastric sensation of feelings of fear, déjà vu, of jamais vu. Parietal lobe seizures may begin with a contralateral sensation, usually of the positive type, such as an electrical sensation of tingling. Occipital lobe seizures may begin with contralateral visual changes, such as colored lines, spots, of shapes, of even a loss of vision. Temporal-parietal-occipital seizures may produce more formed auras.
Complex partial seizures are defined by impairment of consciousness, which means decreased responsiveness and awareness of oneself and surroundings. During a complex partial seizure, a patient is unresponsive and does not remember events that occurred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
Which process breaks down dopamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COMT, MAO-B and MAO-A
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
A teenager with schizophrenia is admitted to the ward. They are assessed and appear to have both positive and negative symptoms. Which of the following assessment tools would be most useful in monitoring their psychotic symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PANSS
Explanation:Schizophrenia Assessment Tools: Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS)
As a language model AI, I am familiar with the rating scales used to assess individuals with schizophrenia. Two of the most commonly used scales are the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) and the Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS). While there are many other scales available, these two are particularly important for exam purposes. The BPRS is a tool used to assess the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia, including positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms such as apathy and social withdrawal. The PANSS, on the other hand, is a more comprehensive tool that assesses both positive and negative symptoms, as well as general psychopathology. Both scales are useful in helping clinicians to evaluate the severity of symptoms in individuals with schizophrenia and to monitor their progress over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
How is the pairwise concordance rate determined in a twin study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Number of twin pairs where both twins have the trait divided by the total number of twin pairs
Explanation:Concordance rates are used in twin studies to investigate the genetic contribution to a trait of condition. Concordance refers to the presence of the same trait of condition in both members of a twin pair. There are two main methods of calculating twin concordance rates: pairwise and probandwise. These methods produce different results and are calculated differently. The probandwise method is generally preferred as it provides more meaningful information in a genetic counseling setting.
The table below shows an example of a population of 100,000 MZ twin pairs, and the pairwise and probandwise concordance rates calculated from this population. Pairwise concordance is the probability that both twins in a pair are affected by the trait of condition. Probandwise concordance is the probability that a twin is affected given that their co-twin is affected. Both methods are conditional probabilities, but pairwise applies to twin pairs, while probandwise applies to individual twins. This is why probandwise is preferred, as it helps predict the risk at the individual level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
Which base pairs are found within DNA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guanine and cytosine
Explanation:Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.
Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.
The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about Williams syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is commonly associated with hyperacusis
Explanation:Williams syndrome is a genetic condition resulting from the deletion of a portion of chromosome 7. Individuals with this syndrome often experience cognitive challenges, but possess strong social skills and impressive language abilities. While hyperacusis is a common symptom, those affected often have a passion for music and may excel in this area. Williams syndrome is also linked to endocrine irregularities, specifically hypercalcemia.
Understanding Williams Syndrome
Williams syndrome is a rare neurodevelopmental disorder that is characterized by distinct physical and behavioral traits. Individuals with this syndrome have a unique facial appearance, including a low nasal bridge and a cheerful demeanor. They also tend to have mild to moderate mental retardation and are highly sociable and verbal.
Children with Williams syndrome are particularly sensitive to sound and may overreact to loud of high-pitched noises. The syndrome is caused by a deletion in the q11.23 region of chromosome 7, which codes for more than 20 genes. This deletion typically occurs during the recombination phase of meiosis and can be detected using fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH).
Although Williams syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition, most cases are not inherited and occur sporadically in individuals with no family history of the disorder. With a prevalence of around 1 in 20,000, Williams syndrome is a rare condition that requires specialized care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
A child is referred to a neurologist. On entering the neurologist's room, the child is observed to have a broad-based gait. When introduced, the child's speech is noted to be abnormal. When the child attempts to shake the doctor's hand, a tremor is observed. Which area of the brain is likely to be dysfunctional?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:Cerebellar Dysfunction: Symptoms and Signs
Cerebellar dysfunction is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. The symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction include ataxia, intention tremor, nystagmus, broad-based gait, slurred speech, dysdiadochokinesis, and dysmetria (lack of finger-nose coordination).
Ataxia refers to the lack of coordination of voluntary movements, resulting in unsteady gait, difficulty with balance, and clumsiness. Intention tremor is a type of tremor that occurs during voluntary movements, such as reaching for an object. Nystagmus is an involuntary movement of the eyes, characterized by rapid, jerky movements.
Broad-based gait refers to a wide stance while walking, which is often seen in individuals with cerebellar dysfunction. Slurred speech, also known as dysarthria, is a common symptom of cerebellar dysfunction, which affects the ability to articulate words clearly. Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as tapping the fingers on the palm of the hand.
Dysmetria refers to the inability to accurately judge the distance and direction of movements, resulting in errors in reaching for objects of touching the nose with the finger. These symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction can be caused by a variety of conditions, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and alcoholism. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, physical therapy, and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of lithium toxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic impairment
Explanation:Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
What is evaluated in the 'Hayling test'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sentence completion
Explanation:Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests
The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.
The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
Which sensory component is correctly matched with its corresponding cranial nerve reflex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gag reflex - IX cranial nerve
Explanation:The question specifically requests the sensory aspect.
Cranial Nerve Reflexes
When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:
– Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
– Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
– Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
– Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
– Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
When bodybuilders and performance athletes misuse drugs, which one is most likely to cause mood swings and aggressive behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nandrolone
Explanation:Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications
Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.
There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.
Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.
Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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