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  • Question 1 - Which terms are most commonly associated with Goffman? ...

    Correct

    • Which terms are most commonly associated with Goffman?

      Your Answer: Total Institutions

      Explanation:

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which statement below best describes Cotard's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement below best describes Cotard's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Is more common in males than females

      Correct Answer: Occurs mostly in elderly age group

      Explanation:

      Cotard’s syndrome is a disorder characterized by sudden onset of nihilistic delusions, including beliefs of poverty, negation, and meaninglessness. Hypochondriacal delusions and feelings of guilt may also be present. This condition is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females, and is often associated with depression and organic illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What was the outcome of the war crimes tribunals that dealt with human...

    Incorrect

    • What was the outcome of the war crimes tribunals that dealt with human experimentation at the conclusion of World War II?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Geneva

      Correct Answer: Nuremberg Code

      Explanation:

      The Nuremberg Code is a set of ethical principles for human experimentation that emerged from the Nuremberg trials after World War II. It includes guidelines such as obtaining informed consent, avoiding harm to participants, and not conducting experiments that may result in death.

      The Helsinki Declaration, established by the World Medical Association, is another set of ethical principles for human research. It has been amended several times since its adoption in 1964 and provides guidelines for conducting research with human subjects.

      The Declaration of Geneva is a statement of a physician’s commitment to the humanitarian goals of medicine. It was created as a revision of the Hippocratic oath and has been amended and revised over time.

      The Nightingale Pledge is a statement of ethical principles for the nursing profession. It outlines the responsibilities and commitments of nurses to their patients and the healthcare system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the estimated number of alcohol units consumed by a 40-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated number of alcohol units consumed by a 40-year-old man who drinks a 10-glass (70 cl) bottle of 37.5% ABV vodka every day, on a weekly basis?

      Your Answer: 240

      Correct Answer: 190

      Explanation:

      To calculate the units of alcohol in a drink, multiply the volume in litres by the percentage alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a 70 cl (0.7 L) bottle of vodka with a 37.5% ABV contains 26 units. Consuming a bottle of this vodka every day for a week would result in approximately 190 units of alcohol (26 units x 7 days).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What behavior is the patient displaying when she consistently answers every question during...

    Incorrect

    • What behavior is the patient displaying when she consistently answers every question during an MMSE with the phrase Keep calm and carry on?

      Your Answer: Logoclonia

      Correct Answer: Verbal stereotypy

      Explanation:

      Verbal Stereotypy, Logoclonia, Neologism, Perseveration – Understanding Repetitive Language Behaviors

      Repetitive language behaviors can manifest in various forms, including verbal stereotypy, logoclonia, neologism, and perseveration. Verbal stereotypy involves the use of the same word of phrase regardless of the situation. Logoclonia is the repetition of the last syllable of a word. Neologism refers to the creation of a new word of the use of a known word with a different meaning. Perseveration is the repetition of the same response to different stimuli, which continues beyond the point of relevance. It is different from verbal stereotypy because the response is meaningful but inappropriate. Understanding these different forms of repetitive language behaviors can help in identifying and addressing them appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can Thomas Szasz's views be best represented?

      Your Answer: Suicide should be considered a criminal offence

      Correct Answer: Mental illness is not a disease

      Explanation:

      Throughout his career, Szasz contended that mental illness is merely a metaphor for difficulties in human existence, and that mental illnesses lack the objective reality of physical ailments like cancer. He opposed many aspects of the contemporary psychiatric system in developed countries.

      Antipsychiatry is a movement that emerged in the 1960s and challenges the traditional medical model of mental illness. It argues that mental illnesses are not biological of medical conditions but rather social constructs that reflect deviations from social norms. The movement has been associated with several famous figures, including Thomas Szasz, R.D. Laing, Michel Foucault, and Franco Basaglia. These individuals have criticized the psychiatric profession for its use of involuntary hospitalization, medication, and other forms of coercion in the treatment of mental illness. They have also advocated for alternative approaches to mental health care, such as community-based care and psychotherapy. Despite its controversial nature, the antipsychiatry movement has had a significant impact on the field of mental health and continues to influence the way we think about and treat mental illness today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What was the psychiatric thinking model that George Engel advocated for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the psychiatric thinking model that George Engel advocated for?

      Your Answer: Patient-centred model

      Correct Answer: Biopsychosocial model

      Explanation:

      In 1977, Engel introduced the term ‘biopsychosocial model’ in an article for Science, advocating for a more comprehensive approach to understanding psychiatric illness. The biomedical model, which originated in the mid 19th Century, has been widely used. Aaron Beck has promoted the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology in relation to depression. August Weismann developed genetic determinism in 1890. Brown and Stewart, among others, have advocated for patient-centred care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the options below indicates a strong urge of need to perform...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below indicates a strong urge of need to perform a certain behavior repeatedly?

      Your Answer: An irresistible, recurrent, and unpleasant thought that your hands are dirty

      Correct Answer: Repeating certain phrases in your mind that you feel driven to perform

      Explanation:

      The act of repeating phrases that one feels compelled to perform is considered a compulsion. Compulsions are actions, either physical or mental, that one feels driven to perform. Obsessions, on the other hand, are recurrent and intrusive thoughts, urges, of images. The urge to hoard, for example, is an obsession rather than a compulsion. Compulsions are not inherently pleasurable and are performed to reduce anxiety. It is important to note that in order to qualify as a compulsion under DSM-5, the behavior must be time-consuming (taking more than 1 hour per day) of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. Therefore, the behavior that is most suggestive of a compulsion is one that meets these criteria.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and...

    Incorrect

    • The concept that a teenager may have conflicting desires to excel academically and to maintain a social life was first examined in which theory?

      Your Answer: The divided self

      Correct Answer: The sick role

      Explanation:

      The Sick Role and Illness Behavior

      Mechanic and Volkart (1961) introduced the term illness behavior to describe how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to symptoms of physical dysfunction. Meanwhile, Talcott Parsons (1951) introduced the concept of the sick role as a temporary form of deviant behavior that is medically sanctioned.

      According to Parsons, a sick person experiences conflicting desires to recover from the illness and to enjoy the secondary gains of attention and exemption from normal duties. The sick role is characterized by several rules, including the exemption of the sick person from their normal social roles, which is legitimized by society through the physician. The severity of the illness determines the strength of the exemption.

      Additionally, sick persons are not held responsible for their illnesses, as they are beyond personal control. However, they have a duty to try to get well, as sickness is considered undesirable by society. Seeking competent technical help and cooperating with caregivers are also expected of sick persons.

      In summary, the sick role and illness behavior are important concepts in understanding how individuals respond to physical dysfunction and how society legitimizes and responds to illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What kind of tremor is commonly observed as a result of prolonged usage...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of tremor is commonly observed as a result of prolonged usage of antipsychotic drugs?

      Your Answer: Psychogenic tremor

      Correct Answer: Parkinsonian tremor

      Explanation:

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Who created the strange situation procedure, a test used to assess attachment? ...

    Correct

    • Who created the strange situation procedure, a test used to assess attachment?

      Your Answer: Ainsworth

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In his influential theory of psychiatric classification (1953), Lewis emphasized which method of...

    Incorrect

    • In his influential theory of psychiatric classification (1953), Lewis emphasized which method of diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiaxial formulation

      Correct Answer: Disturbance of part functions

      Explanation:

      Lewis’ Views on Mental Illness Diagnosis

      Lewis believed that mental illness could be understood by examining the disturbance of part functions of the brain, such as emotion, perception, and memory, as well as a reduction in general efficiency. However, he cautioned against using socially deviant behavior as a means of diagnosis. Instead, he advocated for a multi-axial formulation approach, which was first proposed by Essen-Möller in 1947. Lewis also warned against relying on response to psychotropic medication as a reliable method of diagnosis. Overall, Lewis emphasized the importance of a comprehensive and nuanced approach to diagnosing mental illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following symptoms is not associated with Gerstmann's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is not associated with Gerstmann's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dyscalculia

      Correct Answer: Prosopagnosia

      Explanation:

      Gerstmann’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Brain Lesions

      Gerstmann’s syndrome is a condition that is characterized by several symptoms, including dyscalculia, dysgraphia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation. Patients with this syndrome have been found to have lesions in areas such as the left frontal posterior, left parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes. The left angular gyrus, which is located at the junction of the temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes, seems to be the main area of overlap. Although the function of the angular gyrus is not well understood, it is believed to be involved in various functions such as calculation, spatial reasoning, understanding of ordinal concepts, and comprehension of metaphors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which option is not a treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not a treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Correct Answer: Antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      NMS is a potential side effect of antipsychotics.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the most probable outcome of damage to Broca's area? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable outcome of damage to Broca's area?

      Your Answer: Scanning speech

      Correct Answer: Non-fluent aphasia

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which antihistamine should be avoided when a patient is taking an MAOI medication?...

    Correct

    • Which antihistamine should be avoided when a patient is taking an MAOI medication?

      Your Answer: Chlorpheniramine

      Explanation:

      According to Gillman (1998), it is recommended to avoid using the antihistamines brompheniramine and chlorpheniramine as they act as serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SRIs). However, all other antihistamines are considered safe for use. Gillman’s study focused on the history and risk of serotonin syndrome.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is considered the most crucial factor for utilizing working memory effectively?

      Your Answer: Corpus callosum

      Correct Answer: Prefrontal cortex

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the truth about hyperprolactinemia that is linked to the use of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about hyperprolactinemia that is linked to the use of antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: It typically presents with priapism

      Correct Answer: It is often asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinemia is frequently without symptoms, and determining whether treatment is necessary involves weighing the present symptoms, potential long-term risks, and perceived advantages of maintaining the antipsychotic. It is frequently discovered by chance and does not typically necessitate altering the medication regimen.

      Hyperprolactinemia is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medication, but it is rare with antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, so dopamine antagonists, such as antipsychotics, can increase prolactin levels. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related, and some antipsychotics cause more significant increases than others. Hyperprolactinemia can cause symptoms such as galactorrhea, menstrual difficulties, gynecomastia, hypogonadism, and sexual dysfunction. Long-standing hyperprolactinemia in psychiatric patients can increase the risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer, although there is no conclusive evidence that antipsychotic medication increases the risk of breast malignancy and mortality. Some antipsychotics, such as clozapine and aripiprazole, have a low risk of causing hyperprolactinemia, while typical antipsychotics and risperidone have a high risk. Monitoring of prolactin levels is recommended before starting antipsychotic therapy and at three months and annually thereafter. Antidepressants rarely cause hyperprolactinemia, and routine monitoring is not recommended. Symptomatic hyperprolactinemia has been reported with most antidepressants, except for a few, such as mirtazapine, agomelatine, bupropion, and vortioxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is a true statement about placebos? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about placebos?

      Your Answer: The same compound has been found to have a more powerful placebo effect if it is branded than if it is unbranded

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.

      Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.

      The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.

      It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What type of tremor is associated with damage to the cerebellum? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of tremor is associated with damage to the cerebellum?

      Your Answer: Physiologic tremor

      Correct Answer: Intention tremor

      Explanation:

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which gene is not considered a candidate gene for schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • Which gene is not considered a candidate gene for schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: APOE

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Who wrote the first book on medical ethics? ...

    Correct

    • Who wrote the first book on medical ethics?

      Your Answer: Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi

      Explanation:

      Ishaq bin Ali Rahawi tackled ethical concerns in the field of medicine in his work, Adab al-Tabib (Conduct of a Physician), during the 9th century.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is classified as a primary delusion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a primary delusion?

      Your Answer: Delusional jealousy

      Correct Answer: Delusional atmosphere

      Explanation:

      The only primary delusion listed is delusional atmosphere, as it pertains to the form of the delusion. The other delusions mentioned are related to the content of the delusion and therefore cannot be classified as primary delusions.

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the definition of volitional passivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of volitional passivity?

      Your Answer: The patient is made to feel emotions which originate outside him

      Correct Answer: The patient is aware of someone controlling his actions as though he were a robot

      Explanation:

      All of the options describe passivity phenomena, which are first rank symptoms. Passivity of volition involves feeling like one’s actions are controlled by someone else. Passivity of impulse is experiencing an urge that originates outside oneself. Thought insertion is the awareness of an alien presence inserting thoughts into one’s mind, which may be accompanied by visceral hallucinations. Somatic passivity is the feeling that someone is controlling things inside one’s body. Passivity of affect involves feeling emotions that originate outside oneself, which is different from incongruity of blunting of affect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG

      The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The initial stage of moral development, as per Lawrence Kohlberg, is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The initial stage of moral development, as per Lawrence Kohlberg, is:

      Your Answer: Authority and social order obedience driven orientation

      Correct Answer: Obedience and punishment orientation

      Explanation:

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the main component of pick bodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main component of pick bodies?

      Your Answer: Betz cells

      Correct Answer: Tau

      Explanation:

      Pyramidal cell neurons known as Betz cells are situated in the grey matter of the motor cortex.

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration (FTLD) is a pathological term that refers to a group of neurodegenerative disorders that affect the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. FTLD is classified into several subtypes based on the main protein component of neuronal and glial abnormal inclusions and their distribution. The three main proteins associated with FTLD are Tau, TDP-43, and FUS. Each FTD clinical phenotype has been associated with different proportions of these proteins. Macroscopic changes in FTLD include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes, with focal gyral atrophy that resembles knives. Microscopic changes in FTLD-Tau include neuronal and glial tau aggregation, with further sub-classification based on the existence of different isoforms of tau protein. FTLD-TDP is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of TDP-43 in neurons, while FTLD-FUS is characterized by cytoplasmic inclusions of FUS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is not a typical feature of depersonalization? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a typical feature of depersonalization?

      Your Answer: The experience is pleasant

      Explanation:

      Depersonalisation is a distressing condition that is solely based on an individual’s perception. It affects one’s auditory and tactile senses, as well as causing a sense of emptiness in their thoughts. Despite this, the person’s awareness remains intact, and they may experience an increased sense of self-awareness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - From which amino acid is norepinephrine synthesized? ...

    Correct

    • From which amino acid is norepinephrine synthesized?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine: Synthesis, Release, and Breakdown

      Norepinephrine is synthesized from tyrosine through a series of enzymatic reactions. The first step involves the conversion of tyrosine to L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase. L-DOPA is then converted to dopamine by DOPA decarboxylase. Dopamine is further converted to norepinephrine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase. Finally, norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine by phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase.

      The primary site of norepinephrine release is the locus coeruleus, also known as the blue spot, which is located in the pons. Once released, norepinephrine is broken down by two enzymes: catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO). These enzymes play a crucial role in regulating the levels of norepinephrine in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which process breaks down dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which process breaks down dopamine?

      Your Answer: MAO-A only

      Correct Answer: COMT, MAO-B and MAO-A

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Who initially coined the term 'expressed emotion' (EE) in relation to schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who initially coined the term 'expressed emotion' (EE) in relation to schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Harris

      Correct Answer: Brown

      Explanation:

      Expressed emotion (EE) in schizophrenia was first introduced by Brown et al., which refers to the emotions exhibited by family members towards their loved one with the illness. The James-Lange theory is one of two fundamental theories of emotions, alongside the Cannon-Bard theory. Fromm-Reichmann coined the term ‘schizophrenogenic mother.’ Harris proposed a model of emotional development consisting of five stages. Plutchik identified eight primary emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is guided by the principle of reality?

      Your Answer: Superego

      Correct Answer: Ego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is a true statement about migraines? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about migraines?

      Your Answer: They affect approximately 1% of the population

      Correct Answer: They can be precipitated by stress

      Explanation:

      Migraine

      Migraine is a common condition that affects 5-10% of the population, with a higher prevalence in women than men (2-3:1). It typically starts in childhood of adolescence and has a strong familial association, with 2/3 of cases reporting a family history of migraine.

      The most prominent symptom of migraine is headache, which is usually unilateral but can occur on both sides. Other symptoms include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, photophobia, and intolerance of noise.

      In about 1/3 of cases, migraines are preceded by a visual aura (known as classic migraine). The most common form of visual aura is the ‘fortification spectra’ (semicircle of zigzag lights), but other disturbances such as micropsia, macropsia, zoom vision, mosaic vision, scotomas, and even hallucinations can occur.

      Basilar migraines are a subtype of migraine where headache and aura are accompanied by difficulty speaking, vertigo, ringing in ears, of other brainstem-related symptoms, but not motor weakness.

      Migraine can be triggered by various factors, including alcohol, cheese, chocolate, skipping meals, missing sleep, and oral contraceptives. Stress is also a common precipitant of migraine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is recognized for originating the term cognitive dissonance?

      Your Answer: Beck

      Correct Answer: Festinger

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What is the accurate statement regarding the epidemiology of bipolar disorder, considering age...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement regarding the epidemiology of bipolar disorder, considering age and language modifications and maintaining paragraph spacing?

      Your Answer: The six month prevalence of the disorder is half that of the lifetime prevalence

      Correct Answer: The mean age of onset is 17 years in community studies

      Explanation:

      The disorder is often chronic, as the six month prevalence is only slightly lower than the lifetime prevalence. Additionally, bipolar disorder frequently co-occurs with other conditions such as substance misuse and anxiety disorders. Prevalence rates can be determined using structured diagnostic interviews like the diagnostic interview schedule (DIS), and the disorder affects both men and women equally with a lifetime risk ranging from 0.3% to 1.5%. Onset typically occurs around age 17 in community studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a known factor that can lead to hypercalcemia?

      Your Answer: Valproate

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypercalcemia and its Causes

      Hypercalcemia is a medical condition that can cause fatigue, confusion, and depression. It is characterized by the classic symptoms of bone pain, abdominal pain, renal stones, and psychic moans. This condition can be triggered by the use of lithium and thiazide diuretics.

      It is important to note that around 50% of serum calcium is bound to plasma proteins, particularly albumin. This means that any abnormalities in albumin levels can lead to inaccurate calcium results. To address this issue, a corrected calcium test is usually included in a patient’s blood work to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What is the term used to describe the teaching method where a swimming...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the teaching method where a swimming instructor breaks down a stroke into its components and teaches them separately before combining them?

      Your Answer: Shaping

      Correct Answer: Chaining

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 50s experiences chronic back pain. Her doctor prescribes a medication that provides relief. She keeps the medication on hand and takes it as soon as the pain starts. What does this behavior demonstrate?

      Your Answer: Reciprocal inhibition

      Correct Answer: Escape conditioning

      Explanation:

      Escape conditioning involves ending an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior, while avoidance conditioning involves avoiding the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus by performing a certain behavior.

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - What is a true statement about XYY syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about XYY syndrome?

      Your Answer: It is associated with an increased risk of learning disability

      Explanation:

      XYY Syndrome

      XYY Syndrome, also known as Jacobs’ Syndrome of super-males, is a genetic condition where males have an extra Y chromosome, resulting in a 47, XYY karyotype. In some cases, mosaicism may occur, resulting in a 47,XYY/46,XY karyotype. The error leading to the 47,XYY genotype occurs during spermatogenesis of post-zygotic mitosis. The prevalence of XYY Syndrome is as high as 1:1000 male live births, but many cases go unidentified as they are not necessarily associated with physical of cognitive impairments. The most common features are high stature and a strong build, and fertility and sexual development are usually unaffected. In the past, XYY Syndrome was linked to aggressiveness and deviance, but this is likely due to intermediate factors such as reduced IQ and social deprivation. XYY Syndrome is best thought of as a risk factor rather than a cause. There is an increased risk of developmental disorders such as learning difficulties, ASD, ADHD, and emotional problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which condition is thought to have the highest degree of genetic inheritance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is thought to have the highest degree of genetic inheritance?

      Your Answer: Anorexia

      Correct Answer: ADHD

      Explanation:

      Both ADHD and ASD are believed to have a strong genetic component, although only one of them is classified as a developmental disorder.

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which statement about heritability is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about heritability is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Heritability is the amount of phenotypic (observable) variation in a population that is attributable to individual genetic differences

      Correct Answer: Heritability of 0.70 means that in an individual, 70% of that condition is due to genes and 30% is due to environment

      Explanation:

      Heritability applies to populations, not individuals, but it does provide information about the extent to which genetic factors contribute to variation in a trait within a population.

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which neo-Freudian theorist believed that the primary motivator in personality is the pursuit...

    Incorrect

    • Which neo-Freudian theorist believed that the primary motivator in personality is the pursuit of superiority?

      Your Answer: Carl Jung

      Correct Answer: Alfred Adler

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is recognized for coining the phrase 'good enough mother'?

      Your Answer: Karen Horney

      Correct Answer: Donald Winnicott

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar...

    Incorrect

    • The behavior of the cat expecting food when it hears a noise similar to the can opener is an example of:

      Your Answer: Chaining

      Correct Answer: Stimulus generalisation

      Explanation:

      Classical Conditioning: A Learning Theory by Ivan Pavlov

      Classical conditioning is a learning theory developed by Ivan Pavlov. It suggests that events that occur together are associated and acquire a similar meaning. Unlike operant conditioning, which focuses on responses to behavior, classical conditioning looks at responses to stimuli. In classical conditioning, animals behave as if they have learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. Pavlov demonstrated that innate responses, such as a dog salivating when it sees food, can be associated with a neutral stimulus, such as ringing a bell, so that ringing the bell can cause salivation even in the absence of food.

      Important terms used in classical conditioning include stimulus generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, spontaneous recovery, and aversive conditioning. Extinction is the laboratory analogue of exposure therapy for anxiety disorders, while Counterconditioning involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome. Incubation occurs in fear responses, and reciprocal inhibition is a technique that aims to replace an undesired response with a desired one by counterconditioning. Some stimuli are more prone to conditioning than others, which is referred to as stimulus/biological preparedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is the embryonic structure that gives rise to the cerebellum and pons?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the embryonic structure that gives rise to the cerebellum and pons?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metencephalon

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, the neural tube at the cranial end gives rise to three major parts: the prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, forming the forebrain. The mesencephalon forms the midbrain, while the rhombencephalon splits into the metencephalon (which gives rise to the cerebellum and pons) and myelencephalon (which forms the medulla oblongata and spinal cord).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What EEG alteration would be anticipated when a patient who is in a...

    Incorrect

    • What EEG alteration would be anticipated when a patient who is in a relaxed state with their eyes shut is instructed to open their eyes and read a text passage in front of them?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bilateral disappearance of alpha waves

      Explanation:

      When someone is in a relaxed state with their eyes closed, alpha waves can be detected in the posterior regions of their head. However, these waves will disappear if the person becomes drowsy, concentrates on something, is stimulated, of fixates on a visual object. If the environment is dark, the alpha waves may still be present even with the eyes open.

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which statement is false regarding microglia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false regarding microglia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are neuronal cells

      Explanation:

      Microglia serve as the immune cells of the central nervous system and perform functions similar to macrophages. When a microglial cell engulfs infectious material, it is referred to as a Gitter cell.

      Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System

      The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.

      Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.

      Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.

      Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.

      Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.

      In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What signs of symptoms are indicative of Fragile X syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What signs of symptoms are indicative of Fragile X syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elongated face

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms

      Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.

      The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.

      The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 49 - One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pairing

      Explanation:

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 50 - A 45-year-old man with a mild depressive disorder currently taking an SSRI reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a mild depressive disorder currently taking an SSRI reports worsening tiredness. His blood test shows a sodium level of 122 mmol/L.
      Which antidepressant would be more suitable in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Unlike other antidepressants, agomelatine (Valdoxan) does not affect serotonin transmission and is a melatonin agonist. It has a good safety profile and there have been no reported cases of hyponatraemia associated with its use. On the other hand, the other listed antidepressants have been linked to hyponatraemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Social Psychology (3/13) 23%
Diagnosis (0/1) 0%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
History And Mental State (1/2) 50%
Classification And Assessment (2/7) 29%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Psychopharmacology (1/5) 20%
Neurosciences (1/6) 17%
Genetics (0/3) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
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