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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old woman has been referred for colposcopy after her recent cervical smear...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman has been referred for colposcopy after her recent cervical smear cytology showed high-grade (moderate) abnormalities and tested positive for high-risk (HR) human papillomavirus (HPV). She underwent a loop excision of the cervix, and the histology report revealed cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia 1 + 2. What is the next best course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: HPV test of cure in three months, if negative recall in five years

      Correct Answer: HPV test of cure in six months, if negative recall in three years

      Explanation:

      Management of Women after Treatment for Cervical Intra-epithelial Neoplasia

      After treatment for cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) at colposcopy, women undergo a repeat smear six months later to check for any residual disease. The management plan following this test of cure depends on the results.

      HPV Test of Cure in Six Months, If Negative Recall in Three Years

      If the test is negative for dyskaryosis and high-risk HPV (HR HPV), the woman is recalled in three years, regardless of her age. If the test remains negative at the three-year mark, she can return to routine screening based on her age group.

      HPV Test of Cure in Six Months, If Negative Recall in Five Years

      Even if the patient is 54 years old, women who have a negative HPV test of cure at six months are recalled for a smear three years later. If this is negative, she will then be returned to routine recall every five years.

      HPV Test of Cure in Three Months, If Negative Recall in Five Years

      The screening test should not be repeated at three months, as this is not enough time for the cervical tissue to heal. Reactive/healing changes in the cytological sample may give a false impression of dyskaryosis. Instead, a HPV test of cure is performed at six months, and if negative, the woman is recalled for routine screening every five years.

      Refer Back to Routine Screening, Repeat in Three/Five Years

      If the HPV test of cure is positive for HPV or there is evidence of moderate/severe dyskaryosis, the woman is referred back to colposcopy for further investigation. If the test is negative, she is referred back to routine screening and recalled in three or five years, depending on the scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their FEV1/FVC ratio is measured at 0.85, with the FVC at 90% of normal. What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Normal examination

      Explanation:

      The FEV1/FVC ratio is a key measurement in lung function tests. In normal subjects, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio is less than 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the FEV1, which is the volume of air that can be expelled in one second. However, if the ratio is normal, it indicates that the individual has a healthy respiratory system.

      In cases of restrictive lung disease, the FVC is reduced, which can also affect the FEV1/FVC ratio. In such cases, the ratio may be normal or even high. Therefore, it is important to interpret the FEV1/FVC ratio in conjunction with other lung function test results to accurately diagnose and manage respiratory conditions. This ratio can help healthcare professionals identify potential lung problems and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old man presents to the clinic with an enlarged testicle. During a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the clinic with an enlarged testicle. During a self-examination in the shower, he noticed that his left testicle was significantly larger than the right. He reports no specific symptoms, but mentions a recent weight loss of 5kg over the past 4 months, which he attributed to a new diet. Additionally, he has been experiencing general fatigue for the past month.

      The patient has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications. He is sexually active with his partner of 2 years and denies alcohol, smoking, and recreational drug use. There are no other notable symptoms upon further questioning.

      On clinical examination, there is an enlarged, non-tender, left testicle, but no other abnormalities are detected. There is no palpable lymphadenopathy or gynaecomastia.

      What is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient?

      Your Answer: β-hCG

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound testes

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound is the initial test for investigating a testicular mass. It is common for there to be a slight size difference between the two testes. The first step is to perform an ultrasound to identify the mass and confirm its presence. If the mass appears to be cancerous, tumor markers should be measured. In cases where the ultrasound results are unclear, an MRI may be necessary.

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      108.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are considering prescribing an antidepressant to a 75-year-old woman who has been...

    Incorrect

    • You are considering prescribing an antidepressant to a 75-year-old woman who has been experiencing low mood and difficulty maintaining her weight due to low appetite. Which psychiatric medication could potentially improve both her mood and appetite?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine may be prescribed for its beneficial side effects of increased appetite and sedation. Unlike sertraline and fluoxetine, which are SSRIs that primarily improve mood, they do not have a significant impact on appetite. Gabapentin and pregabalin, which are typically used for neuropathic pain, are not suitable for this purpose.

      Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.

      Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.

      Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of numbness in his lower extremities. He has no significant medical history. Upon physical examination, there is a loss of proprioception on his left side below the umbilical line, and complete loss of sensation at the umbilical line. Furthermore, there is a loss of thermal and pain sensation in the groin area and below, on the right side. Radiological imaging reveals a mass on the spine. What is the most likely location of the mass?

      Your Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the left side

      Correct Answer: Thoracic level 10 on the right side

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensory Loss in Spinal Lesions at Different Levels

      Spinal lesions can cause a range of sensory deficits depending on the level of the injury. For example, a lesion at the right tenth thoracic level can result in Brown-Séquard syndrome, with loss of tactile discrimination and vibratory and proprioceptive sensations on the ipsilateral side below the lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral side 2-3 levels below the lesion. However, a lesion at lumbar level 1 on the left side would cause sensory loss on the opposite side, around the level of the anterior superior iliac spines. It’s important to note that the umbilical line is innervated by T10, so a lesion at T11 on either side would spare sensation at this level. Understanding these patterns of sensory loss can aid in diagnosing and treating spinal lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What are the cells in the pancreas that produce glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the cells in the pancreas that produce glucagon?

      Your Answer: Delta cells

      Correct Answer: Alpha cells

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Cells and Their Secretions

      The pancreas is an important organ in the endocrine system, and it contains different types of cells that secrete various hormones. Alpha cells in the pancreas produce glucagon, which helps to increase blood sugar levels. Beta cells, on the other hand, secrete insulin, which helps to lower blood sugar levels. Delta cells produce somatostatin, which regulates the release of insulin and glucagon.

      In addition to the pancreas, the thyroid gland also contains specialized cells called parafollicular C cells. These cells secrete calcitonin, which helps to regulate calcium levels in the body. Finally, Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and are involved in the development of sperm. the different types of endocrine cells and their secretions is important for maintaining proper hormonal balance in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring and distortion of central vision and difficulty with night vision that has been going on for 2 years. She reports that her vision is sometimes poor and sometimes better. During the examination using a direct ophthalmoscope, yellow deposits were observed at the macula. What is the initial treatment for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin supplementation

      Explanation:

      Vitamin supplementation containing vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc can delay the progression of dry age-related macular degeneration (AMD) from intermediate to advanced stages. However, there is no other treatment available for dry AMD, and management is mainly supportive. Pan-retinal photocoagulation is not used for either dry or wet AMD. Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection is reserved for wet AMD, where there is choroidal neovascularization. This treatment stops abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. Focal laser photocoagulation is sometimes used in wet AMD, but anti-VEGF injections are now the preferred treatment. Photodynamic therapy can be used in wet AMD when anti-VEGF is not an option or for those who do not want repeated intravitreal injections. The patient in question has dry AMD, with metamorphopsia as a symptom and yellow deposits at the macula known as drusen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is a true statement about BCG vaccination? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about BCG vaccination?

      Your Answer: Is contraindicated in neonates

      Correct Answer: Provides protection against leprosy

      Explanation:

      The Versatility of the BCG Vaccine

      The BCG vaccine was originally developed to combat Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis. However, research has shown that it also provides protection against leprosy, with up to 80% efficacy. This is because the organism that causes leprosy, M. leprae, is also a type of Mycobacterium. While the potential use of the BCG vaccine in clinical practice for leprosy is still being considered, it is currently recommended for newborns at high risk of exposure.

      Previously, the BCG vaccine was given to children at comprehensive school entry (age 11-13). However, recent updates suggest that it should be administered to neonates in high-risk groups. In addition to its use in preventing tuberculosis and leprosy, the BCG vaccine has also been found to stimulate the immune system for the treatment of some cancers, particularly bladder carcinoma.

      It is important to note that the BCG vaccine should not be given to children who have a strongly positive tuberculin test. Before administration, a Mantoux test should be documented to ensure the safety and efficacy of the vaccine. Overall, the versatility of the BCG vaccine highlights its potential to combat a range of diseases and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old patient presents for follow-up after being admitted to the hospital. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents for follow-up after being admitted to the hospital. The patient complains of experiencing itchy, raised red bumps on their skin. These symptoms began about 24 hours after taking their discharge medication for the first time and have progressively worsened over the past few days. The patient has no prior history of this type of reaction. Upon examination, faint pink raised patches are observed on the trunk and upper arms. Which medication is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is often caused by aspirin.

      The most likely cause of the patient’s urticarial rash is aspirin, which is known to be a common trigger for this condition. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and metformin are not typically associated with urticaria, although they may cause other side effects such as nausea, hypotension, and gastrointestinal disturbance, respectively. It is important to consider the potential side effects of any medication when evaluating a patient’s symptoms.

      Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that cause urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, NSAIDs, and opiates. These drugs can trigger an allergic reaction in the body, leading to the development of hives. It is important to note that not everyone who takes these drugs will experience urticaria, and the severity of the reaction can vary from person to person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother, crying and holding her elbow. She had been playing on the monkey bars when she fell and landed on her outstretched arm. On examination, she is holding her elbow in slight flexion and the forearm is pronated. There is no obvious deformity or swelling over the elbow, but there is localised pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect. Radiographs are normal and there are no obvious fractures.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Organise a bone scan to look for any other injury to the bone

      Correct Answer: Perform a closed reduction of a suspected radial head subluxation

      Explanation:

      Closed Reduction of Radial Head Subluxation in Children: Procedure and Management

      Subluxation of the radial head, commonly known as nursemaid’s elbow, is a common injury in children aged 2 to 5 years. It occurs when longitudinal traction is applied to an extended arm, causing subluxation of the radial head and interposition of the annular ligament into the radiocapitellar joint. The child typically presents with pain and tenderness on the lateral aspect of the elbow, holding the elbow in slight flexion and forearm pronation. Radiographs are usually negative, and the treatment of choice is a closed reduction of radial head subluxation.

      The closed reduction procedure involves manually supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow past 90 degrees of flexion while holding the arm supinated. The doctor then applies pressure over the radial head with their thumb while maximally flexing the elbow. A palpable click is often heard on successful reduction. Another technique that can be attempted is hyperpronation of the forearm while in the flexed position.

      It is important to reassure parents that there is no fracture and only simple analgesia and rest are required. Splinting and immobilisation are not necessary, and the child may immediately use the arm after reduction of the subluxation. There is no role for a bone scan or elbow arthroscopy in diagnosing or managing subluxation of the radial head.

      In conclusion, closed reduction of radial head subluxation is a simple and effective procedure that can be performed in the clinic setting. With proper management and follow-up, children can quickly return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of symptoms consistent with premenstrual syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of symptoms consistent with premenstrual syndrome. She reports experiencing severe pain that prevents her from working for 3-4 days before the start of her period each month. She has a regular 29-day cycle and has only recently started experiencing pain in the past year. She has never given birth and uses the progesterone-only pill for contraception. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trial of intra-uterine device

      Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      Patients experiencing secondary dysmenorrhoea should be referred to gynaecology for further investigation as it is often associated with underlying pathologies such as endometriosis, adenomyosis, fibroids, or pelvic inflammatory disease. While the combined oral contraceptive pill may provide relief, it is important to determine the root cause first. Fluoxetine is not appropriate for managing secondary dysmenorrhoea, as it is used for premenstrual dysphoric disorder. Intra-uterine devices may actually cause secondary dysmenorrhoea and should not be used. Tranexamic acid is not indicated for the management of secondary dysmenorrhoea, but rather for menorrhagia.

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 47-year-old man is prescribed haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is prescribed haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic episode. He had previously been on olanzapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, but discontinued it due to adverse reactions. What adverse effect is he more prone to encounter with this new medication in comparison to olanzapine?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Correct Answer: Torticollis

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic medications can cause acute dystonic reactions, which are more frequently seen with first-generation antipsychotics like haloperidol. These reactions may include dysarthria, torticollis, opisthotonus, and oculogyric crises. Atypical antipsychotics are more likely to cause diabetes mellitus and dyslipidemia, while neither typical nor atypical antipsychotics are commonly associated with osteoporosis.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy arrives at the Emergency Department with a high fever, difficulty breathing, severe sore throat, and drooling of saliva. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Call the ear, nose and throat (ENT) surgeon/senior anaesthetist to secure her airway

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Epiglottitis: Prioritizing Airway Security

      Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to secure the patient’s airway. While medical therapies and investigations are important, the priority should be given to securing the airway via endo-/nasotracheal intubation or tracheostomy guided by a senior anaesthetist and ENT surgeon. Oral instrumentation is contraindicated until the airway has been secured. Lateral neck X-ray may be useful in diagnosing less acute presentations, but in this case, the child requires intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admission to an Intensive Therapy Unit/High-dependency Unit bed in the hospital. Intubating a child with acute epiglottitis can be challenging and should only be undertaken by an experienced anaesthetist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old patient with a history of well-controlled epilepsy visits the general practice...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient with a history of well-controlled epilepsy visits the general practice with her partner. They have been attempting to conceive through regular sexual intercourse for the past 10 months. The patient is currently taking omeprazole, levetiracetam, folic acid 400 micrograms, and paracetamol as needed. What medication adjustments would be most suitable?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 5 milligrams

      Explanation:

      Women on antiepileptics trying to conceive should receive 5mg folic acid. Letrozole and clomiphene are not appropriate for this patient. Adequate control of epilepsy is important and medication changes should be made by a specialist. This patient should be started on a high dose of folic acid due to the risk of neural tube defects.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 56-year-old male with chronic back pain presents with new onset bilateral leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male with chronic back pain presents with new onset bilateral leg pain which radiates bilaterally down the back of his thighs and legs. He denies any strenuous activity over the past few days and has not been performing any activities outside his daily routine during which he works as a librarian. He reports to have noticed some mild perianal reduced sensation in the past few days. He has no other past medical history of note and only takes ibuprofen as a regular analgesic for his back pain.

      Observations show:
      Blood pressure: 149/86 mmHg
      Pulse: 92bpm
      Temperature: 36.9ºC
      Respiratory rate: 20/min
      Oxygen saturations: 99% in room air

      On examination, he is noted to have hyporeflexia in both ankles and some reduced dorsiflexion in his right foot - neurological examination is unremarkable. Per-rectum examination shows no loss of anal tone.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: L2 nerve compression

      Correct Answer: Cauda equina syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bilateral sciatica can be a symptom of cauda equina syndrome, even without the typical back pain and changes in bladder and bowel habits. This patient’s neurological examination shows lower motor neuron signs affecting L4 and L5, which are commonly affected in cauda equina syndrome. While musculoskeletal pain is a possibility, it is less likely to cause hyporeflexia. A posterior circulation stroke would present with different symptoms, including cranial nerve and cerebellar symptoms. Spinal metastases are also unlikely given the absence of beta symptoms and a history of malignancy.

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of heavy and prolonged menstrual...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding that has been ongoing for six months, despite being treated with mefenamic and tranexamic acid. Upon conducting a transvaginal ultrasound, an endometrial thickness of 15mm is observed. What would be the next appropriate course of investigation?

      Your Answer: Endometrial biopsy at hysteroscopy

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, an endometrial biopsy should be performed if necessary to rule out endometrial cancer or atypical hyperplasia. The biopsy is recommended for women who experience persistent intermenstrual bleeding and for those aged 45 and above who have had unsuccessful or ineffective treatment. In the case of the patient mentioned above, her treatment has not been successful and she has a thickened endometrium. Although there is some debate about the thickness of the endometrium in premenopausal women, this patient qualifies for a biopsy based on her failed medical treatment alone, making it the most appropriate option.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of back pain uses paracetamol and ibuprofen...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of back pain uses paracetamol and ibuprofen regularly for pain relief. She and her partner are planning to have a baby, and would like to know about the safety of analgesics during pregnancy.
      What is the best statement regarding the safety of analgesics in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Naproxen can be used safely in pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate can be used at low doses if needed

      Explanation:

      Safe and Unsafe Painkillers in Pregnancy

      Pregnancy can be a challenging time for women, especially when it comes to managing pain. While some painkillers are safe to use during pregnancy, others can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used painkillers and their safety in pregnancy.

      Codeine phosphate: Low doses of codeine phosphate are generally safe to use during pregnancy. However, if taken closer to delivery, the neonate should be observed for signs of respiratory depression, drowsiness, or opioid withdrawal.

      Naproxen: Naproxen belongs to the family of NSAIDs and is contraindicated in pregnancy. However, it is safe to use in the postpartum period and by women who are breastfeeding.

      Ibuprofen: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs should be avoided during pregnancy as they are associated with teratogenic effects and other congenital problems.

      Paracetamol: Paracetamol is the analgesic of choice in pregnancy and is safe to use within the recommended limits. However, patients should be cautioned against taking paracetamol and low-dose co-codamol concurrently.

      Tramadol: Tramadol should be avoided in pregnancy as it has been shown to be embryotoxic in animal models.

      In conclusion, it is important for pregnant women to consult with their healthcare provider before taking any painkillers to ensure the safety of both mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old female patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. She reports having to change her pads every hour due to saturation with blood. She is not experiencing any other symptoms and has no plans of having children in the immediate future. After a routine examination, what is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      According to NICE CG44, when heavy menstrual bleeding is not caused by any structural or histological abnormality, the first recommended treatment is the intrauterine system, also known as Mirena.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.1
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  • Question 19 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she has entered menopause. Upon conducting a blood test, the results show a Hb of 101 g/l, MCV 108.2 fl, and a B12 level of 46 ng/l. She also reports experiencing occasional changes in bowel movements. What test would be most effective in differentiating pernicious anemia from other malabsorption causes as the reason for her low B12 levels?

      Your Answer: Serum gastrin level

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of macrocytic anaemia caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12. This deficiency is often due to antibodies that target either intrinsic factor or the gastric parietal cells. To diagnose pernicious anaemia, blood tests for intrinsic factor antibodies and gastric parietal cell-antibodies are necessary.

      Other tests, such as the PABA test, folic acid level, serum gastrin level, and C14 breath test, are not useful in identifying pernicious anaemia. Vitamin B12 is normally absorbed in the terminal ileum, but a problem in any part of this chain may result in vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Patients with pernicious anaemia require lifelong vitamin B12 injections, typically six injections over the first two weeks from diagnosis and then one every three months to maintain adequate levels. Understanding the diagnosis and treatment of pernicious anaemia is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old healthy male undergoes an emergency appendectomy and is administered suxamethonium. Following...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old healthy male undergoes an emergency appendectomy and is administered suxamethonium. Following the removal of an inflamed appendix, the patient is taken to recovery. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a temperature of 40 ºC, a tachycardia of 120 bpm, and widespread muscular rigidity. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute dystonic reaction

      Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Patients with a genetic defect may experience malignant hyperthermia when exposed to anaesthetic agents like suxamethonium. Extrapyramidal effects, such as acute dystonic reaction, are typically associated with antipsychotics (haloperidol) and metoclopramide.

      Malignant Hyperthermia: A Condition Triggered by Anaesthetic Agents

      Malignant hyperthermia is a medical condition that often occurs after the administration of anaesthetic agents. It is characterized by hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity, which is caused by the excessive release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle. This condition is associated with defects in a gene on chromosome 19 that encodes the ryanodine receptor, which controls calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. It is worth noting that neuroleptic malignant syndrome may have a similar aetiology.

      The causative agents of malignant hyperthermia include halothane, suxamethonium, and other drugs such as antipsychotics (which can trigger neuroleptic malignant syndrome). To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform tests such as checking for elevated levels of creatine kinase and conducting contracture tests with halothane and caffeine.

      The management of malignant hyperthermia involves the use of dantrolene, which prevents the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. With prompt and appropriate treatment, patients with malignant hyperthermia can recover fully. Therefore, it is essential to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of this condition, especially when administering anaesthetic agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      11.1
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  • Question 21 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary tract infection (UTI) that was treated in the community. He was born at term and has been healthy throughout infancy, without previous history of UTI. There is no significant family history. The child's development is appropriate for his age and there have been no concerns about his growth. The antibiotics took effect after 4 days and he is currently doing well. Physical examination, including vital signs, is unremarkable. The child's height and weight are both at the 50th percentile. The microbiology results confirm a UTI caused by Enterococcus. What is the most suitable imaging approach that should have been taken/ordered?

      Your Answer: Urgent USS during the acute infection with routine DMSA and MCUG

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Imaging in Atypical UTIs in Children

      When a child presents with an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI), imaging is necessary to identify any structural abnormalities in the urinary tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines provide recommendations for imaging based on the age of the child and the severity of the infection.

      For children under 6 months of age with an atypical UTI, an urgent ultrasound scan (USS) is required during the acute infection. Once the infection has resolved, a routine dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan and a micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) are performed 4-6 months later.

      For children older than 6 months with recurrent UTIs, a routine USS and DMSA scan plus MCUG are recommended. However, for children aged 6 months to 3 years with an atypical UTI, an urgent USS followed by a routine DMSA is sufficient. An MCUG is only performed if there is any dilation identified on USS, poor urine flow, family history of vesico-ureteric reflux, or a non-E. coli infection.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate imaging and management of atypical UTIs in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A mother brings her 5-day old daughter to see you as she is...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 5-day old daughter to see you as she is worried about her daughter's weight loss. The baby was born at term without any complications. She is exclusively breastfed and has had a normal amount of wet nappies today. The baby is not showing any signs of distress and all observations are within normal limits. However, her birth weight was 3200g and today she weighs 2900g. What would be the best course of action to manage this infant's weight loss?

      Your Answer: Referral to midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If the baby loses more than 10% of his birth weight in the first week, immediate measures must be taken to ensure proper feeding.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 20-year-old primigravida presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent vomiting....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old primigravida presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent vomiting. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing this symptom for the past four days. Upon examination, you note that she has a fast heart rate, low blood pressure upon standing, and her urine test shows the presence of ketones. What is the most significant risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, is associated with multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, young maternal age, first pregnancy, and obesity. The condition may be caused by high beta hCG and oestrogen levels, nutritional deficiencies, and gastric dysfunction due to high progesterone levels. Prolonged and frequent vomiting can be problematic.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
      Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand

      Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function

      Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      20.2
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  • Question 25 - A mother is worried about her child's motor skills and wonders when most...

    Correct

    • A mother is worried about her child's motor skills and wonders when most children develop a strong pincer grip. At what age do children typically acquire this skill?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones for Fine Motor and Vision Skills

      Fine motor and vision skills are important developmental milestones for infants and young children. These skills are crucial for their physical and cognitive development. The following tables provide a summary of the major milestones for fine motor and vision skills.

      At three months, infants can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow objects up to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They are visually insatiable, looking around in every direction.

      At nine months, infants can point with their finger and demonstrate an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have developed a good pincer grip and can bang toys together and stack bricks.

      As children grow older, their fine motor skills continue to develop. By 15 months, they can build a tower of two blocks, and by 18 months, they can build a tower of three blocks. By two years old, they can build a tower of six blocks, and by three years old, they can build a tower of nine blocks. They also begin to draw, starting with circular scribbles at 18 months and progressing to copying vertical lines at two years old, circles at three years old, crosses at four years old, and squares and triangles at five years old.

      In addition to fine motor skills, children’s vision skills also develop over time. At 15 months, they can look at a book and pat the pages. By 18 months, they can turn several pages at a time, and by two years old, they can turn one page at a time.

      It is important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. Overall, these developmental milestones for fine motor and vision skills are important indicators of a child’s growth and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      4.8
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  • Question 26 - A three-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a high fever of...

    Incorrect

    • A three-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a high fever of 39ºC that has persisted for the past five days. The parents are worried as they have noticed redness in the child's eyes, swelling in the neck, and a new rash.

      During the examination, the child is found to have a widespread maculopapular rash and bilateral conjunctivitis. Additionally, there is unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy, cracked and erythematosus lips, and a strawberry tongue.

      What is the initial treatment that should be given to this three-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Conservative management with fluids and rest

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is a systemic vasculitis that typically affects children under the age of 5. Symptoms include a fever lasting over 5 days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, a rash, mucosal erythema with a strawberry tongue, and unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. In some cases, swelling of the hands and feet can occur, followed by desquamation in the second week. If left untreated, up to one-quarter of patients can develop coronary aneurysms. The main goal of treatment is to reduce the risk of cardiac complications. In the UK, the standard treatment is intravenous immunoglobulin and high dose aspirin, despite the fact that aspirin is usually contraindicated in children. Benzylpenicillin is not indicated in the treatment of Kawasaki disease. Conservative management is also not appropriate, as specific treatment is required to reduce inflammation and prevent the risk of coronary complications. Corticosteroids may be used as a second-line treatment if the patient does not respond to intravenous immunoglobulins.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.1
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  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and taken to the Emergency Department of a local hospital. Physical examination revealed a single horizontal stab wound located on the skin 4 mm to the right of the umbilicus.
      In which dermatome was the stab wound located?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Dermatomes and Pain Referral in the Abdomen

      The human body is divided into dermatomes, which are areas of skin that are mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. In the abdomen, the T8-T12 dermatomes are important to understand as they can help identify the source of pain referral.

      T8 dermatome is located at the epigastrium, which is approximately at the level of the subcostal margin. T9 dermatome lies just superior to the umbilicus, while T10 dermatome lies at the level of the umbilicus. Pain originating from the small bowel may be referred to the T10 dermatome.

      T11 dermatome lies just inferior to the umbilicus, and pain originating from the large bowel may be referred to the T11-T12 area. T12 dermatome lies at the suprapubic level, and pain originating from the large bowel may also be referred to the T11-T12 area.

      It is important to note that confusion between the dermatomes and the spinal vertebrae level at which structures lie should be avoided. Understanding the dermatomes and pain referral patterns in the abdomen can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.7
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her long-term partner approximately 12 hours ago. She has no medical or family history worth mentioning and is not currently using any form of contraception. Her BMI is 30 kg/m², and she does not smoke. What is the most efficient emergency contraception method for this patient?

      Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, the copper intra-uterine device is the most efficient option for emergency contraception and should be offered to all eligible women seeking such services. Unlike other medications, its effectiveness is not influenced by BMI. Additionally, it provides long-term contraception, which is an added advantage for the patient. If the copper intra-uterine device is not appropriate or acceptable to the patient, oral hormonal emergency contraception should be offered. However, the effectiveness of these contraceptives is reduced in patients with a high BMI. A double dose of levonorgestrel is recommended for patients with a BMI of over 26 kg/m² or body weight greater than 70kg. It is unclear which of the two oral hormonal contraceptives is more effective for patients with a raised BMI. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system and ethinylestradiol with levonorgestrel are not suitable for emergency contraception. In conclusion, the copper intrauterine device is the most effective method for this patient because it is not affected by BMI, unlike oral hormonal emergency contraceptives.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic 72 hours after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic 72 hours after having unprotected sex and requests emergency contraception. She had her last period 5 days ago and has no significant medical history or regular medications. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2 and her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg. She decides to take ulipristal (Ella-One) for emergency contraception and also expresses interest in starting a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She asks when she can begin taking it. What advice should be given?

      Your Answer: She should start taking the COCP from 7 days after taking ulipristal

      Correct Answer: She should start taking the COCP from 5 days after taking ulipristal

      Explanation:

      Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before starting regular hormonal contraception. This is because ulipristal may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The same advice should be given for other hormonal contraception methods such as the pill, patch, or ring. Barrier methods should be used before the effectiveness of the COCP can be assured. If the patient is starting the COCP within the first 5 days of her cycle, barrier methods may not be necessary. However, in this case, barrier methods are required. The patient can be prescribed the COCP if it is her preferred method of contraception. There is no need to wait until the start of the next cycle before taking the pill, as long as barrier methods are used for 7 days.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 63-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of pain and swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of pain and swelling in the small joints of her hands that have been present for about eight weeks. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Upon examination, the doctor finds that the 2nd and 3rd proximal interphalangeal joints on both hands are swollen and tender. The doctor orders a plain radiography of the hands, which shows juxta-articular osteopenia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Early signs of rheumatoid arthritis can be observed through x-rays, specifically the presence of juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia.

      X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.

      As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.

      It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (3/6) 50%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/2) 0%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (3/4) 75%
Obstetrics (3/4) 75%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Passmed