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Question 1
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A 68-year-old male presents with a productive cough with regular sputum production, wheeze and breathlessness on exertion.
On examination his FEV1 is 75% of predicted with no diurnal variation. He has smoked 30 cigarettes a day for the past 50 years.
What is considered to be the most appropriate aspect of the long term management in this patient?Your Answer: Cessation of smoking
Explanation:Importance of Smoking Cessation in Managing COPD
Although chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a condition characterized by poorly reversible airflow limitation, quitting smoking is the only way to slow down its progression. A study involving 5,587 patients with mild COPD found that repeated smoking cessation over a period of 5 years resulted in a quit rate of 37%. After 14.5 years, those who quit smoking had higher lung function and survival rates compared to those who continued smoking.
While bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and oxygen therapy are important mechanisms of treatment, it is crucial to remember that managing COPD doesn’t solely rely on drug therapy. Smoking cessation is a vital component in the management of COPD, and healthcare professionals should encourage and support patients in their efforts to quit smoking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 2
Correct
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Mrs Rogers is an 83-year-old lady with a history of mild cognitive impairment, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She requires carers twice daily to assist with activities of daily living.
Recently, her daughter noticed that Mrs Rogers had become jaundiced and took her to see her GP for investigation. Unfortunately, radiological imaging revealed a probable cholangiocarcinoma with multiple liver metastases. The upper gastrointestinal MDT determined that Mrs Rogers should receive best supportive care and she was referred to her local community palliative care team.
According to the Gold Standards Framework Proactive Identification Guidance, the 'Surprise Question' can be used to identify patients who may be approaching the end of life. Therefore, the question would be: Would you be surprised if Mrs Rogers were to pass away in the next few months?Your Answer: You would not be surprised if the patient was in the last year of life
Explanation:The Surprise Question in End-of-Life Care
The Surprise Question is a crucial element in the Gold Standards Framework, a guidance that aims to identify patients who are nearing the end of their lives. The question is simple: Would you be surprised if the patient were to die in the next year, months, weeks, days? The answer is based on intuition, and if the response is no, it indicates that the patient may require end-of-life care.
Once the Surprise Question is answered, healthcare professionals can begin assessing the patient’s needs and wishes through advance care planning discussions. This process allows for care to be tailored to the patient’s choices, ensuring that they receive the best possible care during their final days. The Surprise Question is an essential tool in end-of-life care, helping healthcare professionals to identify patients who require specialized care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 3
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with extreme tiredness and fevers. The GP arranges some urgent tests as he is concerned that it may be a malignancy.
Which of the following is the most common childhood cancer?Your Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:Childhood Cancer Incidence
Leukaemia is the most prevalent form of childhood cancer, accounting for 31% of all cases. Brain and central nervous system tumours follow closely behind at 21%, while lymphoma, neuroblastoma, and Wilms’ tumours make up 10%, 7%, and 5% respectively. It is important to understand the incidence rates of childhood cancers in order to better allocate resources for research and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has no symptoms but has entered into a new relationship. You suggest that she visit the sexual health clinic for a comprehensive screening, but you agree to perform a Chlamydia test today.
What is the preferred diagnostic test for detecting this organism?Your Answer: High vaginal charcoal swab
Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
Explanation:When it comes to diagnosing Chlamydia, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the preferred method. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often go unnoticed, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications like infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. NAATs are also used to diagnose Gonorrhoea. Women can use a self-swab, while men can provide a urine sample. To treat Chlamydia, doctors typically prescribe azithromycin or doxycycline. Charcoal swabs are used to diagnose other infections, such as Candida.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Correct
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You are conducting a medication review for a young woman who is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Which of the following options would NOT reduce the efficacy of the COCP?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:A P450 inhibitor is sodium valproate.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a concern after being exposed to her mother who has been diagnosed with facial shingles one day ago.
She was unaware of what the rash was and had examined the rash closely two days ago before her mother was diagnosed. She informs you that she is unaware of ever having Chickenpox.
What is the most appropriate action that should be taken for this patient?Your Answer: She should be treated with Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Correct Answer: She should be tested immediately for IgG antibodies to Varicella zoster
Explanation:Management of VZV Exposure in a Non-Immune Patient
The patient has a significant history of exposure to Varicella zoster virus (VZV), which puts her at risk of acquiring Chickenpox if she is non-immune. However, it is possible that she may have had VZV infection as a child. Therefore, the first step in managing this situation is to measure IgG antibodies to VZV. If the antibodies are present, no further action is required, and the patient can be relatively reassured.
On the other hand, if the patient is non-immune, she will likely need to be treated with VZ immunoglobulin. This treatment has been shown to reduce the severity of the infection and prevent fetal infection. It is important to note that prompt management of VZV exposure in non-immune patients is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is being seen in a diabetes clinic due to poor glycaemic control despite weight loss, adherence to a diabetic diet, and current diabetes medications. He has no significant medical history. What medication could be prescribed to increase his insulin sensitivity?
Your Answer: Gliclazide
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Glitazones act as PPAR-gamma receptor agonists, which helps to decrease insulin resistance in the periphery.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The nurse at your clinic is faced with a situation where a mother has brought in her 14-week-old son for his vaccinations. The vaccinations include one injection against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio and haemophilus influenza type b, one injection against meningococcal b and an oral application for rotavirus. The mother has given her consent for the immunisations, but the nurse is unsure about the appropriate way to obtain consent. What would be a suitable method of obtaining consent in this scenario?
Your Answer: Not required as it is in the child's best interests
Correct Answer: Verbal consent from the mother
Explanation:According to the Green Book, a mother has parental responsibility for her children and written consent is not required for immunizations. Both parents’ consent is not necessary, but consent should be obtained before each immunization is administered.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
When it comes to obtaining consent in children, the General Medical Council has provided guidelines. For children aged 16 and above, they can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to decide. However, for those under 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines their capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
In terms of providing contraceptives to patients under 16, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency for contraception and Gillick competency for general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused. For consistency over competence in children, it is crucial to follow these guidelines when obtaining consent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing quite ill. He has been experiencing fever, vomiting, diarrhea, leg pain, and headache overnight. He appears pale, has cold extremities, neck stiffness, and a few spots that blanch on pressure.
What is the most crucial management option to consider?Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Correct Answer: Intramuscular penicillin and admit to hospital
Explanation:Early Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Meningitis
Suspected meningococcal meningitis should be treated as an emergency, even in the absence of a non-blanching rash. The rash may be nonspecific or absent early on in the disease. Any patient with suspected bacterial meningitis or suspected meningococcal septicaemia should be admitted to the hospital immediately. In cases where there may be a delay in admission, Benzylpenicillin should be given. The recommended dose of benzylpenicillin is 1200 mg for adults, 600 mg for those aged 1-9 years, and 300 mg for those aged < 1 year. Cefotaxime may be used as an alternative in cases of penicillin allergy. Antibiotics should be injected intravenously or intramuscularly (IM) in adults and IM in children, with the recommended site of IM injection being the quadriceps muscle. GPs should carry these drugs (up-to-date) in their bags.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with shortness of breath.
An ECG shows atrial fibrillation (AF).
He takes digoxin, furosemide, and lisinopril.
What further drug would improve this patient's outcome?Your Answer: Dipyridamole
Correct Answer: Abciximab
Explanation:Prophylactic Therapy for AF Patients with Heart Failure
The risk of embolic events in patients with heart failure and AF is high, with the risk of stroke increasing up to five-fold in non-rheumatic AF. The most appropriate prophylactic therapy for these patients is with an anticoagulant, such as warfarin.
According to studies, for every 1,000 patients with AF who are treated with warfarin for one year, 30 strokes are prevented at the expense of six major bleeds. On the other hand, for every 1,000 patients with AF who are treated with aspirin for one year, only 12.5 strokes are prevented at the expense of six major bleeds.
It is important to note that NICE guidelines on Atrial fibrillation (CG180) recommend warfarin, not aspirin, as the preferred prophylactic therapy for AF patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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