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Question 1
Correct
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The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is?
Your Answer: Transport the ovum towards the uterus
Explanation:Cilia are small hair line projections in the fallopian tube. Their main function is to transport the egg through he fallopian tube towards the uterus. It is present in many other tubular organs and its function varies accordingly to the organ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Your Answer: Phenotypically they are female but with undeveloped breasts
Correct Answer: They have no uterus
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice as she was recently exposed to chickenpox. Regarding fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) which of the following statements is correct regarding maternal varicella infection?
Your Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection within the 1st 20 weeks gestation
Explanation:(13-20 weeks). If a mother has chickenpox in late pregnancy (5 days prior to delivery) then there is risk of neonatal varicella infection which may be severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 4
Correct
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Question 5
Correct
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A 26 year old patient with a past medical history of 2 terminations of pregnancies over the past 2 years, presents to the emergency centre complaining of severe abdominal pain and some vaginal bleeding. She has a regular 28 day cycle, and is on an oral contraceptive pill, but missed last month's period. Her last termination was over 6 months ago. She smokes almost a pack of cigarettes a day. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:The clinical picture demonstrated is most likely that of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The period of amenorrhea may point to pregnancy, while the past medical history of 2 recent terminations of pregnancy may indicate a failure of her current contraceptive method. Smoking cigarettes have been shown to not only decrease the efficacy of OCPs, but also serve as a known risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. The lady is unlikely to have endometritis as her last termination was over 6 months ago. The lack of fever helps to make appendicitis, PID and pyelonephritis less likely, though they are still possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Incorrect
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All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?
Your Answer: Subpubic arch accepts 2 fingers
Correct Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
Explanation:For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?
Your Answer: Uterine atony
Explanation:Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.
Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:
Your Answer: 2 days
Explanation:During early pregnancy, hCG can be detected in the maternal serum as early as 6 to 8 days after fertilization. hCG levels are dynamically increased and doubled every 48 h in most normal pregnancies, and this pattern is similar in both in vivo or in vitro (IVF) conceptions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit due to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp in nature, which is occurring with movement and exercise and that the pain will be alleviated with application of a heating pad. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits and there is no fever or chills. What would be the most likely etiology of pain in this patient?
Your Answer: Round ligament pain
Explanation:The patient is presenting with classic symptoms of round ligament pain.
Round ligaments are structures which extends from the lateral portion of the uterus below to the oviduct and will travel downward in a fold of peritoneum to the inguinal canal to get inserted in the upper portion of the labium majus. As the gravid uterus grows out of pelvis during pregnancy, these ligaments will stretch, mostly during sudden movements, resulting in a sharp pain. Due to dextrorotation of uterus, which occurs commonly in pregnancy, the round ligament pain is experienced more frequently over the right side. Usually this pain improves by avoiding sudden movements, by rising and sitting down gradually, by the application of local heat and by using analgesics.As the patient is not experiencing any symptoms like fever or anorexia a diagnosis of appendicitis is not likely. Also in pregnant women appendicitis often presents as pain located much higher than the groin area as the growing gravid uterus pushes the appendix out of pelvis.
As the pain is localized to only one side of groin and is alleviated with a heating pad the diagnosis of preterm labor is unlikely. In addition, the pain would persist even at rest and not with just movement in case of labor.
As the patient has not reported of any urinary symptoms diagnosis of urinary tract infection is unlikely.
Kidney stones usually presents with pain in the back and not lower in the groin. In addition, with a kidney stone the pain would occur not only with movement, but would persist at rest as well. So a diagnosis of kidney stone is unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?
Your Answer: Discharge with no follow up
Explanation:As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Question 12
Correct
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In twin deliveries: Which is true?
Your Answer: There is increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Twin gestations are at increased risk for postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). A number of maternal and peripartum factors are associated with PPH requiring blood transfusion in twin gestations. Reducing the rate of caesarean delivery in twin pregnancies may decrease maternal hemorrhagic morbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her menstrual cycle should blood be collected for progesterone, if she has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: Day 21
Explanation:Maximum levels of progesterone are detected at day 21 of 28 days in the menstrual cycle, assuming that ovulation has occurred at day 14. A value of >30nmol/l indicates an ovulatory cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female puberty?
Your Answer: Menarche, maximal growth velocity, Thelarche
Correct Answer: Thelarche, maximal growth velocity, menarche
Explanation:Thelarche means appearance of the breast tissue under the influence of oestrogen from the ovaries. It heralds the onset of puberty among girls. It is followed by an increase in growth velocity followed by menarche which is the time of first menstrual bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 15
Correct
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A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 1 gene is 70% and of ovarian cancer is 40%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: She should use lmplanon®
Correct Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg
Explanation:Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:
Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparationAll other options are not acceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Explanation:Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?
Your Answer: Activates Antithrombin III
Correct Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis
Explanation:Activation of Antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Correct
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You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends approximately a quarter of the thickness through the external anal sphincter. How would you classify this tear?
Your Answer: 3a
Explanation:1. First-degree trauma corresponds to lacerations of the skin/vaginal epithelium alone.
2. Second-degree tears involve perineal muscles and therefore include episiotomies.
3. Third-degree extensions involve any part of the anal sphincter complex (external and internal sphincters):
i Less than 50 per cent of the external anal
sphincter is torn.
ii More than 50 per cent of the external anal
sphincter is torn.
iii Tear involves the internal anal sphincter
(usually there is complete disruption of the
external sphincter).
4. Fourth-degree tears involve injury to the anal sphincter complex extending into the rectal mucosa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 26 year old female patient comes to a GP asking to see a gynaecologist for cervical screening test. She has no history of sexual intercourse and is not a lesbian. What would you do next?
Your Answer: Ask one of the nurses to take the cervical screening test
Correct Answer: Reassure her there is no need for cervical screening test at this stage
Explanation:Women, who have never had sexual encounter, do not need cervical screening. However, any sort of sexual encounter (Lesbian or heterosexual) is considered a risk and the patient must be screened. Otherwise, routine cervical screening test can be performed every five years for woman 25-74 years who ever had sex with no evidence of cervical pathology. Perform a cervical screening test at the age of 25 or 2 years after first sexual intercourse-whichever is later in sexually active women. Perform cervical screening test in patients above 75 years if they request or if they never had any symptoms.
All other options are unacceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Study Z gets funding to increase the population size from 1000 to 2000 patients. What effect is this likely to have on the results?
Your Answer: Decrease type 1 errors
Correct Answer: Decrease type 2 errors
Explanation:Increasing sample size decreases type 2 errors and increases power of the results. Sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain constant regardless of sample size. Confidence intervals are applied by a statistician and are dependent on the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?
Your Answer: Tertiary
Correct Answer: Secondary
Explanation:Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.
Stages of Syphilis:
– Primary 3-90 days
Chancre and lymphadenopathy
– Secondary 4-10 weeks
Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
– Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
– Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
Asymptomatic
– Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
Gummas or
Neurosyphilis or
Cardiovascular syphilis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Incorrect
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In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 105 g/l
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Anaemia in pregnancy is defined by the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidance: 1st trimester Hb < 110 g/l 2nd and 3rd trimester Hb < 105 g/l Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the RCOG advice regarding timing of Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin following abortion?
Your Answer: Anti-D IgG within 24 hours following abortion
Correct Answer: Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion
Explanation:All non-sensitised RhD negative women should receive Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged 1st stage of labour. You note the fetal head start to retract after being tightly applied to the vulva (turtle-neck sign). What is the next most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: C-section
Correct Answer: McRoberts' manoeuvre
Explanation:Call for help.
• Ensure personnel are available to ‘scribe’.
Document the time the head delivered, which shoulder is anterior (this is the arm most vulnerable to injury) and the times at which each manoeuvre is employed.
• Drop the level of the delivery bed as low as it will go, and flatten the back of the bed so the woman is completely flat. Remove the foot of the bed to allow access.
• Assess for and perform an episiotomy, if needed.
• Using one assistant on each of the mother’s legs, flex and abduct the legs at the hip (thighs to abdomen, known as McRoberts manoeuvre). This flattens the lumbosacral spine and will facilitate delivery is around 90 per cent of cases.
• If this fails, suprapubic pressure should be
applied by another assistant. This should be
applied over the posterior aspect of the anterior fetal shoulder and will act to push the shoulders together. It can be used in a constant and then rocking motion.
• If both these fail, then internal manoeuvres are necessary. The order of these will depend on the skill and experience of the person conducting the delivery and the individual case. These manoeuvres have been named after famous obstetricians, but it is the process rather than the name that is important:
• An attempt can be made to rotate the baby, so that the shoulders enter the diagonal to allow delivery. The first procedure is usually to insert a hand behind the anterior shoulder, and push it towards the chest (Rubin II). This will adduct the shoulders then push them into the diagonal. This can be combined with pressure on the
anterior aspect of the posterior shoulder
to aid rotation (Woods’ screw). If this fails,
an attempt can be made to rotate the baby
in the opposite direction (reverse Woods’
screw). Delivery of the posterior arm can be
attempted passing a hand into the vagina, in
front of the posterior shoulder and deliver
the posterior arm by swinging it in front of
the fetal chest.
If these all fail, the patient can be moved on to all fours as this increases the anterior–posterior diameter of the inlet. In this position, the posterior arm can be delivered.
After this, manoeuvres of last resort include a symphysiotomy, in which the maternal symphysis is divided, Zavanelli’s, in which the head is reduced back into the vagina and a Caesarean section performed and intentional fracture of the fetal
clavicle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman, at her 29th week of gestation, presents to physician with flu-like symptoms for the past 3 days along with runny nose, mild headache and she feels achy. She also has mild fever and diffuse rash all over her body. She is concerned about the health of her baby and wants to know if there are any safe medications which will make her feel better in a short time. She has received tetanus vaccination as part of antenatal care program since she immigrated at the end of her first trimester from Romania. Patient is otherwise healthy. Considering the symptoms and travel history of this patient, she is at higher risk of giving birth to a newborn with which of the following options?
Your Answer: Brachial-femoral delay
Correct Answer: Wide pulse pressure
Explanation:This pregnant woman likely has an infection with the rubella virus, which increases the risk of congenital rubella syndrome in her newborn. congenital heart diseases, particularly patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a part of this syndrome. Persistence of a patent vessel between the left pulmonary artery and aorta which is supposed to closes in the first 18 hours functionally and in the first 2–3 days of life anatomically is called as PDA.
Normally there is right to left shunting in utero, but in case of PDA blood is shunted from the left (aorta) to the right (pulmonary artery) due to the decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance after birth. This causes right ventricular hypertrophy, if left untreated it can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure. There will be a continuous machine-like murmur, heard over the left upper sternal border, as the blood is shunted throughout cardiac cycle. Diastolic BP becomes lower than normal, leading to a higher pulse pressure which is felt as a bounding pulse due to the lost volume from aorta. Though PDA is a non-cyanotic condition, it may lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome in which R to L shunting persists, resulting in cyanosis, clubbing and polycythemia. Treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like indomethacin can close patent PDA. Other symptoms in infants born with rubella syndrome are microcephaly and cataract.
The characteristic feature of an atrial septal defect or ASD, which is a congenital heart disease presenting as an opening in the septa between right and left atria, is a single fixed S2. There will be a delay in closure of the pulmonic valve, due to the excess amount of blood diverted to the right side.
Brachial-femoral delay is a finding in coarctation of aorta, which presents as hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities.
A double split S2 is a physiological finding caused by the closure of pulmonary and aortic valves on inspiration.
PDA and pulmonary artery stenosis are the most common cardiac defects reported along with congenital rubella syndrome (CRS), whereas tricuspid valve regurgitation is never reported along with it.
Learning objective: is associated with a continuous machine-like murmur heard over the left upper sternal border, bounding pulse and an increased pulse pressure are the usual symptoms associated with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is mostly seen along with congenital rubella syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness. As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care. Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?
Your Answer: No action is needed because the patient is asymptomatic, has not missed her period, and cannot be pregnant.
Correct Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.
Explanation:Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.
In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.
An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.
A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.
A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese women?
Your Answer: Oral norethindrone/ethinyl oestradiol (Aranelle, Brevicon)
Correct Answer: The etonogestrel/ethinyl oestradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing)
Explanation:Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate and the combination contraceptive vaginal ring are the most effective hormonal contraceptives for obese women because they do not appear to be affected by body weight. Women using the combination contraceptive patch who weight 90 kg may experience decreased contraceptive efficacy. Obese women using oral contraceptives may also have an increased risk of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH,LH and E2 levels on hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
Explanation:Mullerian agenesis occurs in 1 in 5000 to 1 in 40000 girls. The Mullerian system does not develop which results in an absent uterus and upper vagina. This condition is also known as Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, The ovarian function is normal and so the most common presentation is amenorrhea in the presence of an otherwise normal pubertal development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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