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Question 1
Correct
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An infant develops bile-stained vomiting; an abdominal X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ appearance. The infant is also hypotonic with brachycephaly.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:Genetic Disorders and Associated Phenotypic Features
Trisomy 21: Down Syndrome and Duodenal Atresia
Neonates with Down syndrome have an increased risk of duodenal atresia, accounting for around a third of cases. Prenatal imaging can detect this condition, which presents with bilious vomiting within hours of birth. Down syndrome is also characterized by distinct physical features such as brachiocephaly, upward slanting palpebral fissures, and joint hyperflexibility.45,XO: Turner Syndrome and Cardiac Defects
Turner syndrome affects females with a genetic complement of 45XO. It is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and lymphoedema. Cardiac defects, including coarctation of the aorta, may also be present.Fragile X: Learning Disability and Autism
Fragile X is a common X-linked form of learning disability and autism. Physical features are difficult to detect in infancy, but delayed motor milestones and speech and language delay may be present. Macro-orchidism is almost universal post-puberty, and cardiac defects, including mitral valve prolapse, may occur.Trisomy 18: Edwards’ Syndrome and Neonatal Hypotonia
Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is characterized by neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures. There is severe psychomotor and growth retardation, microcephaly, and microphthalmia. Over 90% have cardiac defects, commonly VSD, as well as anomalies in most organ systems.47,XXY: Klinefelter’s Syndrome and Infertility
Klinefelter’s syndrome affects males with a genetic complement of either 47,XXY or 48,XXXY. It is a random mutation, not inherited, and is characterized by tall stature, poorly developed testes or cryptorchidism, and gynaecomastia. Infertility is common. Physical features are not obvious in infancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-week pregnant woman is referred to the pregnancy clinic with gestational hypertension. There is no evidence of protein in her urine.
Which of the following is the most suitable treatment?Your Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Hypertension Medications During Pregnancy
Gestational hypertension, which is characterized by new hypertension after 20 weeks without significant proteinuria, can be treated with various medications. However, not all hypertension medications are safe during pregnancy. Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide and thiazide-like diuretics like indapamide, should be avoided as they can cause complications in the fetus. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) like losartan and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like ramipril can also affect fetal blood pressure control and should be avoided unless essential. Labetalol is recommended as the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension, with methyldopa and nifedipine as other safe options. Hypertension is defined as a diastolic BP >90 mmHg or a systolic BP >140 mmHg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact on her self-esteem. She has been experiencing acne for a few years and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, which has provided some relief. After a thorough discussion, you decide to initiate treatment with topical isotretinoin. What other side effect, in addition to its teratogenic effects, should you inform her about?
Your Answer: Headache
Correct Answer: Erythema
Explanation:The initial approach to treating acne involves the use of a topical retinoid (such as tretinoin, isotretinoin, or adapalene) or benzoyl peroxide, particularly if there are papules and pustules present. Patients should be informed of the potential side effects of topical retinoids, which may include burning, redness, and dryness of the skin, as well as eye irritation and swelling. However, topical retinoids are not associated with aggravating acne, causing headaches or nausea, or leading to yellowing of the skin.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from diarrhoea and frequent respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 72 mmol/l.
Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Genetic Inheritance Patterns and Examples of Associated Conditions
Autosomal Recessive:
Autosomal recessive inheritance occurs when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. The affected individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to develop the condition. Cystic fibrosis is an example of an autosomal recessive condition.Autosomal Dominant:
Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when an individual inherits one copy of a mutated gene from one parent. The affected individual only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene to develop the condition. Marfan syndrome and familial hypercholesterolaemia are examples of autosomal dominant conditions.Chromosomal Non-Disjunction:
Chromosomal non-disjunction occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or when chromatids fail to separate during mitosis. This results in daughter cells having either two chromosomes/chromatids or none. Down syndrome is an example of a condition resulting from chromosomal non-disjunction.Chromosomal Translocation:
Chromosomal translocation occurs when two non-homologous chromosomes exchange parts, causing fusion chromosomes. Chronic myelogenous leukaemia is an example of a condition resulting from chromosomal translocation.Sex-Linked:
Sex-linked inheritance occurs when a mutated gene is located on the X or Y chromosome. As a result, the condition is more common in one sex than the other. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, red-green colour blindness, and haemophilia are examples of sex-linked conditions.Conclusion:
Understanding genetic inheritance patterns is important in diagnosing and managing genetic conditions. Genetic counselling can also be helpful in providing information about the risk of passing on a genetic condition to offspring. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell and lethargic for the past 2 weeks. He reports a yellow-green tinge to his vision as his only other symptom. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, depression, and a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. He takes multiple medications that come in a blister pack, but he is unsure of their names. Upon blood testing, his Digoxin concentration is 3 mcg/l (<1 mcg/l). What medication could have caused this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Thiazides like bendroflumethiazide can cause digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalaemia, which allows digoxin to have more of an effect on Na+/K+ ATPase. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity are vague but may include gastrointestinal upset, weakness, fatigue, and xanthopsia. Citalopram, isosorbide mononitrate, and ramipril do not appear to have any significant effect on digoxin toxicity.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions
Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.
Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Correct
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A 92-year-old male was admitted to the stroke ward with right-sided facial droop and hemiplegia. CT head revealed a significant infarct in the left middle cerebral artery. The patient has finished a 2-week course of high-dose aspirin (300mg) for the management of an acute ischemic stroke. What is the best choice for secondary prevention?
Your Answer: Switch to clopidogrel
Explanation:The preferred antiplatelet for secondary prevention following a stroke is clopidogrel 75mg, as it reduces the risk of major adverse cardiovascular events. It is recommended for patients who have had a transient ischaemic attack or confirmed stroke after two weeks of high-dose aspirin. Low-dose aspirin (75mg) and modified-release dipyridamole can be used as an alternative if clopidogrel is contraindicated. High-dose aspirin (300 mg) is only indicated in the first 2 weeks after an acute ischaemic stroke. Anticoagulants such as DOACs and warfarin are used to prevent clot formation and embolisation in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) to reduce the risk of stroke. However, since there is no evidence of AF in this patient, these options are not applicable.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old student is brought to the clinic by his companions as he appears confused. They mention that he has been experiencing headaches for the past few weeks. During the examination, he has a low-grade fever and his mucosa is unusually pink. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning
Explanation:Typical symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include confusion and pink mucosae, with a low-grade fever being present in only a small number of cases.
Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.
Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.
To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.
In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric urology clinic due to recurrent urinary tract infections. A renal ultrasound revealed dilatation of the ureters. The boy's father remembers having a similar issue with a valve in his ureters during childhood, resulting in urine flowing back towards the kidneys. What is the most suitable test to assess the severity of the probable underlying cause?
Your Answer: Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan
Correct Answer: Micturating cystography
Explanation:Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a likely cause of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children under 6 years old. The family history, age of the patient, and abnormal ultrasound findings suggest VUR as the underlying issue. To determine the severity of VUR, a voiding cystourethrogram (micturating cystography) is necessary. This test involves injecting dye into the bladder via a catheter and taking x-ray images while the child urinates. Early detection of VUR is crucial to prevent kidney scarring (reflux nephropathy).
Bladder ultrasound is not an appropriate method for grading VUR severity. While ultrasound imaging of the urinary tract, including the kidneys, can be useful, it cannot grade VUR severity.
A CT abdomen is not necessary and would expose the child to unnecessary radiation.
A dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan can assess renal parenchymal defects resulting from VUR and is typically performed within six months of an acute infection in children with recurrent UTIs. However, it cannot grade the severity of VUR.
Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux
Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.
The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.
To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.
Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation and undergoes a salpingectomy. She is also rhesus negative. What is the advice regarding anti-D?
Your Answer: Anti-D should be given
Explanation:When managing an ectopic pregnancy through surgery, it is necessary to administer Anti-D immunoglobulin. However, if the ectopic pregnancy is being treated medically or if the location of the pregnancy is unknown, Anti-D is not needed. The Coombs test has two types: Direct Coombs, which is used to detect autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, and Indirect Coombs, which is used during pregnancy to identify antibodies in the mother’s blood that can cause haemolytic disease in the newborn.
Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 58-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent epigastric pain for several years. His symptoms improved with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) but returned after discontinuing the medication. He tested positive for Helicobacter pylori, but his symptoms returned after receiving eradication therapy. He now has unexplained iron deficiency anemia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer for endoscopy under the 2-week wait pathway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with ‘Red Flag’ Symptoms: Urgent Referral for Endoscopy
When managing a patient aged over 55 years with ‘red flag’ symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, or the presence of an epigastric mass, it is crucial to refer them for an urgent endoscopy to exclude serious pathology such as malignancy. In such cases, it would be inappropriate to manage the patient with medication alone, even if a previous trial of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) provided effective symptom relief. While dietary and lifestyle advice could be provided, it would not be an appropriate management strategy as a single intervention. Additionally, retesting for H. pylori would not be necessary as adequate triple therapy for H. pylori eradication has reported high cure rates. The priority in managing such patients is to refer them for urgent endoscopy to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Still, his symptoms did not improve, and his rheumatologist prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago.
On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
What is the underlying condition?Your Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and their Causes
Skin hypersensitivity reactions can range from mild to life-threatening. Here are some common types and their causes:
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is the most serious skin hypersensitivity reaction, with a high mortality rate. It is usually caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol and penicillins.
Erythema Multiforme: This is a target-like lesion that commonly occurs on the palms and soles. It is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs and sulfa drugs. Mycoplasma and herpes simplex infections can also cause erythema multiforme.
Erythema Nodosum: This is an inflammatory condition of subcutaneous tissue. The most common causes are recent streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fixed Drug Reaction: This is a localised allergic drug reaction that recurs at the same anatomic site of the skin with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by aspirin, NSAIDs, tetracycline and barbiturate.
Morbilliform Rash: This is a mild hypersensitivity skin reaction that manifests as a generalised maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. The rash can be caused by penicillin, sulfa drugs, allopurinol and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 72-year-old retired teacher visits the doctor with a painless gradual loss of vision. She reports difficulty reading as the words on the page are becoming harder to see. Additionally, she notices that straight lines in her artwork are appearing distorted, which is confirmed by Amsler grid testing. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient’s gradual central loss of vision and difficulty reading is dry age-related macular degeneration. This subtype accounts for the majority of cases of macular degeneration and typically presents with a gradual loss of vision. Glaucoma and retinal detachment are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as peripheral vision loss and sudden vision loss with flashes and floaters, respectively.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 73-year-old male patient with chronic heart failure presented to the cardiology clinic for follow-up after experiencing pulmonary edema. He is currently taking bisoprolol, lisinopril, and spironolactone. During the consultation, you observed that he has an irregularly irregular pulse. The patient reports ongoing breathlessness on exertion since the decompensation episode. What medication would you recommend adding as the next step in managing his symptoms?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:If the patient has chronic heart failure along with atrial fibrillation, digoxin is highly recommended. However, if the patient does not have atrial fibrillation, the next step in management would be a combination of hydralazine and a nitrate like isosorbide mononitrate. While furosemide can be used for immediate fluid offloading, it does not have a positive impact on long-term outcomes.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Correct
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What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?
Your Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin
Explanation:Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with a decline in his vision. He describes a gradual onset of dark floaters in his vision over the past few months and has recently experienced some episodes of flashing lights when outside in bright sunlight. The patient has a history of hypertension, which is managed with 5mg ramipril daily. He has a smoking history of 45 pack-years, does not consume alcohol, and is able to perform his daily activities independently. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's vision changes?
Your Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:The patient has flashers and floaters associated with vitreous detachment, which can lead to retinal detachment. This is not central retinal artery occlusion, ischaemic optic neuropathy, macular degeneration, or temporal arteritis.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following a work-related injury. He has presented to the clinic due to poor control of his pain. He is experiencing shooting pains down his legs with an associated burning sensation.
Despite intensive physiotherapy, his pain is still poorly controlled and requiring full dose codeine and paracetamol which is failing to control the pain.
His MRI was normal and he has been discharged by the spinal team due to no operable cause identified for his pain.
You're asked to review him due to ongoing pain. The nursing team has asked if he can have morphine sulfate prescribed as required to help with this. He was started by his general practitioner 3 months previously on amitriptyline which he hasn't found of any benefit.
You decide rather than just prescribing morphine that you can try to adjust his chronic pain management as well.
Which of the following options would be best for the management of his chronic pain?Your Answer: Continue amitriptyline and start gabapentin
Correct Answer: Stop amitriptyline and start duloxetine
Explanation:When it comes to managing chronic pain, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used alone. If they are not effective, it is recommended to switch to a different drug rather than adding another one. This question may also bring attention to poorly controlled acute pain, but it is important to note that morphine sulfate is not ideal for chronic pain management due to its potential side effects, dependence, and worsening of chronic pain. Tramadol is a better option for managing breakthrough pain in neuropathic pain patients, but it does not change the overall management of chronic pain. The recommended drugs for neuropathic pain include duloxetine, gabapentinoids, and amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant).
Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.
Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 60-year-old white man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His serum alkaline phosphatase level is 1000 iu/l (39–117 iu/l), calcium 2.25 mmol/l (2.2–2.67 mmol/l) and phosphate 1.2 mmol/l (0.8–1.5 mmol/l). Other liver function tests (LFTs) are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Bone Disorders and Blood Biochemistry: Understanding the Differences
Bone disorders can be difficult to diagnose, as many of them share similar symptoms. However, blood biochemistry can often provide clues to help differentiate between them. Here, we will discuss several common bone disorders and their associated blood biochemistry.
Paget’s Disease of Bone
Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects patients over the age of 40. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, deformities, nerve compression, and pathological fractures. Blood biochemistry typically shows raised serum alkaline phosphatase, with normal calcium and phosphate levels. Bisphosphonates are the mainstay of treatment.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Lung
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is the second most common form of lung cancer and is strongly linked to smoking. Symptoms include cough, wheeze, and haemoptysis. Squamous cell carcinomas can cause hypercalcaemia as part of the paraneoplastic syndrome, but normal calcium levels and lack of respiratory symptoms may rule out this diagnosis.
Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells of the bone marrow. Normal calcium levels and the mention of hearing loss may rule out this diagnosis.
Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a disease of inadequate bone mineralization, most commonly caused by vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms include bony pain, muscle tenderness and weakness, pathological fractures, and proximal myopathy. Blood biochemistry may reveal hypocalcaemia and raised alkaline phosphatase.
Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is caused by decreased bone density and tends to present initially with a fragility fracture. Blood biochemistry would be normal in a patient with osteoporosis.
In summary, understanding the differences in blood biochemistry can help differentiate between common bone disorders. This knowledge can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are a foundation year 2 doctor on your GP placement. You see 8-year-old Lily whose mother has brought her to see you as she feels Lily is snoring very loudly and wonders whether this is affecting her quality of sleep. Lily is overweight and has a background of childhood asthma.
What is a frequent cause of snoring in childhood?Your Answer: Recurrent otitis media
Correct Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Snoring in Children: Possible Causes
Snoring in children can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is obesity, which can lead to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing during sleep. Another possible cause is nasal problems such as polyps, deviated septum, and hypertrophic nasal turbinates, which can also obstruct the airways and cause snoring. Recurrent tonsillitis can also contribute to snoring, as the inflamed tonsils can block the air passages.
In some cases, snoring in children may be associated with certain medical conditions such as Down’s syndrome and hypothyroidism. These conditions can affect the structure and function of the respiratory system, leading to snoring and other breathing difficulties.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of snoring in children and seek appropriate treatment to prevent potential health complications. Parents should consult a healthcare professional if their child snores regularly or experiences other symptoms such as daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, or behavioral problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 29-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of muscle cramps and numbness in her hands and feet for the past 5 days. She also reports a tingling sensation around her mouth. The patient was diagnosed with epilepsy 8 weeks ago and has been prescribed phenytoin. What abnormality is most likely to be observed in her blood test results?
Your Answer: Corrected calcium of 1.5 mmol/L
Explanation:The patient is displaying typical symptoms of hypocalcaemia, including perioral paraesthesia, cramps, tetany, and convulsions. This condition can be a side effect of taking phenytoin, and if left untreated, it can lead to seizures due to changes in neuromuscular excitability. Mild cases of hypocalcaemia can be managed with oral supplementation, while more severe cases may require intravenous replacement.
It’s important to note that hypercalcaemia can cause bone pain, renal calculi, constipation, polyuria, fatigue, depression, and confusion. However, the patient does not display any of these symptoms.
Hyperkalaemia can cause muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but the patient does not have these symptoms. Hypokalaemia can also cause muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but the patient’s symptoms do not fit this condition.
Finally, hypernatraemia can cause nausea, vomiting, headache, and confusion, but the patient is not experiencing these symptoms.
Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs
Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Since calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval, while Trousseau’s sign may be present when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, and is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign, which is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people, involves tapping over the parotid gland to cause facial muscles to twitch.
In summary, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs related to neuromuscular excitability, including muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia, depression, and cataracts. Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign are also commonly observed in patients with hypocalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking a combination of paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced significant relief. Her current medications include as-needed paracetamol and ibuprofen, as well as Cerazette, a progestogen-only pill. What is the most suitable medication to consider for reducing the frequency of her migraines?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For women of childbearing age who suffer from migraines, propranolol is a better option than topiramate. This is because NICE recommends both drugs for migraine prophylaxis, but the combined oral contraceptive pill cannot be used due to the patient’s migraine history. While zolmitriptan can be used to stop attacks, it is not effective for prophylaxis.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with a complaint of right eye pain that has been present for 2 days. She reports sensitivity to bright light but denies any history of eye trauma or regular use of contact lenses. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently taking methotrexate.
During the examination, the patient's vital signs are normal. The right eye appears red and is tearing. Fluorescein staining reveals the presence of a dendritic ulcer.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Topical aciclovir
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical aciclovir. This patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which is more common in immunosuppressed individuals. Topical aciclovir is the preferred treatment option. Artificial tears are not likely to be helpful as the patient’s eye is already watery. Oral flucloxacillin is not indicated for this condition, as it is typically used for superficial skin infections. Topical chloramphenicol is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis, which presents with different symptoms.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old individual is being examined after experiencing an anaphylactic reaction believed to be caused by a wasp sting. What is the most suitable initial test to investigate the reason for the reaction?
Your Answer: Skin patch test
Correct Answer: Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
Explanation:Performing a skin prick test would not be appropriate due to the patient’s history of anaphylaxis.
Types of Allergy Tests
Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.
Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman has a left hemisphere stroke due to thromboembolic occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA). She does not have a visual field deficit on confrontation testing and makes a good neurological recovery within seven days, being able to walk unaided. She is left with minor weakness of her right hand.
What advice is she most likely to be given by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)?Your Answer: No driving restriction necessary
Correct Answer: Must not drive for 1 month
Explanation:Driving Restrictions Following a Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, patients must not drive for at least one month, regardless of the severity. If clinical recovery is satisfactory, non-HGV drivers may resume driving after one month. However, if residual neurological deficits persist after one month, including visual field defects, cognitive defects, and impaired limb function, patients must not drive until these signs have fully resolved. Minor limb weakness alone does not require notification to the DVLA unless restriction to certain types of vehicles is needed.
If a patient has only minor weakness to the hand, they can resume driving after one month. However, if they wish to drive a group 2 vehicle, such as a large goods vehicle (LGV), they must wait at least two years. The DVLA may refuse or revoke a license for one year following a stroke or TIA, but patients can be considered for licensing after this period if there is no residual impairment likely to affect safe driving and no other significant risk factors. Licensing may be subject to satisfactory medical reports, including exercise electrocardiographic (ECG) testing.
In cases of doubt, driving assessments may be carried out at specialist rehabilitation centers. It is essential to contact the DVLA for an overview of the main restrictions for drivers with neurological and other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks' pregnant in her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 101 g/l 115–155 g/l
Haematocrit 38% 40–54%
Red blood cell count (RBC) 5.24 × 1012/l 4.0–5.0 × 1012/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 63 fl 80–100 fl
Mean corpuscular Hb (McHb) 20 pg 27–32 pg
Mean corpuscular Hb concentration 32 g/dl 32–36 g/dl
White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 241 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Foetal Hb (HbF) 0.6% < 1%
Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) 4.5% 1.5–3.5%
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: β-Thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Understanding β-Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Implications for Pregnancy
β-Thalassaemia trait is a genetic condition that can cause microcytic/hypochromic anaemia with a raised RBC and normal MCHC. This condition is often asymptomatic and can be diagnosed through a blood test that shows raised HbA2 levels. It is important to distinguish β-thalassaemia trait from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as folic acid deficiency, sickle-cell anaemia, α-thalassaemia trait, and iron deficiency.
If both parents have β-thalassaemia trait, there is a 25% chance of producing a child with β-thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the condition that can cause serious health problems. Therefore, it is important to screen both partners for β-thalassaemia trait before planning a pregnancy.
In summary, understanding β-thalassaemia trait and its implications for pregnancy can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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In a 16-year-old girl with severe weight loss, which of the following would be a common finding in association with anorexia nervosa (AN)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased excessive physical activity
Explanation:Features and Diagnostic Criteria of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia Nervosa (AN) is a serious eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Here are some features and diagnostic criteria of AN:
Increased excessive physical activity: Patients with AN tend to exercise excessively to lose weight.
Low plasma cortisol levels: AN patients have low levels of cortisol, a hormone that helps regulate metabolism and stress response.
Buccal pigmentation: This is not a typical feature of AN.
Raised gonadotrophin levels: Gonadotrophin levels are usually reduced in AN, leading to amenorrhoea in women and loss of sexual interest in men.
Hyperkalaemia: AN patients may have high levels of potassium in their blood.
Diagnostic criteria: According to the ICD-10, a definite diagnosis of AN requires body weight maintained at least 15% below the expected, self-induced weight loss, body image distortion, endocrine disorder involving the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis, and delayed or arrested pubertal events if onset is prepubertal.
Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Features and Diagnostic Criteria
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease and the next appropriate step is likely starting her on donepezil. She has a past medical history of ischaemic heart diseases, pacemaker insertion for bradyarrhythmias, diabetes mellitus type II, hypercholesterolaemia and general anxiety disorder (GAD).
Which one of the following could be a contraindication to the prescription of donepezil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Contraindications and Considerations for the Use of Donepezil
Donepezil is a medication used to treat Alzheimer’s disease. However, there are certain contraindications and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when prescribing this medication.
Bradycardia, a condition where the heart beats too slowly, is a relative contraindication for the use of donepezil. This medication may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular node block, so caution should be taken in patients with other cardiac abnormalities. Additionally, patients with asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, supraventricular conduction abnormalities, susceptibility to peptic ulcers, and sick-sinus syndrome should also be closely monitored when taking donepezil.
Concurrent use of simvastatin, a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, is not a concern when taking donepezil. General anxiety disorder (GAD) and diabetes mellitus type II are also not contraindications for the use of donepezil.
However, elderly patients with a known history of persistent bradycardia, heart block, recurrent unexplained syncope, or concurrent treatment with drugs that reduce heart rate should avoid donepezil. A history of ischaemic heart diseases alone is not a contraindication for donepezil.
In summary, healthcare professionals should carefully consider a patient’s medical history and current medications before prescribing donepezil. Close monitoring is necessary in patients with certain cardiac abnormalities and caution should be taken in elderly patients with a history of bradycardia or heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A social worker in their 40s has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection.
Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HCV RNA
Explanation:Hepatitis C Testing Methods
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several testing methods available to diagnose and monitor hepatitis C infection.
Quantitative HCV RNA tests measure the amount of hepatitis C virus in the blood, which is also known as the viral load. This test is the most sensitive and accurate way to confirm a hepatitis C diagnosis, especially when viral loads are low.
Screening tests for co-infection with other viruses, such as hepatitis B or HIV, may be done but do not assist in the diagnosis of hepatitis C infection itself.
Anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) serologic screening involves an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) that can detect antibodies to the virus. However, this test cannot distinguish between acute and chronic infection and may yield false-positive results.
HCV genotyping is a helpful tool for predicting the likelihood of response and duration of treatment. It is used in adult, non-immunocompromised patients with known chronic HCV infection.
Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-HAV screening tests for co-infection with hepatitis A virus may be done but do not assist in the diagnosis of hepatitis C infection itself.
Hepatitis C Testing Methods
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing with other students and has been caught smoking on several occasions. Her general practitioner suspects a diagnosis of conduct disorder. She has already been diagnosed with anxiety disorder. She is not currently on any medications.
Given the new suspected diagnosis of conduct disorder, what is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Management of Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals
Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent patterns of aggressive and antisocial behavior. The management of conduct disorder involves a combination of pharmacological and psychosocial interventions. Here are some of the key interventions and referrals for managing conduct disorder:
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): CBT techniques are used as part of the psychosocial interventions for conduct disorder. These techniques are considered as part of the first-line management of conduct disorder.
Methylphenidate: Methylphenidate is a medication that is used in the treatment of ADHD, which is often a coexisting condition with conduct disorder. This medication should only be initiated and coordinated by a specialist in secondary care (such as CAMHS).
Antidepressant Medications: Antidepressant medications should not be the first line in the management of conduct disorder, particularly with no coexisting health conditions. If there were depressive symptoms, these medications could be considered but are generally avoided in this age group.
Psychosocial Interventions: Psychosocial interventions are important in the management of conduct disorder. These include child-focussed programmes, multimodal interventions and parent training programmes. These interventions would be considered first-line management for conduct disorder if there was not the co-existing complicating factor of ADHD.
Referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS): Patients presenting with symptoms of conduct disorder with a significant complicating factor should be referred to CAMHS for specialist assessment. These factors include mental health problems, neurodevelopmental disorder, learning disability or difficulty, and substance misuse. However, if the patient has already been referred to CAMHS, re-referral would not be necessary.
Managing Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A mother visits the GP clinic seeking information on the hearing tests conducted during school entry. She is anxious about the hearing screening tests as her sister had a language delay caused by hearing impairment that went unnoticed. Her daughter is 4 years old and is about to start preschool. What kind of hearing screening test will be provided to her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pure tone audiometry
Explanation:In the majority of regions in the UK, pure tone audiometry is conducted when children start school. Newborns and infants undergo an Auditory Brainstem Response test if the otoacoustic emission test yields abnormal results. The newborn hearing screening programme includes an otoacoustic emission test. Health visitors perform a distraction test on infants between 6-9 months old. A speech discrimination test is administered after children reach 2.5 years of age.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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