-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?
Your Answer: Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms
Gilbert Syndrome:
Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.Haemolytic Anaemia:
Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.Hepatitis A:
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.Hepatitis B:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).Cholecystitis:
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.Conclusion:
In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
In a 20-year-old man with primary generalised epilepsy, what is the most suitable initial oral treatment option?
Your Answer: Valproate
Explanation:First-Line Treatments for Seizures: A Guide to Medications
When it comes to treating seizures, there are several medications available. However, not all medications are suitable for every type of seizure. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used medications and their recommended uses:
Valproate: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for children, young people, and adults with newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures. However, it is important to be aware of the teratogenic and developmental risks associated with valproate.
Carbamazepine: This medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for new-onset focal seizures, but not for generalized seizures.
Topiramate: While topiramate is not routinely used as a first-line treatment for any type of seizure, it can be used as an adjunct.
Phenytoin: This medication is useful as a rescue medication in status epilepticus, but should not be considered first-line for any seizure type due to troublesome long-term side effects.
Phenobarbital: This medication is now rarely used for seizures due to its unacceptable side effects when compared to more modern alternatives.
Overall, the first-choice treatments for primary generalized epilepsy are lamotrigine and valproate. For partial (localization-related) epilepsy, carbamazepine, valproate, lamotrigine, and oxcarbazepine are all reasonable first choices.
In summary, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best medication for an individual’s specific type of seizure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers are plotting against him and trying to sabotage his work, despite reassurance and evidence to the contrary. He has had multiple heated arguments with his colleagues and after each one, he becomes aggressive and blames them for his outbursts. He sometimes feels like he cannot function without them, but also sometimes feels that they are out to get him. He has a history of a recent suicide attempt and has difficulties trusting his family as he feels they are part of the conspiracy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young man in question is likely suffering from borderline personality disorder (BPD), also known as emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD). This condition is characterized by unstable relationships, alternating between idealization and devaluation of others, recurrent self-harm, unstable self-image and self-esteem, suicidal behavior, difficulty controlling anger, and efforts to avoid abandonment. All of these traits are present in this patient, making BPD the most likely diagnosis.
Narcissistic personality disorder is not a likely diagnosis for this patient, as it is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement. These traits are not present in this patient, and his periods of devaluing her partner are temporary and not pervasive.
Dependent personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as this condition is characterized by a pervasive need for others to make decisions for the patient and constant reassurance. While the patient has felt that he cannot live without his partner in the past, his labile mood and alternating view of his partner make this diagnosis less likely.
Paranoid personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as patients with this condition tend to be reluctant to confide in others and have an unforgiving attitude when insulted or questioned. The patient in question does not exhibit these traits, and his difficulty with trusting friends is likely due to his belief that he is undeserving of them.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man with known type I diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and vomiting.
On examination, he appears dehydrated. He is started on an insulin infusion. His blood tests are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH (venous) 7.23 7.35–7.45
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) 2.1 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) 11.2 kPa 10–14 kPa
Sodium (Na+) 135 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l 22–28 mmol/l
Glucose 22.4 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l
Ketones 3.6 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
What should happen to his regular insulin while he is treated?
Select the SINGLE best treatment from the list below.
Your Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin
Explanation:Treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Continuing Long-Acting Insulin and Stopping Short-Acting Insulin
When a patient presents with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to provide prompt treatment. This involves fluid replacement with isotonic saline and an intravenous insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg per hour. While this takes place, the patient’s normal long-acting insulin should be continued, but their short-acting insulin should be stopped to avoid hypoglycemia.
In addition to insulin and fluid replacement, correction of electrolyte disturbance is essential. Serum potassium levels may be high on admission, but often fall quickly following treatment with insulin, resulting in hypokalemia. Potassium may need to be added to the replacement fluids, guided by the potassium levels. If the rate of potassium infusion is greater than 20 mmol/hour, cardiac monitoring is required.
Overall, the key to successful treatment of DKA is a careful balance of insulin, fluids, and electrolyte replacement. By continuing long-acting insulin and stopping short-acting insulin, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman visits her GP with a query regarding oral contraception. She gave birth to her fourth child 2 weeks ago and believes that her family is complete. After weighing the options, she has decided to begin taking the combined contraceptive pill. She has no significant medical history and only takes regular vitamin supplements without any allergies. She is not breastfeeding at the moment.
What is the earliest possible time for her to start taking her preferred contraceptive?Your Answer: Commence 6 weeks post-partum
Correct Answer: Commence 3 weeks post-partum
Explanation:Women need to start using contraception only 21 days after giving birth during the post-partum period. It is recommended that they begin taking the combined contraceptive pill three weeks after delivery. However, if they are breastfeeding, they should wait for six weeks before starting the pill.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an acutely swollen and tender abdomen. He reports that it has been happening over the past few days. The patient appears unkempt and denies any significant medical history, medications, or drug use. He admits to drinking but is unsure of the amount. Upon examination, his abdomen is distended with shifting dullness, he has approximately 10 blanching red spots on his upper chest, and has tortuous dilated veins on his abdomen. The following are his vital signs:
Temperature: 36.4ºC
Blood pressure: 134/87 mmHg
Heart rate: 94 beats/min
Respiratory rate: 12 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
What is the most appropriate medication to initiate in this scenario, given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Patients who have ascites due to liver cirrhosis should receive an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as it helps to counteract the secondary hyperaldosteronism that occurs in cirrhosis. This condition attempts to increase intravascular volume, which is lost into the abdomen as ascites. Amiloride is not effective in treating ascites as it does not lead to significant diuresis and has no effect on the aldosterone pathway. Eplerenone is an alternative to spironolactone for patients who cannot tolerate its adverse effects. Furosemide is useful in treating ascites but should be used in conjunction with spironolactone due to the additional benefits of aldosterone blocking. Bendroflumethiazide is not useful in managing or preventing fluid overload conditions such as ascites.
Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management
Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.
The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder, which is well controlled with lithium, presents with a 2-day history of confusion, diarrhoea and tremors. He takes regular analgesia for chronic back pain and has been feeling unwell recently.
A blood test shows:
Value Reference
Lithium (serum) 4.2 mmol/L (0.6 - 1)
What is the probable reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Cranberry juice
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:NSAIDs can cause lithium toxicity by reducing renal excretion of lithium and increasing plasma levels. Therefore, routine monitoring of serum lithium levels is necessary, especially after initiation and dose changes. ACE-I and diuretics should not be used with lithium due to the risk of renal dysfunction. Abruptly stopping lithium does not cause toxicity, but reducing caffeine intake can lead to toxicity by reducing lithium clearance. Cranberry juice does not interact with lithium, but it increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis when taken with statins. Dehydration, not excessive water intake, increases the risk of lithium toxicity by reducing lithium excretion.
Understanding Lithium Toxicity
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.
Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.
In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to undergo a cholecystectomy in 4 days. She is currently managing her type 1 diabetes with a daily dose of 20 units of long acting insulin in the morning. What is the appropriate once-daily dose of insulin for her to take the day before her surgery?
Your Answer: 40 Units
Correct Answer: 16 Units
Explanation:Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 6.2 mmol/l
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?Your Answer: Bumetanide
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is in good health otherwise and does not show any signs of sepsis. During a urine dip test at the doctor's office, blood, leukocytes, protein, and nitrites are detected. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which she manages with salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, hypertension, which she treats with amlodipine 10mg daily and ramipril 5mg daily, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Which antibiotic should be avoided when treating this patient's urinary tract infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:When prescribing antibiotics for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to consider the patient’s level of renal function. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections, should be avoided in patients with CKD stage 3 or higher due to the risk of treatment failure and potential side effects caused by drug accumulation. Nitrofurantoin requires adequate glomerular filtration to be effective, and an eGFR of less than 40-60ml/min means the drug is unlikely to work. Additionally, nitrofurantoin can cause side effects such as peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and pulmonary reactions and fibrosis, particularly in patients with impaired renal function. Amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav are safer options for patients with CKD, although dose reduction may be necessary in severe cases. Ciprofloxacin also requires dose reduction in CKD to avoid crystalluria. Patients taking nitrofurantoin should be aware that the drug may cause urine discoloration, and it is generally safe to use during pregnancy except at full term.
Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure
When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.
On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.
Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.
In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of cough, fever, and unexplained weight loss. Acid-fast bacilli are detected in his sputum culture. He is prescribed a drug regimen consisting of isoniazid and rifampicin for 6 months, along with ethambutol and pyrazinamide for the first 2 months. Additionally, he is advised to take pyridoxine to prevent which complication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:Prescribing pyridoxine can help lower the risk of peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid.
Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs
Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.
Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial blood tests after discovering she is pregnant for the first time. She moved to the UK from Ukraine two years ago and did not receive the MMR vaccine during her childhood. Her rubella IgM and IgG tests both show negative results. What guidance would you offer her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To keep away from people who might have rubella and receive the MMR vaccine in the postnatal period
Explanation:If a woman who is pregnant lacks immunity to rubella, she should receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth.
In the absence of any indication that this pregnant woman has been exposed to rubella, she should avoid contact with individuals who may have the disease and receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth, as it cannot be administered during pregnancy. There is no recommended treatment for preventing rubella after exposure based on the clinical history. To prevent complications in future pregnancies, it is important to offer her the MMR vaccine.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man presents to the haematology clinic with fatigue, significant weight loss, and easy bruising over the past 2 years. His blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin: 90 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L; females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 85 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cells: 70.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- Neutrophils: 61.8 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 * 109/L)
- Lymphocytes: 1.2 * 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.5 * 109/L)
- Monocytes: 3.0 * 109/L (normal range: 0.2-0.8 * 109/L)
- Eosinophils: 2.5 * 109/L (normal range: 0.0-0.4 * 109/L)
The blood film shows obvious leucocytosis with eosinophilia and basophilia visible. There are also large numbers of immature granulocytes, but no blast cells are visible. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Imatinib
Explanation:The patient’s history and blood results suggest that they have chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), which is characterized by a high white cell count due to an excess of myeloid cells and a chronic presentation. The absence of blast cells indicates that this is not acute leukaemia. The patient’s anaemia and thrombocytopenia are likely due to bone marrow dysfunction caused by myelofibrosis, indicating a need for treatment. The first-line treatment for CML is imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is taken as a daily tablet and has shown excellent results in treating CML.
Given the patient’s signs of bone marrow dysfunction, conservative management is not appropriate. While there may be a role for no treatment in early disease detected incidentally on a blood test, this patient requires treatment at this point.
It is important to note that fludarabine and cyclophosphamide are chemotherapy agents used in treating chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) and have no role in managing CML. The blood test abnormalities expected in CLL are similar to those seen in CML, but with a differential showing normal or low neutrophil and high lymphocyte counts.
Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid used to treat various conditions, is often used in treating different forms of lymphoma but is not effective in managing CML.
Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.
CML typically affects individuals between 60-70 years of age and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in the chronic phase of CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogenic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old G3P0+2 woman comes for a routine antenatal check at 14 weeks gestation to her general practitioner. She has a medical history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia, epilepsy, hypertension, antiphospholipid syndrome, and dyslipidemia. Her current medications include lamotrigine, labetalol, atorvastatin, low molecular weight heparin, and clozapine. Additionally, she has started taking nitrofurantoin for a urinary tract infection. What medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy
The correct statement is that all statins, including atorvastatin, are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. While there is no conclusive evidence of teratogenicity, there have been reports of adverse outcomes such as intrauterine growth restriction and fetal demise in women taking statins during the first trimester. Lipophilic statins like atorvastatin can cross the placenta and reach similar concentrations in both the mother and fetus.
Clozapine is not a contraindication during pregnancy, as it is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia that is unresponsive to other medications. While caution is advised when using clozapine during pregnancy, it is not considered a contraindication.
Lamotrigine is also not contraindicated during pregnancy, as it is generally considered safe for use in pregnant women. Unlike many other antiepileptic drugs, lamotrigine has not been associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations.
Low-molecular-weight-heparin is also not contraindicated during pregnancy, and is often prescribed for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to prevent blood clots. This medication does not cross the placenta and is considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 16-month-old child has been referred to the haematology team due to painful bone swellings in the hands and feet, along with a positive family history of sickle cell disease. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent who are carriers of the condition. Huntington’s Disease is an example of an autosomal dominant condition, while Fragile X syndrome is an example of an X-linked dominant condition. Haemophilia is an example of an X-linked recessive condition, and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an example of a co-dominant condition.
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when abnormal haemoglobin, known as HbS, is produced due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in individuals of African descent, as the heterozygous condition provides some protection against malaria. About 10% of UK Afro-Caribbean’s are carriers of HbS, and they only experience symptoms if they are severely hypoxic. Homozygotes tend to develop symptoms between 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules replace fetal haemoglobin.
The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerise and sickle RBCs in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse, blocking small blood vessels and causing infarction.
The definitive diagnosis of sickle-cell anaemia is through haemoglobin electrophoresis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD and hypertension complains of pain while swallowing. The patient is currently taking a salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine. What could be the possible reason for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:Oesophageal candidiasis, a known complication of inhaled steroid therapy, often presents with pain while swallowing (odynophagia).
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.
To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.
It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman has been given a single dose of 1.5mg LevonelleTM (levonorgestrel) as emergency contraception after having unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) 24 hours ago. She wants to start taking oral combined hormonal contraception (‘the pill’) as ongoing contraception immediately as she anticipates having further UPSI. What is the appropriate time to begin ongoing contraception after taking emergency contraception?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediately
Explanation:According to FSRH guidelines, it is acceptable to begin hormonal contraception immediately after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. It is important to wait 5 days after taking ulipristal acetate (Ella-OneTM) before starting ongoing hormonal contraception. Waiting until the start of the next menstrual period is not necessary for quick-starting hormonal contraception, which can be done if the patient prefers it or if there is ongoing risk of pregnancy. While a negative pregnancy test at 21 days post-UPSI can reasonably exclude pregnancy, it is still recommended to take a pregnancy test 21 days after the episode of UPSI in case emergency contraception has failed.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of new-onset pain in his left groin. Upon examination, a large, warm, non-reducible mass located inferolateral to the pubic tubercle is observed, accompanied by erythema of the overlying skin. The patient reports vomiting twice and passing stools with blood mixed in them once. He appears to be in pain and is sweating profusely. His medical history includes peptic ulcer disease, which is managed with omeprazole. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Strangulated femoral hernia
Explanation:A femoral hernia can lead to the serious complication of strangulation. In this case, the patient has a non-reducible mass located below the pubic tubercle, which is typical of a femoral hernia. However, the accompanying symptoms of vomiting, bloody stools, and a toxic appearance suggest that the hernia has become strangulated, meaning that the blood supply to the herniated tissue has been compromised and may lead to tissue death.
An incarcerated femoral hernia would also present as a non-reducible mass below the pubic tubercle, but without the symptoms of strangulation.
In contrast, an incarcerated inguinal hernia would present as a non-reducible mass above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle, and would not cause symptoms of strangulation.
A perforated peptic ulcer would cause pain in the upper abdomen, syncope, and possibly vomiting blood, which is different from the patient’s symptoms.
Similarly, a strangulated inguinal hernia would cause similar symptoms, but the mass would be located above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle, rather than below it.
Understanding Femoral Hernias
Femoral hernias occur when a part of the bowel or other abdominal organs pass through the femoral canal, which is a potential space in the anterior thigh. This can result in a lump in the groin area that is mildly painful and typically non-reducible. Femoral hernias are less common than inguinal hernias, accounting for only 5% of abdominal hernias, and are more prevalent in women, especially those who have had multiple pregnancies. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but ultrasound may be used to confirm the presence of a femoral hernia and exclude other possible causes of a lump in the groin area.
Complications of femoral hernias include incarceration, where the herniated tissue cannot be reduced, and strangulation, which is a surgical emergency. The risk of strangulation is higher with femoral hernias than with inguinal hernias and increases over time. Bowel obstruction and bowel ischaemia may also occur, leading to significant morbidity and mortality for the patient.
Surgical repair is necessary for femoral hernias, and it can be done laparoscopically or via a laparotomy. Hernia support belts or trusses should not be used for femoral hernias due to the risk of strangulation. In an emergency situation, a laparotomy may be the only option. It is essential to distinguish femoral hernias from inguinal hernias, as they have different locations and require different management approaches.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old man presents to the clinic with a history of ischaemic heart disease and a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. His HbA1c at the time of diagnosis was 7.6% (60 mmol/mol) and he was started on metformin, which was titrated up to a dose of 1g bd. His most recent blood work shows a HbA1c of 6.8% (51 mmol/mol). He has recently retired from the IT industry and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². He is currently taking atorvastatin 80 mg, aspirin 75mg, bisoprolol 2.5 mg, and ramipril 5mg. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add empagliflozin
Explanation:In addition to metformin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor (such as empagliflozin) should be prescribed for this patient who has a history of cardiovascular disease.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman presents with complaints of dry, gritty, and painful eyes bilaterally. She has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years and has found little relief with frequent use of lubricating eye drops. Upon examination, both eyelids were crusted and had irregular margins. The meibomian orifices on both lids were obstructed with oily material. What is the underlying cause of this woman's dry eye condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meibomian blepharitis
Explanation:When the tarsal glands are chronically infected, they can hinder the production of the precorneal tear film, which is responsible for slowing down the evaporation of tears. This can ultimately lead to dry eyes.
The tarsal glands, also known as Meibomian glands, produce an oily substance that forms the outer layer of the precorneal tear film. This oily substance helps to prevent tear evaporation, while also improving tear stability and spreading. However, when Meibomian blepharitis occurs, the production of this oil is reduced, causing excessive water from the tear film to evaporate and resulting in dry eyes. None of the other options listed are relevant to this issue, as they do not involve dysfunction of the Meibomian glands.
Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome
Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.
Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after slipping on ice. He has a painful left leg that appears shortened and externally rotated. There are no visible skin breaks and no peripheral neurovascular compromise. An x-ray reveals a stable, complete, intertrochanteric proximal femur fracture. The patient has no medical history and takes no regular medications. He is given pain relief and referred to the orthopaedic team. What is the recommended procedure for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dynamic hip screw
Explanation:The optimal surgical management for an extracapsular proximal femoral fracture is a dynamic hip screw. This is the recommended approach for patients who are fit and have no comorbidities that would prevent them from undergoing surgery. Conservative management is not appropriate as it would lead to a reduced quality of life and is only considered for patients who cannot undergo surgery.
Intramedullary nails with external fixation are used for lower extremity long bone fractures, such as femur or tibia fractures. This involves inserting a nail into the bone alongside external fixation screws that are attached to a device outside the skin to provide additional support and realign the bone if necessary. External fixation is temporary and will be removed once the bone has healed sufficiently.
Hemiarthroplasty, which involves replacing the femoral head and neck, is typically used for displaced fractures and is less complicated than a total hip replacement (THR). It is suitable for less active patients who want to return to normal activities of daily living. However, THR is becoming more popular for active patients with displaced femoral neck fractures and pre-existing hip osteoarthritis. As this patient does not have a displaced fracture, THR is not necessary.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) experiences colicky abdominal pain after eating a large meal; this has been happening consistently for the past 3 weeks, causing him to develop a fear of eating.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic mesenteric ischaemia (CMI)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia, Chronic Pancreatitis, Diverticulitis, Gastric Cancer, and Acute Mesenteric Ischaemic Embolism
Abdominal pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this article, we will discuss the differential diagnosis for abdominal pain, including chronic mesenteric ischaemia (CMI), chronic pancreatitis, diverticulitis, gastric cancer, and acute mesenteric ischaemic embolism.
CMI usually results from atherosclerotic disease of two or more mesenteric vessels, while chronic pancreatitis is characterised by a continuing, chronic, inflammatory process of the pancreas. Diverticulitis is an inflammation of one or more diverticula, while gastric cancer is the third most common cause of cancer-related death in the world. Acute mesenteric ischaemic embolism is characterised by pain that is disproportionate to physical examination findings.
Each condition has its own unique set of symptoms and clinical presentation. By understanding the differential diagnosis for abdominal pain, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the GP with symptoms of feeling unwell. He has been experiencing up to 8 bowel movements a day for the past 3 days, with blood present in his stool each time. He denies having a fever. Urgent blood tests reveal the following results:
Hb 110 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 384 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 16 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 2.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 58 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 109 mg/L (< 5)
What is the initial treatment plan for this patient, given the severity of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for IV steroids
Explanation:When dealing with a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, it is important to evaluate the severity of the condition. In this case, the patient is experiencing more than six bloody stools per day, as well as systemic upset indicated by raised inflammatory markers and anaemia. This places him in the severe category. The first line of treatment would be IV corticosteroids, with IV ciclosporin as a second-line option if the steroids do not induce remission. Hospital admission for IV steroids is the appropriate course of action to induce remission, after which maintenance treatment can be assessed. For moderate extensive disease, oral aminosalicylate and oral steroids can be used. It would be inappropriate to send this patient home without any treatment, as he is clearly unwell and experiencing a flare of UC.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
You assess a 24-year-old female patient who complains of bilateral nasal obstruction, nocturnal cough, and clear nasal discharge for the past three weeks. She reports experiencing similar symptoms around the same time last year and has a medical history of asthma. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic rhinitis
Explanation:Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily activities. Proper management involves identifying and avoiding allergens, as well as using medication as prescribed by a healthcare professional.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
You are taking the history of an Emergency Department patient who was assaulted. The victim is a 20-year-old female who has a deep laceration on her thigh caused by a rusty machete. The wound has exposed tendon, muscle, and subcutaneous fat. According to her medical records, she received all her childhood immunizations on schedule, including 5 doses of tetanus vaccine, with the last one administered when she was 16 years old.
What is the appropriate management for tetanus risk in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No tetanus vaccine booster and no immunoglobulins required
Explanation:If a patient has received 5 doses of the tetanus vaccine, with the most recent dose administered less than 10 years ago, they do not need a booster vaccine or immunoglobulins, regardless of the severity of the wound. This is the correct course of action. The patient’s childhood vaccinations would have included 5 doses of the tetanus vaccine, with the last dose given at age 14 or later. Therefore, the patient is already adequately protected and does not require a booster or immunoglobulin, regardless of the severity of the wound.
The option of administering a tetanus vaccine booster with antibiotics is not the correct course of action. While antibiotics may be considered for protection against other bacteria, the patient already has sufficient protection against tetanus and does not require vaccination.
Similarly, administering a tetanus vaccine booster with tetanus immunoglobulin is not necessary. As previously mentioned, the patient already has adequate protection from previous vaccinations. Immunoglobulin would only be necessary if the patient had an incomplete or unknown vaccine history or if it had been more than 10 years since the last vaccine.
Lastly, administering a tetanus vaccine booster alone is not necessary. The patient already has protection from previous vaccinations and does not require a booster.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
You perform a medication review for a 75-year-old woman who comes in for a regular check-up. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, stage 2 CKD, hypertension, and gout. Despite her conditions, she is able to function well on her own and her blood pressure today is 125/72 mmHg. Which medication would you suggest discontinuing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Assessing medications in elderly patients can be challenging, as they may be taking unnecessary or harmful drugs. The STOPP-START Criteria (Gallagher et al., 2008) provides guidance on medications that should be considered for discontinuation in the elderly. In this case, the patient has gout, which can be aggravated by bendroflumethiazide, an outdated thiazide diuretic that is no longer recommended by NICE. Additionally, her blood pressure is well below the target for her age, which is 150/90 mmHg in clinic. Ramipril is a more suitable antihypertensive medication to continue for now, but it may also be discontinued if her blood pressure remains low. The patient requires aspirin and atorvastatin for her ischemic heart disease, and allopurinol for her gout.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 87-year-old woman presents with disorientation and restlessness. She has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, polymyalgia rheumatica, osteoarthritis and a hiatus hernia. Her current medications include bisoprolol, digoxin, amlodipine, omeprazole, prednisolone and as required paracetamol. She lives independently and is usually mentally alert. She has been increasingly unwell for the past week, complaining of increased pain in her shoulders, so her GP has increased the dose of prednisolone from 5mg to 30mg daily and added codeine 30mg four times a day. Physical examination and blood tests are unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polypharmacy
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Delirium in the Elderly: A Case Study
This patient is most likely experiencing delirium, which is a common condition among the elderly. One of the leading causes of delirium in this population is polypharmacy, which refers to taking multiple medications. In this case, the patient’s unremarkable physical examination and blood tests suggest that polypharmacy is the most likely explanation for her symptoms. Steroids and opioids, which she recently started taking, are known to cause delirium, especially in older adults. Patients with dementia or mild cognitive impairment are particularly vulnerable to the effects of polypharmacy.
Accidental poisoning is also a possibility, but the patient’s usual independence and mental alertness make this less likely. Additionally, her symptoms have been present for a week, which suggests a longer process than accidental poisoning. A chest infection could also cause delirium, but the patient’s examination and blood tests do not support this diagnosis.
Alcohol withdrawal is another potential cause of disorientation and restlessness, but there is no indication in the patient’s history that she is misusing alcohol. Finally, Alzheimer’s disease is unlikely given the short duration of the patient’s symptoms and her usual mental alertness. Overall, polypharmacy is the most probable cause of this patient’s delirium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You assess a teenager in clinic with a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. He struggles to stand up, using his arms to assist him in rising from a squat. What is this maneuver called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gower's sign
Explanation:Understanding Dystrophinopathies
Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It plays a crucial role in connecting the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both of the binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other common symptoms include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene. This mutation preserves both binding sites, resulting in a less severe form of the disorder. Symptoms typically develop after the age of 10 years, and intellectual impairment is much less common in patients with Becker muscular dystrophy.
Overall, understanding dystrophinopathies is important for early diagnosis and management of these disorders. While there is currently no cure for dystrophinopathies, early intervention and supportive care can help improve quality of life for affected individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man with metastatic squamous cell lung cancer is admitted to the Acute Medical Unit for the management of hypercalcaemia. He is currently taking slow-release morphine sulphate (MST) 90mg bd to control his pain along with regular naproxen and paracetamol. While in the hospital, he reports experiencing pain in his right arm where a skeletal metastasis is present. What medication would be the most suitable to prescribe for his pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral morphine solution 30mg
Explanation:The patient is experiencing break-through pain and bisphosphonates are not appropriate for acute pain relief. The recommended break-through dose is 30mg, which is 1/6th of their total daily morphine dose of 180mg.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old male visits his GP complaining of new visual symptoms. He is having difficulty reading the newspaper, particularly at night, and his symptoms appear to be fluctuating in severity. Upon fundoscopy, the doctor observes small deposits of extracellular material between Bruch's membrane and the retinal pigment epithelium, but otherwise the examination is unremarkable. The patient has a history of lifelong smoking. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Dry macular degeneration is also known as drusen. This condition is characterized by a gradual loss of central vision, which can fluctuate and worsen over time. Symptoms may include difficulty seeing in low light conditions and distorted or blurry vision. There are two forms of macular degeneration: dry and wet.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about routine prenatal care is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan should not be done at the same time
Explanation:Nowadays, numerous facilities combine the early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan into a single procedure.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A patient in her 40s comes in with concerns about her family history of cancer. Which type of cancer is the least likely to be passed down through genetics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric cancer
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis is responsible for the majority of cases of colon cancer, while HNPCC is responsible for a smaller percentage. Women with HNPCC have a significantly higher risk of developing endometrial cancer, approximately 5 times higher than the general population.
Cancer is a prevalent disease in the UK, with breast cancer being the most common type. Lung, colorectal, prostate, and bladder cancers also rank high on the list of common cancers. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, melanoma, stomach, oesophagus, and pancreas cancers complete the top ten. However, when it comes to cancer-related deaths, lung cancer takes the lead, followed by colorectal, breast, prostate, and pancreatic cancers. Oesophagus, stomach, bladder, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and ovarian cancers also contribute to cancer-related deaths in the UK. It is important to note that non-melanoma skin cancer is not included in these statistics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath. She states that this occurred while walking up a flight of stairs and stopped once she sat down. The patient states that over the past few months she has been progressively unable to climb stairs due to shortness of breath and occasional central chest heaviness which occur when she starts climbing. She has a past medical history of diabetes and smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
Her parameters are stable, with oxygen saturations of 97%, blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and heart rate of 90 bpm. A chest X-ray is done which comes back as normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below.
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Angina pectoris
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Chest Pain: Angina Pectoris, Anxiety Attack, COPD Exacerbation, Pneumothorax, and Unstable Angina
Chest pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions, and it is crucial to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest angina pectoris, which is characterized by constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, triggered by physical exertion and relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN). However, diabetic patients may present with dyspnea instead of typical anginal pain. The patient’s cardiovascular risk factors, including diabetes, smoking, and hypertension, further support the diagnosis of angina.
Anxiety attacks can also cause chest pain, along with palpitations, nausea, vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremors, and urinary frequency. Therefore, anxiety should be considered as a possible diagnosis after ruling out life-threatening conditions such as ischemic heart disease.
Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is another potential cause of chest pain, especially in smokers. However, the absence of a known COPD diagnosis and normal oxygen saturation levels make this diagnosis less likely in this case.
Pneumothorax, a collapsed lung, can also cause chest pain, but a normal chest X-ray makes this diagnosis unlikely.
Finally, unstable angina is a severe form of angina that can occur unexpectedly and at rest, lasting longer than stable angina and not relieved by rest. It requires emergency treatment as it can quickly progress to a heart attack. However, in this case, the patient’s symptoms occur during exercise and resolve with rest, suggesting stable angina rather than unstable angina.
In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for chest pain includes angina pectoris, anxiety attack, COPD exacerbation, pneumothorax, and unstable angina. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, risk factors, and symptoms is necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on morphine modified-release for several months. She currently takes 30 mg morphine modified-release twice daily. She has also been using Oramorph 10 mg four times daily for the past week because the twice-daily, 30-mg morphine modified-release has not been helping. You decide to increase the total dose of modified-release morphine.
Which of the following is the most appropriate dose of morphine modified-release?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate dose from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine modified-release 50 mg twice daily
Explanation:Understanding Opioid Conversion and Dosage Adjustments
When managing pain in patients with advanced and progressive disease, strong opioids such as morphine are often used. However, as the patient’s condition changes, adjustments to the dosage and type of opioid may be necessary.
For example, if a patient is using a total of 100 mg of morphine in 24 hours and requires increased use of Oramorph PRN, it may be appropriate to increase the total daily dose of morphine modified-release. To calculate the new dose, simply add the total amount of morphine used in 24 hours and divide by 2, which gives a twice-daily dose for morphine modified-release.
It is important to note that transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered to patients for whom oral opioids are suitable. If a patient requires additional pain relief, other options such as adding a fentanyl patch may be considered.
When converting between different opioids, it is important to consult the BNF or local guidance for equi-analgesic potencies. For example, 10 mg of oral morphine is equivalent to 100 mg of codeine phosphate or dihydrocodeine, 1.3 mg of hydromorphone, 5 mg of oxycodone, 25 mg of tapentadol, or 67 mg of tramadol.
Dosage adjustments should always be undertaken with specialist advice, especially when converting to or from methadone. Transdermal opioids also require careful consideration, with buprenorphine and fentanyl patches available in various strengths and corresponding oral morphine equivalents.
In summary, understanding opioid conversion and dosage adjustments is crucial for effective pain management in patients with advanced and progressive disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the most probable side-effect that he may experience?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry skin
Explanation:Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found that two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of oral isotretinoin experience long-term remission or cure. However, it is important to note that this medication also comes with a number of adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. As such, females who are taking this medication should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, as well as low mood and depression (although this is a controversial topic). Patients may also experience raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is important for patients to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Additionally, patients should always follow their healthcare provider’s instructions for taking isotretinoin and should not combine this medication with tetracyclines due to the risk of intracranial hypertension. By being informed and proactive, patients can help to ensure that they receive the best possible care while taking isotretinoin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after falling off a ladder and hitting their head. The ambulance crew suspects an intracranial haemorrhage. Upon examination, the patient responds to verbal instruction by opening their eyes, but only makes incomprehensible groans. Painful stimulation causes abnormal flexing on the left side, while the right side has no motor response. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse reporting weakness in his right arm and leg, decreased vision, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago, and his wife promptly called for an ambulance. A CT scan of the head ruled out a hemorrhagic stroke, but a CT contrast angiography revealed a confirmed blockage in the proximal anterior circulation. What is the appropriate acute management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alteplase plus thrombectomy
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, the recommended treatment is a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy. Thrombolysis involves the use of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator that breaks down the clot, while thrombectomy physically removes the clot using a specialized device inserted through the femoral artery. In this case, as the patient has confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation, both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be performed together for the best possible outcome. While alteplase alone can be considered if thrombectomy is not available, a better prognosis is more likely with the combination treatment. It would not be appropriate to perform thrombectomy alone without considering thrombolysis, as the patient is presenting within the window for thrombolysis and should be considered for both in combination according to the guidelines.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
An older gentleman patient presents with arthritic pains. At the end of the consultation, he mentions that he recently visited a doctor at the memory clinic who diagnosed him with Alzheimer's dementia. However, he cannot recall why he was not prescribed any medication for this condition.
Which of the following factors would be a potential relative contraindication to prescribing donepezil for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resting bradycardia
Explanation:Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of an increase in the frequency of her migraine attacks. She experiences episodes every 3 weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and finds that zolmitriptan only partially relieves her symptoms. As a result, she is taking time off from her job as a teacher and is worried about losing her employment. Her medical history includes asthma, and she is currently taking zolmitriptan and salbutamol. Additionally, she takes evening primrose oil over-the-counter to alleviate her menopause symptoms, which began 16 months ago. What medication would be the most appropriate for the GP to prescribe to decrease the frequency of her migraine attacks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:For the prophylactic management of migraines in a patient with a history of asthma, the recommended medication is topiramate. Propranolol is an alternative first-line option, but should be avoided in patients with asthma. Amitriptyline is a second-line drug for those who are not responsive to initial prophylactic treatment. Diclofenac is an NSAID used for acute management of migraines, while triptans like sumatriptan are used for acute treatment but not prophylaxis. It should be noted that topiramate is teratogenic and should be avoided in women of childbearing age.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
What is the most effective antibiotic for treating Chlamydia pneumonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Chlamydia Pneumoniae Infections
Chlamydia pneumoniae infections are commonly treated with macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin. These antibiotics are effective against atypical pneumonias and should be taken for a long period of time (usually 10-14 days) with strict compliance to avoid suboptimal doses. However, the most common side effects of these antibiotics are nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Clindamycin is not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. Piperacillin and ampicillin are also not indicated due to in vitro resistance shown by the bacteria. Imipenem is also not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to the coast of Kenya. The patient is a 60-year-old with fair skin and a history of psychiatric illness. The area is known for malaria with widespread chloroquine resistance, and the species of malaria found in the area include P. falciparum, P. Vivix, and P. Ovale. Based on this information, which anti-malarial medication would you suggest for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atovaquone/Proguanil
Explanation:Malaria Chemoprophylaxis: Choosing the Right Medication
Malaria is a potentially fatal disease that requires chemoprophylaxis for individuals entering known malaria areas. Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) is a well-tolerated, once-daily medication that is effective in both preventing and treating malaria. It should be taken 24 hours before entering a malaria zone and continued for seven days after leaving. However, advice on bite avoidance is also crucial in preventing malaria.
Doxycycline is a cheaper alternative to atovaquone/proguanil, but it may cause nausea and photosensitivity, which can be problematic for fair-skinned individuals. Chloroquine is an inferior choice due to widespread resistance, while mefloquine (Larium) may cause psychosis, making it unsuitable for patients with a psychiatric history.
It is important to note that advising against chemoprophylaxis is not appropriate, as malaria poses a serious risk to all individuals, regardless of their previous exposure to malaria areas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has progressively worsened. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly. What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels
Explanation:Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing
Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for detecting pituitary tumors, which are often the cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to determine if a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not a specific investigation for acromegaly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old footballer presents with persistent pain in his left knee that began abruptly during a game. During the physical examination, you instruct the patient to lie down and flex his knee. As you internally rotate his foot, he experiences discomfort and you detect a clicking sensation. The patient inquires about the procedure, and you clarify that you are performing McMurray's test, a specialized examination for knee joint issues. What is the probable reason for his knee pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meniscal tear
Explanation:A positive McMurray test is indicative of a meniscal tear, which is typically caused by twisting of the knee. During the test, the knee is flexed while the sole of the foot is held, and one hand is placed on the medial side of the knee to pull it towards a varus position. The other hand is used to internally rotate the leg while extending the knee. If the patient experiences pain or a clicking sensation, the test is considered positive. On the other hand, a positive draw test is a sign of an anterior cruciate ligament tear, which is also commonly caused by twisting of the knee.
Knee problems are common among older adults, and it is important to be aware of the key features of each condition. Osteoarthritis of the knee is often seen in patients over 50 years of age who are overweight. This condition can cause severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by twisting of the knee, and patients may have heard a popping noise. Rapid onset of knee effusion and a positive draw test are also common features. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as during a car accident. Collateral ligament injuries can cause tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and can cause locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after fainting. She is now conscious and able to provide a medical history. The patient mentions having a condition, but cannot recall the name. She shows the doctor the medication she takes, which is a somatostatin analogue.
What medical condition can be treated with somatostatin analogues?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone from an anterior pituitary tumor, resulting in enlarged hands, feet, and jaw, as well as other symptoms. While surgery is the preferred treatment, somatostatin analogues such as octreotide and lanreotide can be used if surgery fails. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone that can suppress growth hormone release. However, it can also cause side effects such as bradycardia, hypothyroidism, and hypoglycemia. Cushing’s disease, caused by excess adrenocorticotropic hormone, can be treated with pituitary gland removal, radiotherapy, or cortisol-inhibiting medications. Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is usually treated with surgery. Type I diabetes is treated with insulin, while Type II diabetes is treated with insulin and oral hypoglycemic agents. Parathyroid adenomas are also treated surgically.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of right shoulder pain and limited movement in all directions. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Explanation:The development of adhesive capsulitis is more likely in individuals with diabetes mellitus.
Understanding Adhesive Capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder)
Adhesive capsulitis, commonly known as frozen shoulder, is a prevalent cause of shoulder pain that primarily affects middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood. However, studies have shown that up to 20% of diabetics may experience an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over several days, with external rotation being more affected than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. In some cases, the condition may affect both shoulders, which occurs in up to 20% of patients. The episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
Diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis is usually clinical, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. Unfortunately, no single intervention has been proven to improve the outcome in the long-term. However, there are several treatment options available, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudopolyps
Explanation:Pseudopolyps observed during endoscopy are indicative of ulcerative colitis.
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was prescribed ramipril two months ago for stage 2 hypertension, which was diagnosed after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. His clinic readings have improved from 164/96 mmHg to 142/84 mmHg. However, he has been experiencing a persistent, dry cough for the past four weeks. What would be the best course of action to take in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start losartan
Explanation:When ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, angiotensin-receptor blockers are recommended.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy who has haemophilia A presents to the Emergency Department after falling off a skateboard and hitting his head. He is drowsy and confused with a Glasgow Coma Score of 9.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate administration of factor VIII
Explanation:Immediate Treatment for Serious Bleeding in Patients with Haemophilia
Serious or life-threatening bleeding in patients with haemophilia requires immediate evaluation and therapy with replacement factor. The immediate goal is to raise the activity of the deficient factor to a level sufficient to achieve haemostasis. For patients with potentially serious or life-threatening bleeding, treatment should be initiated immediately, even before completing diagnostic assessment.
In the case of haemophilia A, factor VIII must be replaced. Waiting to find out factor VIII levels prior to administering it could lead to further bleeding. Therefore, immediate administration of factor VIII is the most appropriate option.
While obtaining imaging of the head may be useful, the main objective is to obtain rapid haemostasis. Thus, transferring the patient immediately for a CT scan of the head is not the first action to take.
In a patient with haemophilia, evacuation of a clot may lead to further potentially catastrophic bleeding. If surgery is required, the patient must have adequate levels of factor VIII present to achieve haemostasis. Therefore, transferring the patient to the theatre for evacuation of an intracranial haematoma should not be the first action taken.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Ward with severe loin-to-groin abdominal pain. A computed tomography scan of the kidney, ureter and bladder (CT-KUB) reveals a right-sided renal calculus. During the morning ward round she admits that for the previous few weeks she has been having trouble with increased urinary frequency, thirst, constipation and altered mood.
A diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism is suspected. Some blood tests are taken which show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Estimated glomerular filtration rate > 60 ml/min
Adjusted calcium 3.0 mmol/l 2.1–2.6 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.6 mmol/l 0.8–1.4 mmol/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 5.3 pmol/l 1.2–5.8 pmol/l
Which of the following is the definitive management option?
Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for parathyroid surgery
Explanation:Referral for Parathyroid Surgery in Primary Hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to high levels of calcium in the blood. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends parathyroidectomy as the preferred treatment for most patients with diagnosed primary hyperparathyroidism due to its high cure rates and reduced risk of drug side effects.
Referral for parathyroid surgery is indicated for patients with confirmed hyperparathyroidism who have symptoms of hypercalcaemia, end-organ disease, or an albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 2.85 mmol/l or above. This patient fits all three criteria and should be referred for parathyroid surgery.
Bisphosphonates and cinacalcet are only indicated when parathyroid surgery is not acceptable, patients are unfit for surgery, or have mild hypercalcaemia and symptoms. Laxatives and watchful waiting are not appropriate management options for hyperparathyroidism.
In conclusion, referral for parathyroid surgery is the most appropriate management option for patients with primary hyperparathyroidism who meet the criteria for surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother, having just woken up from a nap and experienced twitching of the left side of his mouth. He complains of a ‘buzzing’ sensation in his lips. His speech is unclear and he drooled from the left side of his mouth. His symptoms resolved within two minutes and he remained conscious throughout the episode.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy (BRE)
Explanation:Types of Epilepsy: Characteristics and Differences
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures. There are different types of epilepsy, each with its own set of clinical features and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of epilepsy and their distinguishing characteristics:
Benign Rolandic Epilepsy (BRE)
BRE, also known as childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes, is characterized by seizures that often occur during sleep or just before waking. Children may experience paraesthesia of their lips, tongue, or the inside of their mouth, which can interfere with speech and cause drooling. Twitching of one side of the mouth or face often develops, followed by twitching in the limbs on the same side. Seizures typically last less than two minutes, and the child remains conscious.Absence Seizures
Absence seizures are a form of generalized epilepsy that impairs consciousness. Children are most commonly affected, and the seizures usually last only a few seconds but may occur many times a day. During the absence, the child stops activity and stares blankly, not responding to questions. There may be lip-smacking or facial tics. An EEG will reveal a characteristic spike-and-wave activity.Temporal Lobe Epilepsy (TLE)
TLE is characterized by partial and/or focal seizures that may be simple or complex, with some loss of awareness. The clinical features of TLE reflect the function of the temporal lobe, primarily speech, taste, smell, and memory. Presentations may include déjà vu, gastrointestinal disturbance, amnesia during an attack, olfactory or gustatory hallucinations, and abnormal sensations crawling up the body. Repetitive vocalizations, automatism, and lip-smacking may be seen.Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME)
JME describes generalized epilepsy that impairs consciousness. JME usually presents in later childhood, with a peak onset at 10–16 years. The defining seizure is myoclonic and usually occurs in the first hour after waking. These seizures occur as sudden jerks, which commonly involve the arms and/or trunk. However, any muscle may be affected. The patient is generally conscious while myoclonic jerks are occurring. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures often accompany myoclonic seizures in JME, which may lead to reduced consciousness.Infantile Spasms
Infantile spasms develop in the first year of life, with peak -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)