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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal liver function tests are detected, prompting a hepatitis screen. The results are as follows:
      Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
      Negative for HBsAg
      Positive for Anti-HBs
      Negative for Anti-HBc
      Positive for Anti-HCV
      What is the most likely interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Previous vaccination to hepatitis B and C

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination

      Explanation:

      To determine if a patient still has the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients naturally clear the infection. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.

      When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) typically indicates acute disease and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it suggests chronic disease and is infectious. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either exposure or vaccination, while anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. The appearance of IgM anti-HBc during acute or recent hepatitis B infection lasts for about six months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity as it results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      Understanding Hepatitis C: Transmission, Complications, and Management

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that is expected to become a significant public health concern in the UK in the coming years. It is estimated that around 200,000 people in the country are chronically infected with the virus, with intravenous drug users and those who received blood transfusions prior to 1991 being at higher risk. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks.

      Transmission of the virus can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child (especially if coexistent with HIV), and sexual intercourse (although the risk is low). There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C. Symptoms of acute infection include a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia.

      Around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after an acute infection, while the majority (55-85%) will develop chronic hepatitis C. This can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinemia. Treatment for chronic infection depends on the viral genotype and aims for sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, with protease inhibitors such as daclatasvir and sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir and simeprevir being used instead. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, and fatigue.

      In conclusion, understanding the transmission, complications, and management of hepatitis C is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his right leg for the past three days. During the examination, it was observed that there was a weakness in the right knee flexion, but the knee extension was intact. Additionally, there was a weakness in the dorsal and plantar flexion of the right ankle, as well as the right flexor hallucis longus. The right ankle jerk was lost, but the knee-jerk was intact, and the plantar response was downgoing. Based on the most probable nerve that is damaged in this patient, what are the nerve roots that supply this nerve?

      Your Answer: L2-4

      Correct Answer: L4-5, S1-3

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve is innervated by spinal nerves L4-5, S1-3. The patient exhibits weakness in all muscle groups below the knee, with an intact knee jerk but weak ankle jerk, indicating damage to the sciatic nerve. The iliohypogastric nerve is supplied by T12-L1, while the genitofemoral nerve is supplied by L1-2.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve in the body that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae. It divides into two branches, the tibial and common peroneal nerves, which supply the hamstring and adductor muscles. A sciatic nerve lesion can cause paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee, as well as sensory loss below the knee. However, knee jerk reflexes remain intact while ankle and plantar reflexes are lost.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesions, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-five-year-old woman who...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-five-year-old woman who presents with complaints of dizziness. She reports that the symptoms worsen when she rolls over in bed and are accompanied by nausea. She denies any prior episodes, aural fullness, or nystagmus. What diagnostic measures could be taken to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dix–Hallpike manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      The Dix-Hallpike test involves quickly moving the patient to a supine position with their neck extended to determine if they experience symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. A positive result can confirm the diagnosis. Based on the symptoms, it is likely that this patient has this condition.

      Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

      Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors and no other relevant medical history. Her QRisk is calculated as 12.2%. She has already been prescribed a GTN spray which she can use for immediate relief of her symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Beta blocker and statin

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends using a β blocker or calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment for angina, along with a statin. If a patient is intolerant to β blockers or not responding to a CCB alone, a long-acting nitrate can be added. An ACE inhibitor is not indicated for angina treatment. Beta blockers and CCBs can be used together if one alone does not control symptoms, but caution is needed to avoid conduction problems. Long-acting nitrates should only be used in isolation if CCB or β blocker use is contraindicated. Aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention, and short-acting nitrates can be used for symptom relief. The 4S study showed that statins significantly reduce the risk of MI in patients with angina and high cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation arrives at the emergency department with dysarthria and left-sided weakness that she noticed earlier today. During the examination, left-sided hemiparesis is observed, and her blood glucose level is 6.5 mmol/L. What is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Non-contrast CT head

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Investigations for Stroke

      Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.

      When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      70.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of painful urination and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of painful urination and left knee pain. He had experienced a severe episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Behcet's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis, and this patient exhibits two of these classic symptoms.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents. He...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents. He has been feeling unwell for 6 days with diarrhoea and is now lethargic and pale. Despite drinking enough fluids, he has not urinated in over 14 hours. The child has no medical history and has received all of his vaccinations. His symptoms began 3 days after he ate a chicken burger at a fair. During the examination, the doctor noticed multiple petechiae on his torso and limbs, and his feet were swollen. What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the organism responsible for this patient's illness?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      This child’s symptoms, including oliguria, peripheral edema, petechial bruising, and pallor, suggest the possibility of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). HUS is often associated with diarrheal illnesses and is characterized by normocytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury. The most common cause of HUS is Shiga-toxin producing Escherichia coli, which can be contracted from undercooked meat, such as a chicken burger from a carnival. While Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of acute diarrhea, it is not typically associated with HUS. Clostridium perfringens can cause acute diarrhea and vomiting but is not associated with HUS. Salmonella species can also cause diarrheal illnesses, but they are not a common cause of HUS. In this case, Escherichia coli is the most likely causative organism.

      Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The majority of cases are secondary and caused by Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, also known as ‘verotoxigenic’ or ‘enterohaemorrhagic’. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer. Primary HUS, also known as ‘atypical’, is caused by complement dysregulation.

      To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count to check for microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. A fragmented blood film may also be done to look for schistocytes and helmet cells. Additionally, a stool culture may be performed to check for evidence of STEC infection, and PCR for Shiga toxins may be done.

      Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. Plasma exchange may be considered for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea, while eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of HUS is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child has epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. Genetic testing confirms an autosomal trisomy. What is the most frequent cardiac anomaly observed in infants with this disorder?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Down Syndrome Patients

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that often presents with physical characteristics such as epicanthic folds, single creases, and an autosomal trisomy. It is common for children with Down syndrome to have congenital heart disease, with 42% of the population affected. Of those, 23% have multiple cardiac abnormalities. The most prevalent cardiac abnormality, found in 37% of cases, is a complete atrioventricular septal defect. Ventricular septal defects are the second most common, affecting 30% of patients. Mitral valve disorders occur in up to 40% of Down syndrome patients, but mitral stenosis is less common. Atrial septal defects affect 15% of patients, while patent ductus arteriosus affects only 2%. Understanding the prevalence of these cardiac abnormalities in Down syndrome patients is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      87.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An informal inpatient who is believed to pose a risk to themselves or...

    Correct

    • An informal inpatient who is believed to pose a risk to themselves or others can be detained in hospital for 72 hours for further evaluation under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA)?

      Your Answer: Section 5 (2)

      Explanation:

      The Mental Health Act (MHA) has several sections that allow for compulsory admission and treatment of individuals with mental disorders. Section 5(2) can only be used for inpatients and is implemented by the Responsible Clinician or their designated deputy. It lasts for 72 hours and should be followed by a formal Mental Health Act assessment for consideration of detention under Section 2 or 3. Section 2 allows for compulsory admission and assessment of individuals who cannot be safely assessed in the community and refuse voluntary admission. It requires an application from the patient’s nearest relative or an Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) and two medical recommendations. It lasts up to 28 days and can be appealed within 14 days of admission. Section 136 allows the police to remove individuals from public places and take them to a place of safety, such as a Mental Health Unit or Accident and Emergency. Section 3 allows for compulsory admission and treatment of individuals who pose risks to self or others and refuse voluntary admission. It requires an application from the patient’s nearest relative or an AMHP and two medical recommendations. It lasts up to 6 months and can be appealed within the first 6 months and then once a year. Section 4 is an emergency section that allows for detention in hospital for up to 72 hours and requires an application from an AMHP or the patient’s nearest relative and one medical recommendation. It can be converted to Section 2 if a second medical recommendation is obtained within 72 hours and should only be used in urgent cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) has increasing back pain and early morning stiffness.
      Which of the following treatments would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the primary treatment for relieving symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). It is recommended to co-prescribe a proton pump inhibitor to protect the stomach. If one NSAID is ineffective, switching to another may be helpful. Slow-release NSAIDs may be beneficial for morning stiffness and pain. Colchicine is not recommended for AS due to severe side-effects. Paracetamol and codeine have no direct evidence for treating AS symptoms, but may be used in conjunction with NSAIDs if appropriate. Surgery may be necessary in cases of structural damage, severe deformity, spinal instability, or neurological deficit. Oral corticosteroids should be avoided due to long-term side-effects, but intra-articular injections may provide relief during acute flares. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)-blocking drugs are effective in reducing symptoms and inflammation in those with persistent, active inflammation. Rituximab has no role in treating seronegative arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are conducting an interview with a 24-year-old man who has arrived at...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an interview with a 24-year-old man who has arrived at the emergency department after self-harming. As you converse with him, you observe that his facial expression is devoid of emotion, his tone of voice is flat, and his body language lacks any animation. This is evident even when he talks about his traumatic experiences of childhood abuse. How would you record this in your documentation?

      Your Answer: Flattened affect

      Explanation:

      Affect and mood can be easily confused during a mental state exam. Affect refers to the current emotional state that can be observed, while mood is the predominant emotional state over a longer period. It is helpful to think of affect as the weather on a particular day and mood as the overall climate.

      Mood is determined by the patient’s history and can be described as their emotional state over the past month. Symptoms of depression or mania can be used to determine the patient’s mood. On the other hand, affect is the emotional state that is currently being displayed by the patient during the assessment. It is expressed through facial expressions, voice tone, and body movements. Affect can be normal, restricted, blunted, or flat. Labile affect is characterized by abrupt shifts in emotions.

      In the given scenario, the patient is displaying a flattened affect, which means there is no expression of emotion. Apathy may be a symptom present in the patient’s history, but the scenario is specifically referring to the current observed emotional state. Depressed mood may also be present, but it is discussed in the patient’s history and is not the same as affect. Symptoms of depressed mood include anhedonia, low mood, lack of energy, poor concentration, and poor sleep.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his stools that...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his stools that has been ongoing for three weeks. The stools are hard and contain a lot of mucus. The patient has no significant medical history. During a digital rectal examination, a suspicious mass is detected on the anal sphincter. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Rubber band ligation

      Correct Answer: Abdominoperineal excision of rectum

      Explanation:

      The appropriate surgical procedure for a patient with rectal cancer on the anal verge is abdominoperineal excision of the rectum. This procedure involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and a section of the sigmoid colon. Symptoms of rectal cancer include blood mixed with stools, changes in bowel habits, and copious mucus in stools. Haemorrhoidectomy is not the correct choice for this patient as the diagnosis is unlike. High anterior resection is used for upper rectal tumours, while low anterior resection is used for low rectal tumours, but not for anal verge tumours. Rubber band ligation is used to treat haemorrhoids in outpatient clinics, which is not the diagnosis for this patient.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left eye. Upon examination, it is found that he has a constricted left pupil with a ptosis and anhidrosis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Horner syndrome is a rare condition caused by a disruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms including a constricted pupil, partial drooping of the eyelid, and loss of sweating on one side of the face. Possible causes of Horner syndrome include brain-stem stroke or tumor, brachial plexus trauma, lung infections or tumors, carotid artery issues, and migraines. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that attacks the central nervous system and can cause optic neuritis, but the symptoms described in the scenario do not match those of MS. Holmes-Adie syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by a dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and profuse sweating, which is not consistent with the scenario. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness, but it typically affects the facial muscles and extraocular muscles, not the pupil. Riley-Day syndrome is a disorder of the autonomic nervous system that affects infants and is characterized by the absence of overflow tears with emotional crying.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of anterior knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of anterior knee pain for a few weeks, which worsens while walking downstairs. During the examination, a positive shrug test is observed, and she has a valgus knee deformity.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults

      Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several conditions that can cause knee pain, including chondromalacia patellae, osteoarthritis, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteochondritis dissecans, and patellar subluxation.

      Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. It is more common in females, those with valgus knee deformity, and those who are flat-footed. Patients may experience anterior knee pain that worsens with prolonged sitting or activities such as walking down stairs, jumping, running, or climbing. Treatment involves physiotherapy to alter patella-femoral alignment, along with analgesics and ice for symptom relief.

      Osteoarthritis is a disease of older patients caused by cartilage breakdown in weight-bearing joints. Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys, and is caused by overuse of quadriceps. Osteochondritis dissecans is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface and tends to present in teenagers and young adults with vague and achy joint pain. Patellar subluxation describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella, which can cause anterior patellar pain and joint stiffness.

      It is important to note that knee pain in children could be due to hip pathology, such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Diagnosis and treatment for these conditions may involve clinical examination, radiographs, and MRI. Treatment may include physiotherapy, analgesics, ice packs, knee braces, and in some cases, surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with penile discharge and dysuria...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with penile discharge and dysuria for the past 5 days. Urethral swabs are taken and microscopy reveals the presence of diplococci. Sensitivities are not yet available, and he is diagnosed with gonorrhoea. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral azithromycin

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, and it is crucial to notify and treat sexual partners. All patients with gonorrhoea should undergo a test of cure after 2 weeks.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots on her shoulder. She reports that the lesions are accompanied by several tiny blood vessels that radiate from the center. During the examination, you observe that applying pressure to the spots causes them to turn white and then refill from the center. What condition is typically associated with this type of lesion?

      Your Answer: Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 82-year-old woman is brought to see you by her daughter who complains...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old woman is brought to see you by her daughter who complains that she has to repeat everything multiple times for her mother to understand. An audiogram confirms sensorineural hearing loss.
      What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Presbyacusis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hearing Loss in Adults: Understanding the Differences

      As we age, our hearing abilities may decline, leading to a condition known as presbyacusis. This age-related hearing loss affects high-frequency sounds and can be detected through an audiogram that shows reduced hearing for both air and bone conduction at higher frequencies in the affected ear.

      Another cause of hearing loss is otosclerosis, which is a form of conductive hearing loss caused by problems with the ossicular chain. An audiogram would show a wide air-bone gap, indicating a gap between the hearing level for both air and bone conduction.

      While multiple sclerosis can cause sensorineural hearing loss in adults, it is a rare occurrence and not the most likely option in most cases. Barotrauma, on the other hand, is a conductive cause of hearing loss that can lead to drum perforation. An audiogram would show a wide air-bone gap on the affected ear.

      Ménière’s disease is another cause of sensorineural hearing loss, but it is less common than presbyacusis. It typically presents with symptoms of tinnitus, vertigo, and a fullness in the ear. Infections such as measles and mumps, or ototoxic medications, would usually present earlier. Barotrauma and otosclerosis are causes of conductive deafness.

      In summary, understanding the differences between these various causes of hearing loss can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify the most likely cause and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a recurring, intensely itchy rash on the palms...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a recurring, intensely itchy rash on the palms of her hands. She reports that these rashes tend to occur every summer. Despite trying over-the-counter emollients and antihistamines, there has been only marginal improvement. The patient is otherwise healthy with no other medical conditions and does not smoke.

      During examination, bilateral vesicles are observed on the palms and sides of the fingers. The palms appear dry with areas of skin peeling, while the rest of her body is unaffected.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pompholyx eczema

      Explanation:

      Palmoplantar pustulosis is often accompanied by psoriasis on other areas of the body and is strongly linked to smoking. Unlike pompholyx eczema, the connection to high temperatures and humidity is not as significant. Scabies, which is caused by the parasite Sarcoptes scabiei, results in severe itching of the hands and web spaces but is typically not a recurring issue. Symptoms include linear burrows and erythematous papules rather than vesicles.

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by high temperatures and humidity, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation by wearing gloves or protective footwear and avoiding exposure to irritants. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Sarah is a 44-year-old hairdresser who contacts her GP due to a 2-day...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 44-year-old hairdresser who contacts her GP due to a 2-day history of cough and fever. Her Covid-19 test is negative and she does not sound breathless on the phone. Sarah has been taking paracetamol regularly but despite this, she is still feeling feverish; she has recorded her temperature as 37.8ºC. She has a past medical history of eczema, gilbert's syndrome and adrenal insufficiency. She takes hydrocortisone 15 mg in the morning and 10mg at lunchtime, and also takes fludrocortisone 200 micrograms once a day.
      What is the most appropriate management plan for Sarah?

      Your Answer: Double the dose of his fludrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Double the dose of his hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      To manage an Addison’s patient with an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to double the dose of their glucocorticoids, specifically hydrocortisone, while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. This is because the patient’s fever >37.5 indicates a moderate intercurrent illness. Continuing paracetamol regularly is not the main priority in this situation. Advising the patient to call 999 for admission is unnecessary unless there are severe symptoms such as vomiting or persistent diarrhea. Doubling the dose of fludrocortisone is not recommended as it is a mineralocorticoid with weak glucocorticoid activity, and increasing the glucocorticoid is necessary to mimic a stress response.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of the wrists. She is mainly bothered by the troublesome and persistent itching.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best management?

      Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole

      Correct Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate

      Explanation:

      Management of Lichen Planus: Topical Clobetasone Butyrate

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that can be managed with daily potent topical steroids, such as clobetasone butyrate. As the lesions improve, the potency of the steroid can be decreased. It is important to advise patients to only treat the active, itchy lesions and not the post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation to minimize side effects. These treatments can also be used on the genital skin and scalp. Sedating antihistamines may help with itching at night, but should only be used periodically. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not first-line treatments for lichen planus. Referring for a punch biopsy is not necessary unless the presentation is atypical. The characteristic histological findings of lichen planus include irregular acanthosis of the epidermis, irregular thickening of the granular layer, and compact hyperkeratosis in the center of the papule. Topical clotrimazole and dapsone are not first-line treatments for lichen planus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      59.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the...

    Correct

    • When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the District Nurse wants to confirm if the patient has received complete tetanus vaccination. What is the number of tetanus vaccine doses required for life-long protection?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      4.4
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  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of painful periods. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of painful periods. She has been experiencing this for the past two years and reports a normal amount of blood loss. Her periods are regular and there is no abnormal bleeding. She is not sexually active yet. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea involves NSAIDs, which work by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins, a major contributor to menstrual pain.

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 22-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment regarding her...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents to her GP for a follow-up appointment regarding her generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). During her previous visit, she was provided with information about GAD and referred for individual guided self-help. However, she continues to experience persistent worry throughout the day and has difficulty relaxing. Her family has also noticed that she is more irritable. The patient expresses interest in trying medication for her anxiety. What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Sertraline is the recommended first-line medication for treating generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This patient exhibits typical symptoms of GAD and has already undergone step 1 and step 2 of treatment without improvement. Therefore, she requires step 3, which involves either high-intensity psychological intervention or drug treatment. As the patient prefers drug treatment, sertraline is the appropriate choice as it is the most cost-effective SSRI for GAD according to NICE guidelines. Citalopram and fluoxetine are also SSRIs that may be used as second-line treatments if sertraline is not effective or tolerated. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not recommended for GAD due to the risk of dependence, except in short-term crisis situations.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent urination and thirst for the past 3 months. Upon examination, the doctor orders a urine protein electrophoresis and a serum-free light-chain assay, which confirm the diagnosis. What is the most probable result on the patient's blood film?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rouleaux formation

      Explanation:

      Rouleaux formation is a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma, which is a condition that presents with symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, anaemia, and back pain. Diagnosis of myeloma involves urine protein electrophoresis and serum-free light-chain assay. Rouleaux formation is observed as stacked RBCs on a blood film, resulting from an increase in acute-phase proteins that are positively charged and attract negatively charged RBCs. It is important to note that rouleaux formation is not exclusive to myeloma and can be seen in various inflammatory conditions. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate blood test measures this mechanism clinically. Heinz bodies, which are caused by oxidative stress and denaturation of haemoglobin, are not associated with myeloma but are seen in G6PD deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies, which are present in hyposplenic or asplenic disorders, and an increased number of reticulocytes, which indicate increased RBC turnover, are also not characteristic of myeloma.

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations

      Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.

      To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic rain-drop skull pattern.

      The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      0
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  • Question 25 - At what age would a typical infant develop the capability to sit upright...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical infant develop the capability to sit upright without assistance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6-8 months

      Explanation:

      The answer, which is typically 7-8 months, differs slightly from the 6 months stated in the MRCPCH Development Guide.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 28-week pregnant woman is referred to the pregnancy clinic with gestational hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-week pregnant woman is referred to the pregnancy clinic with gestational hypertension. There is no evidence of protein in her urine.
      Which of the following is the most suitable treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Safe and Unsafe Hypertension Medications During Pregnancy

      Gestational hypertension, which is characterized by new hypertension after 20 weeks without significant proteinuria, can be treated with various medications. However, not all hypertension medications are safe during pregnancy. Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide and thiazide-like diuretics like indapamide, should be avoided as they can cause complications in the fetus. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) like losartan and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like ramipril can also affect fetal blood pressure control and should be avoided unless essential. Labetalol is recommended as the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension, with methyldopa and nifedipine as other safe options. Hypertension is defined as a diastolic BP >90 mmHg or a systolic BP >140 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism in children in the United...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent cause of hypothyroidism in children in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypothyroidism in Children

      Hypothyroidism in children, also known as juvenile hypothyroidism, is most commonly caused by autoimmune thyroiditis. This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to decreased production of thyroid hormones. However, there are other causes of hypothyroidism in children as well. For example, children who have undergone total-body irradiation as part of treatment for acute lymphoblastic leukemia may develop hypothyroidism as a side effect. Additionally, iodine deficiency is a common cause of hypothyroidism in children in developing countries. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of these potential causes in order to properly diagnose and treat hypothyroidism in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 28 - The mother of a 3-month-old boy presents to the clinic with concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-month-old boy presents to the clinic with concerns about a soft lump in his right groin area. The baby has been breastfeeding well and having regular bowel movements. There is no significant medical history. Upon examination, a 1 cm swelling is noted in the right inguinal region, which is reducible and disappears when the baby is laid flat. Scrotal examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgery

      Explanation:

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old runner complains of anterior groin pain accompanied by hip snapping. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old runner complains of anterior groin pain accompanied by hip snapping. The pain is described as sharp and aggravated after prolonged sitting. During the examination, the patient displays limited range of motion and experiences pain when the hip is adducted and internally rotated while flexed to 90 degrees. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoroacetabular impingement

      Explanation:

      Anterior groin pain in active young adults is often caused by femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), which is a common condition that can lead to persistent hip pain. Symptoms include hip/groin pain that worsens with prolonged sitting and is often accompanied by snapping, clicking, or locking of the hip. FAI is typically associated with prior hip pathology, such as Perthes disease in childhood, and is caused by an abnormality in hip anatomy that results in abnormal contact between the femur and acetabulum rim. Over time, this can cause soft tissue damage, including labral tears. Snapping hip syndrome, on the other hand, is characterized by a snapping or clunking sound as tendons move over the hip bones during flexion and extension. This condition is usually painless unless there is an associated labral tear. Stress fractures, in contrast, typically improve with rest rather than worsening. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head is usually associated with other risk factors, such as steroid use, alcohol consumption, or autoimmune conditions. Initially, pain occurs during activity, but it can become constant as the condition progresses.

      Causes of Hip Pain in Adults

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can also cause hip pain, with pain typically worse in the morning and accompanied by systemic features and raised inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band and is most common in women aged 50-70 years. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and typically presents as a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis may have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and presents with pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs, often with a waddling gait. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, with groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, and patients may be unable to weight bear. ESR may be elevated in this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was prescribed ramipril two months ago for stage 2 hypertension, which was diagnosed after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. His clinic readings have improved from 164/96 mmHg to 142/84 mmHg. However, he has been experiencing a persistent, dry cough for the past four weeks. What would be the best course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start losartan

      Explanation:

      When ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, angiotensin-receptor blockers are recommended.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 31 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has a photograph and is worried about the different appearances of her eyes. One eye shows a normal red reflex while the other appears white. He wants to know if this is normal.

      What is your advice for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      If a newborn lacks red reflex, it is important to consider the possibility of retinoblastoma. Other causes should also be evaluated, but urgent referral to an ophthalmologist for a comprehensive, dilated eye examination is necessary.

      Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.

      When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 32 - A 27-year-old man complains of a sudden pain in the back of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man complains of a sudden pain in the back of his calf during a football game, causing him to limp off the field. Upon examination by the team doctor, he exhibits a positive Simmond's sign. What type of injury is he likely to have suffered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achilles tendon rupture

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences an audible ‘pop’ in their ankle, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, or is unable to continue playing a sport or running, an Achilles tendon rupture should be suspected. Posterior ankle impingement is characterized by pain during forced plantar flexion when jumping or kicking, and is most commonly seen in gymnasts, ballet dancers, and footballers. Navicular bone fractures, which are stress fractures, are frequently observed in athletes who engage in sports that involve sprinting and jumping. Athletes who have had multiple ankle sprains may experience peroneal tendon dislocation due to friction and inflammation of the tendon. Stress metatarsal fractures, also known as march fractures, are most commonly seen in soldiers, hikers, and hospital doctors who spend extended periods standing and walking.

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 33 - A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous female with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis presents with shortness of breath. The full blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:

      Hb 12.4 g/dl
      Plt 137
      WBC 7.5 * 109/l
      PT 14 secs
      APTT 46 secs

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most probable diagnosis due to the paradoxical occurrence of prolonged APTT and low platelets.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 34 - Which one of the following statements regarding metformin is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding metformin is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Should be stopped in a patient admitted with a myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      After a heart attack, Metformin usage should be discontinued as it can increase the risk of lactic acidosis. However, it can be reintroduced at a later time. To manage diabetes, an insulin/dextrose infusion such as the DIGAMI regimen can be used.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old female complains of abdominal discomfort accompanied by alternating episodes of constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female complains of abdominal discomfort accompanied by alternating episodes of constipation and diarrhea. What symptom is the least indicative of irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Waking at night due to the pain

      Explanation:

      It is not typical for irritable bowel syndrome to cause pain that disrupts a patient’s sleep.

      Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS. According to these guidelines, a positive diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. Additionally, a positive diagnosis should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucus. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.

      It is important to note that red flag features should be enquired about, including rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage IBS in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 36 - A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for focal impaired awareness seizures. She drinks alcohol moderately. After three months, she experiences a series of seizures and her carbamazepine levels are found to be subtherapeutic. Despite being fully compliant, a pill-count reveals this. What is the probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auto-induction of liver enzymes

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine induces the P450 enzyme system, leading to increased metabolism of carbamazepine through auto-induction.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 37 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She has vomited twice since the onset of the pain and has not passed any wind or faeces in the last twelve hours. Her medical history includes a partial small bowel resection due to traumatic perforation. On examination, her abdomen appears distended and there is generalised tenderness on palpation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 153 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 312 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC count of 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), bilirubin of 17 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP of 78 u/L (30 - 100), ALT of 29 u/L (3 - 40), and amylase of 880 U/L (70 - 300). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Explanation:

      Elevated serum amylase levels are not always indicative of acute pancreatitis, as they can also be seen in cases of small bowel obstruction. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, and a lack of bowel movements or gas, which are all typical symptoms of small bowel obstruction. The fact that the patient has a history of abdominal surgery further supports this diagnosis, despite the misleading blood test results. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with different symptoms such as fever, right upper quadrant pain, and systemic distress, and does not typically cause elevated amylase levels. Acute pancreatitis may also be considered as a differential diagnosis, but it is not associated with a lack of bowel movements or gas, and previous bowel surgery is not a risk factor. Ascending cholangitis and large bowel obstruction can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about a mole on his leg. He has noticed over the past few months that it has increased in size. On examination, the mole is 7 mm in diameter and has an irregular border but is a consistent colour.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Understanding Referral Guidelines for Suspicious Pigmented Lesions

      When assessing pigmented lesions, the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the 7-point scoring system.
      The 7-point checklist includes:
      Major features (2 points each):
      change in size
      irregular shape or border
      irregular colour.
      Minor features (1 point each):
      > 7 mm at greatest diameter
      inflammation
      oozing or crusting
      change in sensation including itch.

      Lesions scoring 3 or more or with other suspicious features of melanoma should be referred urgently via the cancer fast-track pathway to dermatology.

      For lesions with a low suspicion of melanoma, a photo should be taken with a ruler and the patient advised to return in eight weeks for review. However, lesions scoring 5 on the checklist, like those with a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, should be referred urgently to a dermatologist to avoid any delay in diagnosis and subsequent treatment.

      Excision of lesions suspicious of melanoma should be avoided in primary care as this can delay treatment, and incomplete excision is more common. Routine referral to dermatology would be suitable for a pigmented lesion which scores less than 3 on the 7-point checklist if there are no other features to suggest melanoma. Referral to genetics is recommended if three or more family members have been diagnosed with melanoma.

      It is important to understand these referral guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of suspicious pigmented lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 39 - A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of joint stiffness, fatigue, and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of joint stiffness, fatigue, and swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal joints. The doctor suspects Rheumatoid Arthritis. What is the plasma autoantibody with the greatest specificity for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-CCP

      Explanation:

      For the detection of Rheumatoid Arthritis, Anti-CCP has the most specific results. It can be identified in patients even a decade before the diagnosis and is advised for all individuals suspected of having Rheumatoid Arthritis but have tested negative for rheumatoid factor.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that can be diagnosed through initial investigations, including antibody tests and x-rays. One of the first tests recommended is the rheumatoid factor (RF) test, which detects a circulating antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. This test can be done through the Rose-Waaler test or the latex agglutination test, with the former being more specific. A positive RF result is found in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF result include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population.

      Another antibody test that can aid in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody test. This test can detect the antibody up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis and has a sensitivity similar to RF (around 70%) but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends that patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative should be tested for anti-CCP antibodies.

      In addition to antibody tests, x-rays of the hands and feet are also recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis. These x-rays can help detect joint damage and deformities, which are common in rheumatoid arthritis. Early detection and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can help prevent further joint damage and improve overall quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 40 - A 25-year-old female presented to her GP with a grey, thin, creamy vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presented to her GP with a grey, thin, creamy vaginal discharge.
      Which of the following is the best verbal advice to give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid perfumed soaps

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of bacteria. It is important for patients to understand the symptoms, risk factors, and diagnosis of BV in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

      Symptoms of BV include vaginal odor, increased vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and rarely, dysuria or dyspareunia. Risk factors for BV include recent antibiotic use, decreased estrogen production, presence of an intrauterine device, douching, and sexual activity that could lead to transmission.

      Physical findings of BV include grey, thin, and homogeneous vaginal discharge that adheres to the vaginal mucosa, increased light reflex of the vaginal walls, and typically little or no evidence of inflammation. Diagnosis of BV is made through microscopic examination of the discharge, with demonstration of three of the following four Amsel criteria: clue cells on a saline smear, a pH >4.5, characteristic discharge, and a positive whiff test.

      Patients with BV should be advised to wash only with hypoallergenic bar soaps or no soap at all, avoid liquid soaps, body washes, and perfumed soaps, and not to douche or use over-the-counter vaginal hygiene products. While studies have shown inconsistent results, some patients may find relief from symptoms by using yogurt containing live bacteria.

      It is important to properly manage and treat BV, as long-standing or untreated cases may lead to more serious complications such as endometritis, salpingitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, or pregnancy complications. However, with proper care and attention, the prognosis for uncomplicated cases of BV is generally excellent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 41 - A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her...

    Incorrect

    • A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her feet. She has no other significant medical history. What is the recommended initial treatment to alleviate her pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 42 - A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the groin and genital region, as well as in the axilla. The patient has previously mentioned a distaste for creams that are messy or difficult to use. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid

      Explanation:

      Topical steroids are effective in treating flexural psoriasis in this patient.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past two months. During examination, she appears to be anaemic.
      What is the most probable vitamin deficiency causing her anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Vegan Nutrition: Understanding the Availability of Vitamins

      As a vegan, it is important to understand the availability of vitamins in your diet. One vitamin that vegans are at risk of deficiency in is vitamin B12, which is primarily found in animal products such as meat, fish, eggs, and milk. However, there are vegan-friendly sources of vitamin B12 such as fortified cereals and plant-based milks.

      Contrary to popular belief, vitamin B6, vitamin A, vitamin B1, and vitamin C are all readily available in vegan-friendly foods. Vitamin B6 can be found in bread, whole grains, vegetables, peanuts, and potatoes. Vitamin A can be found in yellow, red, and green vegetables as well as yellow fruits. Vitamin B1 can be found in peas, fruit, whole grain bread, and fortified cereals. Vitamin C is predominantly found in fruits and vegetables such as oranges, peppers, strawberries, broccoli, potatoes, and Brussels sprouts.

      By understanding the availability of vitamins in vegan-friendly foods, vegans can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs and maintaining a healthy diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 44 - A 25 year old woman and her partner visit a fertility clinic due...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman and her partner visit a fertility clinic due to her complaints of oligomenorrhoea and galactorrhea. Despite 18 months of regular unprotected intercourse, they have been unable to conceive. Blood tests reveal a serum prolactin level of 6000 mIU/l (normal <500 mIU/l) and a pituitary MRI shows a microprolactinoma. What is the initial treatment option that is likely to be offered to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating prolactinomas, dopamine agonists like cabergoline and bromocriptine are typically the first choice, even if the patient is experiencing significant neurological complications. Surgery may be necessary for those who cannot tolerate or do not respond to medical treatment, with a trans-sphenoidal approach being the preferred method unless there is extensive extra-pituitary extension. Radiotherapy is not commonly used, and octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is primarily used to treat acromegaly.

      Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma

      Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin. This condition can cause a range of symptoms in both men and women.

      In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinoma may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.

      Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves the use of dopamine agonists, such as cabergoline or bromocriptine, which help to inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. In cases where medical therapy is not effective or well-tolerated, surgery may be necessary. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical intervention, unless there is significant extra-pituitary extension.

      Overall, understanding prolactinoma and its symptoms is important for early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 45 - A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of fever.
      On examination, the patient has bilateral conjunctival injection, a maculopapular rash across her trunk, and erythematous extremities. Her chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Her lips look cracked, and her tongue looks erythematous. She has no palpable lymphadenopathy.
      Which of the following blood test results would support the likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis and Blood Test Results

      Kawasaki disease is a clinical diagnosis that presents with a persistent fever and at least four of the following five criteria: bilateral conjunctival injection, polymorphous rash, oral changes, oedema and erythema in hands/feet, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Thrombocytosis is a common non-specific change seen in Kawasaki disease, and blood tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function, lipid profile, C-reactive protein (CRP), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can support the diagnosis, assess severity, and monitor disease and treatment. Neutropenia is not usually associated with Kawasaki disease, and a raised white cell count with a relative neutrophilia is commonly seen. An elevated CRP with a normal ESR or an elevated ESR with a normal CRP would not be expected in Kawasaki disease, as both markers reflect acute inflammation. Kawasaki disease is associated with normocytic anaemia, but not macrocytic anaemia. It is important to arrange an echocardiogram as soon as possible to look for any initial evidence of coronary artery aneurysm, a common complication of Kawasaki disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 46 - A 32-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant presents with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant presents with complaints of itching in her genital area and thick white discharge. What treatment options would you suggest for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole pessary

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from thrush and requires antifungal medication. However, since the patient is pregnant, oral fluconazole cannot be prescribed due to its link with birth defects. Instead, metronidazole can be used to treat bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 47 - A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of left knee pain and irritability. The child had recently recovered from a viral respiratory tract infection and is currently asymptomatic and without fever. Upon examination, the joint is painful to move but not hot or red, and the child is able to bear weight. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 140 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), platelet count of 450 * 109/L (150-400), white cell count of 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), CRP of 29 mg/L (<5), and ESR of 32 mm/hr (0-10). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Septic Arthritis in Children

      Septic arthritis is a condition that affects children and can lead to permanent joint damage and systemic infection if not treated promptly. It has an incidence of around 4-5 per 100,000 children and is more common in boys, with a M:F ratio of 2:1. The hip, knee, and ankle are the most commonly affected joints. Symptoms of septic arthritis include joint pain, limp, fever, and lethargy. Signs of the condition include a swollen and red joint, with minimal movement possible.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, joint aspiration is necessary to culture the affected area. This will show a raised white blood cell count. Inflammatory markers in the blood will also be raised, and blood cultures will be taken. The Kocher criteria are used to diagnose septic arthritis and include a fever of over 38.5 degrees Celsius, non-weight bearing, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and raised white cell count (WCC).

      Understanding septic arthritis in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to reduce the risk of permanent joint damage and systemic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is expected on her menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Initially irregular bleeding later followed by light menses or amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 49 - A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling lethargic for the past 3 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: Hb 9.6 g/dl, MCV 123 fl, Plt 164 * 109/l, WCC 4.6 *109/l. Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old man experiences watery diarrhea during his trip to Egypt. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man experiences watery diarrhea during his trip to Egypt. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Travellers’ diarrhoea is most commonly caused by E. coli.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 51 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of vision problems. Upon examination, a left inferior...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of vision problems. Upon examination, a left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual field defect known as left homonymous hemianopia indicates a loss of vision to the left side, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. Homonymous quadrantanopias, which affect the parietal-inferior and temporal-superior areas, are also a type of visual field defect. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by lesions in the optic radiation or occipital cortex.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects refer to the loss of vision in certain areas of the visual field. One common type of visual field defect is left homonymous hemianopia, which means that there is a visual field defect to the left due to a lesion of the right optic tract. Another type is homonymous quadrantanopias, which can be remembered using the acronym PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior). Incongruous defects indicate an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest a lesion of the optic radiation or occipital cortex. A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.

      Homonymous hemianopia can also be caused by a lesion of the optic tract, with macula sparing indicating a lesion of the occipital cortex. Homonymous quadrantanopias can be caused by a lesion of the inferior optic radiations in the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) for superior defects, and a lesion of the superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe for inferior defects.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion of the optic chiasm. An upper quadrant defect that is greater than the lower quadrant defect suggests inferior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a pituitary tumor. Conversely, a lower quadrant defect that is greater than the upper quadrant defect suggests superior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a craniopharyngioma. It is important to note that while this information is useful for exams, actual studies suggest that the majority of quadrantanopias are caused by occipital lobe lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 52 - A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the hospital with severe chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals anterior ST elevation, and he is promptly treated with thrombolysis, resulting in the resolution of symptoms and ECG changes. What combination of medications should he be prescribed four weeks after the event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 53 - A 55-year-old man is admitted to Resus with a suspected anterior myocardial infarction....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is admitted to Resus with a suspected anterior myocardial infarction. An ECG on arrival confirms the diagnosis and thrombolysis is prepared. The patient is stable and his pain is well controlled with intravenous morphine. Clinical examination shows a blood pressure of 140/84 mmHg, pulse 90 bpm and oxygen saturations on room air of 97%. What is the most appropriate management with regards to oxygen therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      There are now specific guidelines regarding the use of oxygen during emergency situations. Please refer to the provided link for more information.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 54 - A 22-year-old female comes in for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes in for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has already had her booking visit with the midwives. So far, there have been no complications related to her pregnancy. The tests conducted showed that she has a blood group of A and is Rhesus negative. What is the best course of action for managing her rhesus status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give first dose of anti-D at 28 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 55 - A 55-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had a cervical smear done 18 months ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. The follow-up cervical smear has returned negative for high-risk HPV. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months for cervical cancer screening is now negative for hrHPV, the patient should return to routine recall, which is repeating the cervical smear in 5 years. Cytological examination of the smear is not necessary as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. Referral for colposcopy is also not indicated unless there is evidence of dyskaryosis or inadequate smears. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate for a 50-year-old patient, and repeating the smear after 12 months is only necessary if the most recent smear is positive for hrHPV with no cytological abnormalities.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 56 - A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while helping her mother with gardening. The wound appears superficial and is closed with skin glue. During examination, her vital signs are recorded as a temperature of 36.9ºC, heart rate of 86 bpm, blood pressure of 115/87 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient's mother is concerned about the need for a tetanus booster as she cannot recall if her daughter received the full course of vaccinations during childhood. How should the patient be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetanus booster vaccine and immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain and the wound is not minor and less than 6 hours old, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin. In this case, the patient is 13 years old and should have received 4 or 5 vaccinations against tetanus under the standard UK vaccination schedule. Antibiotics are not necessary if the wound is clean and not deep. It is more efficient to administer the booster while the patient is in the department rather than asking the GP to follow up, which could result in the patient being lost to follow up. The term tetanus level is incorrect as there is no such test.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and recently started taking phenytoin three weeks ago. He developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough about a week ago. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. Blood results reveal:
      Na+ 144 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      Urea 13.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 121 µmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. It is characterized by extensive scalding of the skin, and is considered by some experts to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include fever, rapid heartbeat, and a positive Nikolsky’s sign, which means that the epidermis separates easily with slight lateral pressure.

      The most effective way to manage TEN is to stop the use of the drug that caused the reaction. Supportive care is also necessary, and patients are often treated in an intensive care unit to monitor for potential complications such as electrolyte imbalances and fluid loss. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment for TEN, and has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents like ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 58 - A 68-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with rapidly worsening testicular...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with rapidly worsening testicular pain, redness, and swelling. Upon initial assessment, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 104 bpm, respiratory rate of 16/min, oxygen saturations of 97% on room air, and a blood pressure of 106/91 mmHg. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, heart failure, osteoarthritis, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which medication is most likely responsible for his current presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      SGLT-2 inhibitors, such as dapaglifozin, have been linked to a severe and rapidly progressing infection called necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene. This condition is caused by bacterial flora and is more common in diabetic and immunocompromised patients. It can lead to multiple organ failure and sepsis, making early surgical debridement and antibiotics crucial for management. It is important to note that Fournier’s gangrene is a serious adverse effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors, while the other options presented in the question are not associated with this condition.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the action of a protein called sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) in the kidneys. This results in a decrease in the amount of glucose that is reabsorbed by the body and an increase in the amount of glucose that is excreted in the urine. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      While SGLT-2 inhibitors can be effective in treating type 2 diabetes mellitus, they can also have some important adverse effects. One of the most common side effects is an increased risk of urinary and genital infections, which can occur due to the increased amount of glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported in some cases.

      Another potential complication of SGLT-2 inhibitors is normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition in which the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. This can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition if left untreated. Additionally, there is an increased risk of lower-limb amputation in patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors, so it is important to closely monitor the feet for any signs of injury or infection.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have some positive effects on overall health. Many patients taking these medications experience weight loss, which can be beneficial in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and risks of SGLT-2 inhibitors with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 59 - Which one of the following statements regarding scabies is untrue? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding scabies is untrue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients who complain of pruritus 4 weeks following treatment should be retreated

      Explanation:

      It is typical for itching to continue for a period of 4-6 weeks after elimination.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin and lays its eggs in the stratum corneum, leading to intense itching. This itching is caused by a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mites/eggs, which occurs about 30 days after the initial infection. Symptoms of scabies include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers, interdigital webs, and flexor aspects of the wrist. In infants, the face and scalp may also be affected. Scratching can lead to secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, while malathion 0.5% is second-line. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact with others until treatment is complete. All household and close physical contacts should be treated at the same time, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, contrary to the manufacturer’s recommendation. Patients should apply the insecticide cream or liquid to cool, dry skin, paying close attention to areas between fingers and toes, under nails, armpit area, and creases of the skin such as at the wrist and elbow. The insecticide should be left on the skin for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated 7 days later.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is seen in patients with suppressed immunity, especially HIV. The crusted skin will be teeming with hundreds of thousands of organisms. Isolation is essential, and ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 60 - A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using cotton buds to clean his ears earlier today and experienced a sharp pain during the process. He now has slightly reduced hearing in his left ear. The patient reports no discharge and is in good health otherwise.

      All of the patient's vital signs are normal. Upon examination of the left ear, a small perforation in the tympanic membrane is observed. There is no discharge or redness in the ear, and the ear canal is dry. The cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.

      What is the next best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure patient and review in 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an uncomplicated tympanic membrane perforation that is dry, they can be managed with watchful waiting for a month without needing to see an ENT specialist. These perforations can occur due to various reasons such as blunt trauma, penetrating injuries, or barotrauma. Typically, the perforation will heal on its own within 4-8 weeks. However, patients should schedule a follow-up appointment after 4 weeks to ensure that the perforation is healing properly. If the patient experiences increasing ear pain, discharge, or worsening hearing loss, they should see their GP. During the examination, the patient should undergo a full examination, including otoscopy, cranial nerve examination, and Rinne/Weber tests. If there are any cranial nerve deficits, the patient should discuss them with an ENT specialist. Patients should keep their ears clean and dry, and topical antibiotics are not recommended for clean, dry perforations. If there are any signs of infection or contamination, topical antibiotics may be given. In cases where the patient has more complex issues such as temporal bone fractures or slowly healing perforations, they may need to be reviewed by an ENT specialist in an emergency clinic. If the perforation does not heal, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 61 - A 25-year-old man presents to your GP clinic with concerns of a possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to your GP clinic with concerns of a possible urinary tract infection. He reports experiencing burning sensations during urination for the past two weeks, particularly in the morning. Additionally, he has noticed some itching around his penis. The patient has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that his abdomen is soft and nontender. Upon performing a urine dip, you find that it is positive for leukocytes. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urethritis due to a sexually transmitted infection

      Explanation:

      The BASH guidelines for Sexually Transmitted Infections in Primary Care state that in young men, urethritis is typically caused by an STI. Men under the age of 35 rarely experience urine infections, so any sexually active man experiencing dysuria should be screened for STIs. The presence of leukocytes in the urine indicates the presence of pus cells, which are a result of an STI. Chlamydia is the most prevalent STI in the UK.

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 62 - A typically healthy 44-year-old man is hospitalized with T11/12 discitis that is complicated...

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy 44-year-old man is hospitalized with T11/12 discitis that is complicated by a T4 to L1 epidural abscess and a left psoas abscess. Following surgery to drain the abscesses, laboratory cultures reveal the presence of Staphylococcus aureus. Furthermore, blood cultures taken upon admission grow Staphylococcus aureus after 72 hours. What is the most suitable initial investigation to identify the source of the infection, given the pathogenic organism detected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      In cases of discitis caused by Staphylococcus, an echocardiogram is necessary to check for endocarditis. Staphylococcus aureus is a highly aggressive pathogen that can spread throughout the body when it enters the bloodstream. In cases of deep abscesses caused by Staphylococcus aureus, a haematogenous source of spread should be investigated, with septic emboli from endocarditis being the most common cause. An echocardiogram is necessary to check for valvular injury or vegetations in all cases of Staphylococcus aureus-positive cultures. CT imaging is useful in identifying other abscesses and foci of infection, but is unlikely to identify a primary source of haematogenous spread. HIV testing is recommended for patients with Staphylococcus aureus sepsis, but it would not identify the primary source of bacteraemia. Midstream urine is not a reliable test for identifying a primary source of Staphylococcus aureus infection. The Duke’s Criteria for Endocarditis can be used to diagnose bacterial endocarditis, with a positive blood culture for a typical organism being one major criterion. Treatment for complicated discitis typically lasts for 6-12 weeks, with the first two weeks requiring intravenous treatment. If endocarditis is diagnosed, the length of intravenous therapy and overall treatment time may be altered.

      Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.

      To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.

      Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 63 - Amiodarone is known to cause which side effect? Choose ONE option from the...

    Incorrect

    • Amiodarone is known to cause which side effect? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Amiodarone: A Comprehensive Overview

      Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat cardiac arrhythmias. However, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects. Here is a breakdown of some of the most important things to know:

      Hyperthyroidism: Amiodarone can cause both hypo and hyperthyroidism. Patients taking this medication should have their thyroid function checked regularly.

      COPD: While amiodarone is not known to cause COPD, it can lead to pulmonary toxicity, including pneumonitis and fibrosis. Patients should have yearly chest x-rays.

      Drug-induced diabetes mellitus: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of diabetes mellitus.

      Drug-induced pemphigus: Long-term use of amiodarone can cause phototoxicity and skin discoloration. Patients should protect their skin from light during treatment. However, it is not known to cause drug-induced pemphigus.

      Renal calculi: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of kidney disease, including renal calculi.

      Other important side effects of amiodarone include hepatotoxicity, bradycardia, phototoxicity, and development of corneal deposits. If you are taking amiodarone, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 64 - A 25-year-old male patient comes to you with concerns about changes in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient comes to you with concerns about changes in his axillary skin. He reports feeling otherwise healthy and denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, you observe thickened and darkened skin in the axillary creases. The patient's BMI is 38 kg/m² and his blood pressure is within normal limits. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      A thickened brown velvety patch of skin, often accompanied by skin tags, is a common sign of Acanthosis nigricans (AN). This condition is typically found in the axilla, groin, and back of the neck. However, AN is not a standalone condition, but rather a cutaneous sign of underlying disease. The most common type of AN is associated with obesity and insulin resistance. Other underlying conditions linked to AN include Cushing’s syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome, and certain medications such as nicotinic acid, insulin, and systemic corticosteroids. In rare cases, AN may indicate an underlying malignancy, particularly stomach cancer. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this possibility when making a diagnosis.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 65 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided pleuritic pain. On examination she has a temperature of 38.5 °C, a respiratory rate of 37/min, a blood pressure of 110/80 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 110/min. Oxygen saturations are 95%. She has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the left lung base.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Cough and Fever: Bronchopneumonia vs. Other Conditions

      Bronchopneumonia is a common condition that presents with a cough and fever, along with other symptoms such as sputum production, dyspnea, and pleuritic pain. Examination findings may include decreased breath sounds and focal chest signs. A chest radiograph can confirm the diagnosis. In primary care, a CRB-65 score is used to assess mortality risk and determine where to treat the patient: one point each for acute confusion, respiratory rate (RR) ≥30/min, systolic blood pressure (BP) <90 mmHg or diastolic BP <60 mmHg, age >65 years).
      CRB-65 score Mortality risk (%) – Where to treat
      0 <1 At home
      1-2 1-10 Hospital advised, particularly score of 2
      3-4 >10 Hospital advised, may require stay in intensive therapy unit (ITU).

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, malignant mesothelioma, and tuberculosis. However, these conditions have distinct features that differentiate them from bronchopneumonia. For example, pneumothorax involves partial or full collapse of a lung, while pulmonary embolism results from obstruction of one or more of the pulmonary arteries. Malignant mesothelioma is a cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise.

      It is important to consider these differentials when evaluating a patient with cough and fever, and to use appropriate diagnostic tools to confirm the diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 66 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to her Pediatrician by her mother after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to her Pediatrician by her mother after being sent home from school. She is complaining of a headache and feeling tired since this morning.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.5 °C. Her pulse is of 96 bpm, while her capillary refill time is < 2 seconds. There are no rashes, she is alert, she has enlarged red tonsils without pustules and demonstrates tender cervical lymphadenopathy. She does not have a runny nose.
      What is her FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Understanding the FeverPAIN Score for Antibiotic Prescribing in Sore Throat Cases

      The FeverPAIN score is a tool used to aid decisions on antibiotic prescribing for acute sore throat cases. It involves scoring one point for each of the following criteria: fever, purulence, rapid attendance (<3 days duration), severely inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. A score of 5/5 indicates a high likelihood of a streptococcal infection and antibiotics would be indicated for treatment. However, for scores of 1 or 2, antibiotics may not be necessary as the chance of a bacterial infection is low. Patients should be advised to seek further medical attention if symptoms worsen and simple measures such as fluids and analgesia should be recommended. For scores of 3 or 4, delayed antibiotic prescribing or watchful waiting may be considered as other causes, such as viral infections, are more likely than bacterial infections. It is important to note that the FeverPAIN score is just one tool and should be used in conjunction with clinical judgement. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends its use, along with the Centor criteria, to predict the likelihood of a streptococcal infection. By understanding and utilizing these tools, healthcare providers can make informed decisions on antibiotic prescribing for sore throat cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 67 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her pulmonary function tests show a peak expiratory flow rate that is 60% below the normal range for her age and height.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Understanding PEFR and Its Role in Diagnosing Asthma

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is a valuable tool in both the diagnosis and management of asthma. It is measured by a maximal forced expiration through a peak-flow meter and correlates well with forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), providing an estimate of airway calibre. Patients with asthma can monitor their PEFR at home to track disease control. A PEFR <80% of predicted is a strong indicator of obstructive airway disease, such as asthma. However, it’s important to note that PEFR is not affected by restrictive defects, such as those caused by kyphoscoliosis. Bronchial carcinoma itself does not cause airflow limitation, but a co-morbid obstructive lung disease, such as asthma or COPD, could produce abnormal PEFR readings. Bronchiectasis can cause an obstructive pattern on spirometry, but it would not typically cause a reduction in PEFR. Whooping cough, despite causing inflammation of the airways, would not typically result in the markedly reduced PEFR readings seen in asthma. In conclusion, understanding PEFR and its role in diagnosing asthma is crucial for both patients and healthcare providers. By monitoring PEFR at home and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals with asthma can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 68 - A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its contraceptive effectiveness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 69 - An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward for the past...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward for the past 2 weeks. He has recently been diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer. During the morning ward round, he expresses dissatisfaction with his pain management. He is currently taking oral morphine sulphate 20 mg four times a day, codeine 30mg four times a day, and regular ibuprofen. What is the appropriate dose of oral morphine for breakthrough pain in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphine 15mg

      Explanation:

      To calculate the breakthrough dose, we need to first convert oral codeine to oral morphine by dividing by 10. For example, 10mg of oral codeine is equivalent to 1mg of oral morphine.

      If a person takes 30mg of oral codeine four times a day, this equals 12mg of oral morphine. If they also take 20mg of oral morphine four times a day, the total daily dose of morphine is 92mg (12mg + 80 mg).

      To determine the breakthrough dose, we divide the total daily dose of morphine by 6. In this case, the breakthrough dose would be 15mg of morphine.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 70 - A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and itchy skin. During the examination, the doctor notices yellowing of the eyes and an enlarged liver. Blood tests reveal the presence of anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMAs).

      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer from the options below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder that causes progressive cholestasis and can lead to end-stage liver disease. Symptoms include fatigue, pruritus, and right upper quadrant discomfort. Laboratory tests typically show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, g-glutamyl transpeptidase, and immunoglobulins, as well as the presence of antimitochondrial antibodies. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid to slow disease progression. Autoimmune hepatitis, diffuse systemic sclerosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus are other potential differential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 71 - A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms and his colleagues have noticed a change in his facial appearance. He also reports difficulty driving due to difficulty seeing the sides of his visual fields.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acromegaly

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders and Their Clinical Presentations

      Acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperthyroidism, and multiple sclerosis are all endocrine disorders that can present with various clinical features. Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone secretion and can lead to enlarged hands, coarse facial features, and bitemporal hemianopia. Cushing’s syndrome may present with central obesity, muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis, but visual dysfunction is not typical. Hyperprolactinaemia can cause amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea, but this presentation more closely fits with acromegaly. Hyperthyroidism may present with weight loss, tremor, and heat intolerance, but bitemporal hemianopia is not typical. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic inflammatory demyelination of the central nervous system and can present with various symptoms, but this patient’s presentation does not fit with features of multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 72 - A 32-year-old woman visits a Family Planning clinic with the intention of getting...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits a Family Planning clinic with the intention of getting a Nexplanon implant. What adverse effect should she be informed about during counselling?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irregular menstrual bleeding

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 73 - A 27-year-old woman who has never given birth presents to your clinic seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who has never given birth presents to your clinic seeking contraception. She complains of experiencing extremely heavy menstrual periods and desires a long-term contraceptive option that can alleviate her heavy bleeding. What is the most appropriate contraceptive method for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      The Mirena coil is a contraceptive method that reduces the duration and intensity of periods and can be used for an extended period.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 74 - You are conducting an 8-week examination on a baby with a prominent purplish...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an 8-week examination on a baby with a prominent purplish birthmark. The mother was informed that it may not disappear on its own and could be linked to other vascular issues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Port wine stain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Port Wine Stains

      Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that requires multiple sessions. It’s important to note that while these treatments can help reduce the appearance of port wine stains, they may not completely eliminate them. Understanding the nature of port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 75 - Which of the following examples of infant jaundice from the list below is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following examples of infant jaundice from the list below is the most concerning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Jaundice which develops on the day of delivery

      Explanation:

      Jaundice that appears within the first 24 hours after delivery is always considered to be pathological. Physiological jaundice typically develops 2-3 days after delivery and should resolve within 14 days. The risk of developing jaundice is higher in pre-term infants. In cases of physiological jaundice, bilirubin levels typically do not exceed 200 μmol/L.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 76 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 77 - What is the primary mode of action of Cerazette (desogestrel)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mode of action of Cerazette (desogestrel)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits ovulation

      Explanation:

      Types of Progestogen Only Pills

      Progestogen only pills (POPs) are a type of birth control pill that contain only progestogen hormone. There are two generations of POPs, with the second generation including norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and ethynodiol diacetate. The third generation of POPs includes desogestrel, which is also known as Cerazette. This new type of POP is highly effective in inhibiting ovulation in most women. One of the advantages of Cerazette is that users can take the pill up to 12 hours late, which is longer than the 3-hour window for other POPs. Overall, there are different types of POPs available, and women can choose the one that best suits their needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 78 - A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney failure has been instructed by his nephrologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney failure has been instructed by his nephrologist to adhere to a 'renal diet'. He visits you to gain further knowledge about this. What is typically recommended to individuals with chronic kidney disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low potassium diet

      Explanation:

      Dietary Recommendations for Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      Chronic kidney disease patients are recommended to follow a specific diet to reduce the strain on their kidneys. This diet includes low levels of protein, phosphate, sodium, and potassium. The reason for this is that these substances are typically excreted by the kidneys, and reducing their intake can help ease the burden on the kidneys. By following this diet, patients can help slow the progression of their kidney disease and improve their overall health. It is important for patients to work with a healthcare professional or registered dietitian to ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs while following these dietary restrictions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 79 - A 38-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of redness in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of redness in his left eye for the past week. During the examination, a tender papule is observed at the margin of the lower eyelid on the left side. Additionally, the conjunctiva of the left eye appears red. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warm compress, analgesia and topical antibiotic

      Explanation:

      If there is conjunctivitis present with the stye, topical antibiotics are recommended along with warm compress and pain relief. Cold compress should not be used. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if the infection persists despite topical treatment.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.

      Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 80 - A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively worsening erythematous rash on her nose, forehead, and cheeks accompanied by telangiectasia and papules for the past year. The rash is exacerbated by exposure to sunlight and consumption of hot and spicy foods. She has previously sought medical attention for this condition and has been treated with topical metronidazole, but her symptoms persist. She has no allergies and is otherwise healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The patient has an erythematous rash on the nose, forehead, and cheeks with telangiectasia and papules, worsened by sun exposure and spicy food, suggesting a diagnosis of rosacea. The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cases is topical metronidazole, while severe or resistant cases require oral tetracycline. However, in this case, oral doxycycline should be given instead of metronidazole as it has been ineffective. Oral clarithromycin, erythromycin, and flucloxacillin are not appropriate treatments for rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 81 - A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she is passing a substantial volume of urine. She complains that she is continuously thirsty.
      Random plasma reveals the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol
      Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 4.5 mmol
      Urine analysis reveals the following:
      Investigation Result
      Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 0.1 mmol/l
      In healthy patients, the urine : plasma osmolality ratio is > 2.
      A water deprivation test reveals the following:
      After 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient’s weight had dropped by > 3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (IM) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Pituitary Tumour as the Likely Cause

      Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is reduced antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion, which can be caused by a pituitary tumour. In this case, the patient’s low urine osmolality and reduced response to the water deprivation test confirm the presence of cranial DI.

      Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy can also cause nephrogenic DI, but the patient’s response to desmopressin im excludes these as potential causes. Diabetes mellitus may cause polydipsia and polyuria, but it also presents with glycosuria and hyperglycaemia. Primary polydipsia, characterized by a compulsive desire to drink, can cause low urine osmolality, but the patient’s ability to concentrate urine to some extent excludes this as a likely cause.

      In conclusion, a pituitary tumour is the most likely cause of the patient’s cranial DI, as confirmed by the water deprivation test and response to desmopressin im.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 82 - What is the failure rate of male sterilization? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the failure rate of male sterilization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2,000

      Explanation:

      Vasectomy: A Simple and Effective Male Sterilisation Method

      Vasectomy is a male sterilisation method that has a failure rate of 1 per 2,000, making it more effective than female sterilisation. The procedure is simple and can be done under local anesthesia, with some cases requiring general anesthesia. After the procedure, patients can go home after a couple of hours. However, it is important to note that vasectomy does not work immediately.

      To ensure the success of the procedure, semen analysis needs to be performed twice following a vasectomy before a man can have unprotected sex. This is usually done at 12 weeks after the procedure. While vasectomy is generally safe, there are some complications that may arise, such as bruising, hematoma, infection, sperm granuloma, and chronic testicular pain. This pain affects between 5-30% of men.

      In the event that a man wishes to reverse the procedure, the success rate of vasectomy reversal is up to 55% if done within 10 years. However, the success rate drops to approximately 25% after more than 10 years. Overall, vasectomy is a simple and effective method of male sterilisation, but it is important to consider the potential complications and the need for semen analysis before engaging in unprotected sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 83 - A 50-year-old man is recommended bupropion to aid in smoking cessation. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is recommended bupropion to aid in smoking cessation. What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist

      Explanation:

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 84 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is the primary test that should be employed for screening individuals with coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, the initial serological test for coeliac disease should be tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 85 - A 21-year-old soccer player comes to you with complaints of shoulder and lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old soccer player comes to you with complaints of shoulder and lower back pain. He reports that his back has been getting stiffer over the past few months and has worsened. During the examination, you find out that he is also experiencing enthesitis of the Achilles tendon. You suspect a particular diagnosis and want to confirm it. What antigen's presence would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 86 - A 28-year-old professional basketball player presents with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old professional basketball player presents with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise. Upon physical examination, a laterally displaced apical impulse is noted. Auscultation reveals a 2/6 mid-systolic murmur in the mitral area that increases upon sudden standing. The ECG shows LVH and Q waves in V1–4 leads.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Dyspnoea and a Murmur: Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition that can lead to sudden death in young athletes and is characterized by dyspnoea, LVH, and a loud S4. The systolic murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy does not radiate to the carotids and can be differentiated from aortic stenosis, which causes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that does radiate to the carotids. Young-onset hypertension is unlikely to cause a murmur, and acute myocardial infarction would show ST elevation or depression on ECG, but not LVH. Atrial septal defect is usually picked up in newborn checks and presents with a brief murmur in early systole and early diastole, while hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents with a double or triple apical impulse and a characteristic jerky carotid pulse. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy to prevent sudden death in young athletes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 87 - A 50-year-old male presents for a routine check-up and his blood pressure is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents for a routine check-up and his blood pressure is found to be 170/100 mmHg (and high blood pressure is confirmed during home blood pressure readings.) He is investigated for secondary causes, none are found, and a diagnosis of primary hypertension is made. His GP starts him on 5mg lisinopril. Two weeks later, his kidney function results show:
      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the improvement in his renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis can lead to significant renal impairment after starting an ACE inhibitor. This condition is commonly caused by atherosclerosis, but young females may also develop it due to fibromuscular dysplasia. As it often lacks symptoms, it can go unnoticed. While ACE inhibitors may cause a slight rise in serum creatinine, they usually only mildly affect renal function. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function two weeks after initiating ramipril and other ACE inhibitors. Glomerulonephritis, which refers to inflammation of the glomeruli, has multiple causes and typically results in gradual renal function decline, not rapid worsening after ACE inhibitor initiation. Although renal calculi and renal artery thrombosis can cause acute kidney injury, the patient in this question lacks pain and thrombosis risk factors. Chronic, untreated hypertension can also affect renal function, but it progresses slowly over years, and the patient’s renal function was normal before starting ramipril.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 88 - What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who presents with yellowing of the skin and eyes, fatigue, and intense itching, and has a history of coeliac disease? Her test results show elevated bilirubin, positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, and normal kidney function.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an inflammatory condition that affects middle-aged, overweight women. The most common symptoms are fatigue and pruritis, along with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for PBC as it slows disease progression. Cholestyramine can effectively control pruritis, but it does not affect overall mortality in PBC. Liver transplantation is reserved for cases where medical alternatives have failed. Loratadine is not indicated for PBC, and prednisolone is used in the treatment of autoimmune hepatitis, which is a different condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 89 - As you review the blood results of a 65-year-old man who has been...

    Incorrect

    • As you review the blood results of a 65-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension, you notice that a HbA1c level was requested as part of the routine work-up. What HbA1c range would be indicative of prediabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prediabetes and Impaired Glucose Regulation

      Prediabetes is a term used to describe impaired glucose levels that are higher than normal but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes mellitus. This includes individuals with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). Diabetes UK estimates that around 1 in 7 adults in the UK have prediabetes, and many of them will eventually develop type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), putting them at risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications.

      To identify patients with prediabetes, NICE recommends using a validated computer-based risk assessment tool for adults aged 40 and over, people of South Asian and Chinese descent aged 25-39, and adults with conditions that increase the risk of T2DM. Patients identified as high risk should have a blood sample taken, and a fasting plasma glucose of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l or an HbA1c level of 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%) indicates high risk.

      Lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, increased exercise, and changes in diet are recommended for managing prediabetes. NICE also recommends metformin for adults at high risk who are still progressing towards T2DM despite lifestyle changes.

      There are two main types of impaired glucose regulation: impaired fasting glucose (IFG) and impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). IFG is due to hepatic insulin resistance, while IGT is due to muscle insulin resistance. Patients with IGT are more likely to develop T2DM and cardiovascular disease than those with IFG.

      To rule out a diagnosis of diabetes, people with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person doesn’t have diabetes but does have IGT. It is important to understand prediabetes and impaired glucose regulation to prevent the progression to T2DM and its associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 90 - A high school student complains of painful mouth ulcers associated with pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A high school student complains of painful mouth ulcers associated with pain and swelling in both hands. She has had several episodes of vasospasm in her fingers, with pallor, cyanosis and subsequent redness caused by reactive hyperaemia. Blood tests reveal anti-double-stranded (ds)DNA antibodies and antinuclear antibodies (ANAs).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Connective Tissue Diseases: Characteristics and Differences

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjögren syndrome, Behçet’s disease, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and systemic sclerosis are all autoimmune connective tissue diseases with distinct characteristics. SLE is most prevalent in African-American women and presents with arthralgia, rashes, and fever. Sjögren syndrome is characterised by dry eyes and mouth, while Behçet’s disease is primarily characterised by recurrent mouth ulcers, genital ulceration, eye lesions, and cutaneous manifestations. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis predominantly affects the small vessels and presents with lesions involving the upper respiratory tract, lungs, and kidneys. Systemic sclerosis is a multisystem disease characterised by Raynaud’s phenomenon and either limited or diffuse cutaneous scleroderma. Understanding the differences between these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 91 - A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has progressively worsened. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly. What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for detecting pituitary tumors, which are often the cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to determine if a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not a specific investigation for acromegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old male visits a dermatology clinic after being referred by his physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male visits a dermatology clinic after being referred by his physician due to a mole that has changed color. When asked, he mentions that he always burns and never tans when exposed to sunlight. He has fair skin and red hair. What is the appropriate Fitzpatrick grade for this skin type?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fitzpatrick type 1

      Explanation:

      Skin type 1 according to the Fitzpatrick classification is characterized by pale skin with features like blue eyes, red hair, and freckles. Individuals with this skin type always experience burning and never tanning. The classification system ranges from type 1, which is most prone to burning, to type 6, which is Afro-Caribbean skin that never burns.

      Skin type is a crucial factor in determining the risk of developing skin cancer. The Fitzpatrick classification system is commonly used to categorize skin types based on their response to UV radiation. This system divides skin types into six categories, ranging from those who always burn and never tan to those who never burn and always tan.

      Type I skin is the most sensitive to UV radiation and is characterized by red hair, freckles, and blue eyes. These individuals never tan and always burn when exposed to the sun. Type II skin usually tans but always burns, while Type III skin always tans but may sometimes burn. Type IV skin always tans and rarely burns, and Type V skin burns and tans after extreme UV exposure. Finally, Type VI skin, which is common in individuals of African descent, never tans and never burns.

      Understanding your skin type is essential in protecting yourself from skin cancer. Those with fair skin, such as Type I and II, are at a higher risk of developing skin cancer and should take extra precautions when exposed to the sun. On the other hand, those with darker skin, such as Type V and VI, may have a lower risk of skin cancer but should still take measures to protect their skin from UV radiation. By knowing your skin type and taking appropriate precautions, you can reduce your risk of developing skin cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 93 - A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan, resulting in the alleviation of his symptoms.
      What is the mechanism of action of the drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Causing vasoconstriction of cranial arteries

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Sumatriptan: A Migraine and Cluster Headache Treatment

      Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by activating specific serotonin receptors (5-HT1D and 5-HT1B) found on cranial and basilar arteries, causing vasoconstriction of these blood vessels. This medication can be administered orally, by subcutaneous injection, or intranasally.

      It is important to note that sumatriptan has no effect on adrenergic receptors or acetylcholinesterase receptors. It is also not a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor or an opioid receptor agonist or antagonist.

      In addition to its effects on blood vessels, sumatriptan has been shown to decrease the activity of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for its effectiveness in treating cluster headaches.

      Overall, understanding the mechanisms of sumatriptan can help healthcare professionals and patients better understand how this medication works to alleviate the symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 94 - A 35-year-old expectant mother seeks guidance regarding the likelihood of her child inheriting...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old expectant mother seeks guidance regarding the likelihood of her child inheriting polycystic kidney disease. Despite her diagnosis, she is presently in good health. Her father, who also has the condition, is currently undergoing dialysis. What is the probability that her offspring will develop the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a prevalent genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2, respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for the remaining 15%. Individuals with ADPKD develop multiple fluid-filled cysts in their kidneys, which can lead to renal failure.

      To diagnose ADPKD in individuals with a positive family history, an abdominal ultrasound is typically performed. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, in individuals under 30 years of age, two cysts in both kidneys for those aged 30-59 years, and four cysts in both kidneys for those over 60 years of age.

      Management of ADPKD may involve the use of tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, for select patients. Tolvaptan has been recommended by NICE as an option for treating ADPKD in adults with chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme. The goal of treatment is to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. An enlarged kidney with extensive cysts is a common finding in individuals with ADPKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 95 - A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers experiencing a similar reaction on his wrist when wearing a nickel bracelet. What test is used to confirm a nickel allergy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patch test

      Explanation:

      Medical Testing Techniques

      Patch Test, Flow Cytometry, HLA Typing, Polymerase Chain Reaction, and Skin Prick Testing are all medical testing techniques used for different purposes.

      Patch Test is used to diagnose delayed type IV hypersensitivity reactions. It involves applying various test substances to the skin and examining it for any inflammatory response.

      Flow Cytometry is used to differentiate between cell populations and count the number of cells in a given sample. It works by channelling cells through a laser beam one at a time and identifying the size and granularity of the cell.

      HLA Typing is used to match patients and donors for cord blood or bone marrow transplants. It tests for proteins or markers used by the immune system to differentiate ‘self’ from ‘non-self’.

      Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to amplify a single or multiple copies of a DNA segment. It has medical uses such as functional analysis of genes, diagnosis of hereditary diseases, and detection of infectious diseases.

      Skin Prick Testing is used to diagnose type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are mediated by immunoglobulin E. It involves immediate degranulation of mast cells and the release of histamine. Examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions include allergic rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma.

      Medical Testing Techniques for Different Purposes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 96 - A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling sensations and difficulty using her hands. Additionally, she has noticed hesitancy in her urinary function. Which specific cytotoxic medication is the likely culprit for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vincristine

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy is a known side effect of Vincristine. Additionally, bladder atony may cause urinary hesitancy.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 97 - A young woman tells you she has developed fears of getting lost in...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman tells you she has developed fears of getting lost in the crowd and has become very anxious about going to open public places. She also says that she had experienced panic attacks previously when she went to a crowded shopping mall. She is physically healthy and so far has no history of mental illness.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agoraphobia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Phobias and Dissociative Disorders

      Phobias and dissociative disorders are two types of mental health conditions that can significantly impact a person’s daily life. Phobias are intense and irrational fears of specific objects or situations, while dissociative disorders involve a disconnection from reality as a coping mechanism.

      Agoraphobia is a common and severe phobia that affects mostly women and involves a fear of open spaces and crowded places. Social phobia, on the other hand, is a fear of being scrutinized in public and tends to start in adolescence. Acrophobia is a specific phobia that involves a fear of heights.

      Treatment for phobias often involves psychological interventions such as cognitive-behavioral therapy. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, typically require more intensive therapy to address the underlying trauma that led to the dissociation.

      It’s important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with a phobia or dissociative disorder. With the right treatment and support, it is possible to manage these conditions and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 98 - A 16-month-old child has been referred to the haematology team due to painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old child has been referred to the haematology team due to painful bone swellings in the hands and feet, along with a positive family history of sickle cell disease. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent who are carriers of the condition. Huntington’s Disease is an example of an autosomal dominant condition, while Fragile X syndrome is an example of an X-linked dominant condition. Haemophilia is an example of an X-linked recessive condition, and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an example of a co-dominant condition.

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when abnormal haemoglobin, known as HbS, is produced due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in individuals of African descent, as the heterozygous condition provides some protection against malaria. About 10% of UK Afro-Caribbean’s are carriers of HbS, and they only experience symptoms if they are severely hypoxic. Homozygotes tend to develop symptoms between 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules replace fetal haemoglobin.

      The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerise and sickle RBCs in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse, blocking small blood vessels and causing infarction.

      The definitive diagnosis of sickle-cell anaemia is through haemoglobin electrophoresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 99 - A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation...

    Incorrect

    • A boy of 7 presents with a unilateral painless limp. Examination shows limitation of rotation and extension at the affected hip joint, and a radiograph shows a dense flattened and fragmented femoral head on the affected side.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perthes' disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ Disease: Avascular Necrosis of the Proximal Femoral Head in Children

      Perthes’ disease is a condition that results from avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head, which is caused by a compromised blood supply. It typically affects children aged 4-10, with boys being affected more frequently than girls. The disease presents with a painless limp and limited range of motion of the affected hip, followed by hip pain as necrosis develops.

      The diagnosis of Perthes’ disease is suspected clinically, and radiographs may be normal initially or show only a non-specific effusion. As the condition progresses, the joint space between the ossified femoral head and acetabulum widens, and narrowing or collapse of the femoral head causes it to appear widened and flattened. Eventually, femoral head collapse may ensue.

      Other conditions that may present similarly to Perthes’ disease include slipped upper femoral epiphysis, septic arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, and congenital dislocation of the hip. However, each of these conditions has its own unique features and diagnostic criteria.

      Overall, Perthes’ disease is a generalised disorder of cartilage development that predisposes children to repeated episodes of infarction in the proximal femoral epiphysis. The most significant factors determining prognosis are onset in the older child, epiphyseal protrusion, extensive involvement of the epiphysis, and arrest of subcapital growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 100 - A 25-year-old man with a family history of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidneys has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a family history of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidneys has been diagnosed with polycystic kidneys using ultrasound. He is currently asymptomatic and has no other past medical history.
      What is the most crucial factor to manage for improving his long-term prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Polycystic Kidney Disease: Key Factors for Improving Long-Term Outcomes

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys, causing the growth of multiple cysts that can lead to kidney failure. To improve the long-term outcomes of patients with PKD, it is crucial to control blood pressure, which is the single most important factor. PKD has two main types, PKD1 and PKD2, with PKD1 being more common. Complications of PKD include haematuria, nocturia, hypertension, and loin pain. Prognosis varies, with PKD1 patients requiring dialysis or transplantation by the age of 60, while PKD2 patients may not require it until the age of 75. While there is limited evidence that decreasing protein and caffeine intake, increasing exercise, and stopping alcohol consumption may improve long-term outcomes, controlling blood pressure remains the most critical factor in managing PKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (1/4) 25%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
ENT (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Passmed