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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerning symptoms. Ten weeks ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerning symptoms. Ten weeks ago, she was in a serious car accident. Despite being physically fine, she has been experiencing flashbacks, heightened alertness when crossing the street, and difficulty concentrating at work. What characteristic would most strongly support the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delusional beliefs

      Correct Answer: Emotional detachment

      Explanation:

      One of the common features of PTSD is emotional detachment, where patients may feel numb and unable to fully experience their emotions. Other symptoms include re-experiencing traumatic events through flashbacks and nightmares, avoiding people or situations, and hyperarousal such as hypervigilance and sleep problems. Delusional beliefs are not typically associated with PTSD, and excessive sleep and nystagmus are not common symptoms. However, there is a link between eyes and PTSD, as eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy is a common treatment for the disorder.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department claiming that he is infested...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department claiming that he is infested with fleas. He reports feeling extremely itchy and is requesting treatment. This is his fourth visit in the past year for this issue. The patient has no notable medical history and denies using any illicit drugs. He drinks 12 units of alcohol per week and is employed full-time as a teacher.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delusional parasitosis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for a patient who has a fixed, false belief that they are infested by bugs is delusional parasitosis. This rare condition can occur on its own or alongside other psychiatric disorders, but typically does not significantly impair the patient’s daily functioning. Capgras syndrome, delirium tremens, and Fregoli syndrome are all incorrect diagnoses for this particular case.

      Understanding Delusional Parasitosis

      Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.

      In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses that he no longer takes pleasure in his usual pastimes. The patient used to enjoy playing video games and going to the gym, but now finds these activities uninteresting and lacks motivation to engage in them.

      Which symptom of schizophrenia is the patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Anhedonia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Anhedonia, affective flattening, alogia, apathy, and delusions are all symptoms of schizophrenia. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Affective flattening is the loss of a normal range of emotional expression, making it difficult for individuals to express their emotions appropriately. Alogia is a lack of spontaneous speech, making it difficult for individuals to communicate effectively. Apathy is a sense of indifference and lack of interest in activities that were once enjoyable. Delusions are firmly held false beliefs that are not based in reality. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s ability to function in daily life and can lead to social isolation and difficulty maintaining relationships. It is important for individuals experiencing these symptoms to seek professional help and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old basketball player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament repair following an injury....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old basketball player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament repair following an injury. He is advised by his medical team that he will need an extended period of rest and physiotherapy before he resumes competitive basketball. Following the surgery, he says he feels better and discharges himself. He later goes out with his friends and tells them that he will be back on the court next week.

      What type of coping is this?

      Your Answer: Problem focused

      Correct Answer: Avoidance

      Explanation:

      Coping Mechanisms: Understanding Different Approaches to Dealing with Stress

      When faced with stress, individuals often employ coping mechanisms to manage their emotions and reactions. Here are some common coping mechanisms and their definitions:

      Avoidance: This coping mechanism involves denying the existence of a stressor and continuing with one’s usual behavior without making any changes. It is often used when the stressor is too overwhelming to deal with immediately.

      Appraisal: Appraisal involves assessing past events and experiences to make decisions for future arrangements. This coping mechanism can help individuals feel more in control of their situation.

      Projection: Projection is when an individual attributes unwanted thoughts and feelings onto someone else. This can be a way to avoid dealing with one’s own emotions.

      Problem-focused: This coping mechanism involves identifying the causes of a stressor and taking action to reduce or eliminate it. It is a proactive approach to dealing with stress.

      Emotion-focused: Emotion-focused coping involves managing the emotions that a stressor creates. This can involve using drugs or other methods to regulate one’s emotional response.

      Understanding these coping mechanisms can help individuals choose the most effective approach for dealing with stress in their lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old boy with Tourette's syndrome is brought to the GP by his...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy with Tourette's syndrome is brought to the GP by his father as he is concerned about some unusual behaviors he has observed. During the appointment, you discover that he has been extremely anxious about his upcoming driving test. He feels compelled to check the locks on all the doors in the house repeatedly before leaving, as otherwise, he becomes more anxious about the test.

      What signs or symptoms would suggest a diagnosis of psychosis rather than obsessive-compulsive disorder?

      Your Answer: She truly believes that if she does not perform these acts that she will definitely fail her exams

      Explanation:

      The level of insight into their actions can differentiate obsessive-compulsive disorder from psychosis. OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions, where patients have intrusive thoughts and perform acts to reduce them. Patients with OCD typically have a good understanding of their condition and know that not performing the acts will not make their obsessive thoughts come true. However, they still feel the urge to perform them. If a patient lacks insight into their condition and believes that not performing the acts will lead to a negative outcome, it may indicate a delusional element and suggest a diagnosis other than OCD, such as psychosis. Gender is not linked to OCD, and Tourette’s is associated with OCD, not psychosis. Patients with untreated OCD may need to perform more acts over time, but this does not indicate psychosis. While there is a genetic link to OCD, the absence of a family history does not suggest another underlying diagnosis.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - You are asked to see a 50-year-old woman who reports feeling down for...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 50-year-old woman who reports feeling down for several months. Upon further questioning, you discover that she has lost interest in activities she previously enjoyed, such as hiking and going to the theater. She has also been experiencing fatigue, causing her to miss work, and has had occasional thoughts of not wanting to be alive, although she denies any intention of harming herself. In the past month, her symptoms have worsened, with episodes of anxiety occurring at least once a week. These episodes last around five minutes and are characterized by hyperventilation, nausea, and a fear of having a heart attack. No physical abnormalities have been found. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic fatigue syndrome

      Correct Answer: Depression with secondary panic attacks

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Anxiety and Related Disorders

      Anxiety and related disorders can manifest in various ways, making it important to understand the different types and their symptoms. Depression with secondary panic attacks is a common occurrence, where panic attacks and other anxiety symptoms are a secondary feature of depression. Agoraphobia is an excessive fear of being in situations where escape or help may not be available, leading to avoidance of such situations. Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by uncontrollable and irrational worry or anxiety about a wide range of issues and situations. Panic disorder is diagnosed when a person has recurrent, severe panic attacks without an obvious precipitant. Chronic fatigue syndrome is characterised by persistent, unexplained fatigue over several months. Understanding these disorders and their symptoms can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. He discloses that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. He discloses that he has been struggling with motivation, insomnia, and loss of interest in social activities since losing his job two years ago. He denies any suicidal ideation or intent. On the PHQ 9, he scores 9, indicating mild-moderate depression. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Antidepressant medication

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) or low-intensity psychological therapy

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Treatment Options for Patients with Low Mood: A Guide for General Practitioners

      When a patient presents with low mood, it is important for general practitioners (GPs) to consider the most appropriate treatment options. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, self-help and talking to people should be tried before offering low-intensity psychological therapy or cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). However, if symptoms have been present for two years, intervention is required and psychological therapies should be trialled first before considering antidepressant medication. Diazepam should be avoided due to the high risk of dependency. While self-help advice and a follow-up appointment in two weeks’ time are offered, it is important to note that psychological therapies are the best option for patients with long-standing symptoms. Urgent referral to the Crisis Team is not necessary if the patient denies suicidal or self-harm thoughts, but they should be provided with the team’s contact information in case of emergency. By following these guidelines, GPs can provide appropriate treatment options for patients with low mood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy and taking fluoxetine, but her symptoms persist. Her doctor decides to prescribe clomipramine, but warns her of potential side effects. What is the most likely side effect she may experience as a result of taking clomipramine?

      Your Answer: Acute dystonia and tardive dyskinesia

      Correct Answer: Dry mouth and weight gain

      Explanation:

      Clomipramine, a TCA, can cause dry mouth due to its anticholinergic effects and weight gain due to its antihistaminic effects. While rare, extrapyramidal side effects and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are also possible but more commonly associated with antipsychotic drugs. Increased urinary frequency and thirst are side effects of lithium, not TCAs. Additionally, mydriasis, not miosis, is a side effect of TCAs.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - You are advising a 35-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who is contemplating...

    Incorrect

    • You are advising a 35-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who is contemplating electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
      What is a temporary side effect of this treatment?

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Correct Answer: Cardiac arrhythmias

      Explanation:

      Knowing the side effects of ECT is crucial as it is a treatment that is often viewed with apprehension by the public. ECT is typically used to treat depression that is resistant to other treatments, as well as severe mania and catatonic schizophrenia. While it was once a feared treatment due to its use of high strengths and lack of anesthesia, it is now considered to be a relatively safe intervention. Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, memory problems, and cardiac arrhythmias. There are few long-term effects, although some patients may experience long-term memory issues. ECT is used to treat mania and is being studied as a potential treatment for Parkinson’s disease. It induces a generalized seizure but is not associated with epilepsy or glaucoma.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found wandering...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found wandering the streets in an agitated state. His medical history includes hepatic steatosis, hypertension, and asthma, and he regularly takes amlodipine and Symbicort. He drinks up to 1 liter of vodka daily and has smoked for 30 years. He has not been seen by his family for 2-3 days before these events. His vital signs are heart rate 111 beats per minute, blood pressure 170/94 mmHg, respiratory rate 23 /min, oxygen saturations 97% on air, and temperature 37.2ÂșC. He is tremulous, diaphoretic, and agitated. Shortly after examination, he has a self-terminating seizure lasting 30 seconds. Blood tests and a CT head are performed, with the latter being reported as normal. What is the best medication choice to prevent further seizures?

      Your Answer: Intravenous pabrinex

      Correct Answer: Oral chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Chlordiazepoxide is the preferred medication for treating delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal, not diazepam. Symptoms of minor alcohol withdrawal, such as tremors, anxiety, and headaches, typically appear 6-12 hours after alcohol cessation and can progress to alcoholic hallucinosis, withdrawal seizures, and delirium tremens. Delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal seizures are treated with chlordiazepoxide as the first-line medication. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA) score is used to manage alcohol withdrawal in hospital, with benzodiazepines being administered based on the score. Intravenous glucose, intravenous hypertonic saline, and intravenous levetiracetam are not appropriate treatments for delirium tremens and alcohol withdrawal.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (3/10) 30%
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