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  • Question 1 - A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting for 6 days. What is the appropriate initial investigations?

      Your Answer: Random blood sugar

      Correct Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Explanation:

      The most commonly requested biochemistry tests for renal function are the urea and electrolytes. They supply important information when it comes to homeostasis and excretion. Glomerular filtration rate is also the essential standard marker of kidney health and is assessed by checking the creatinine levels. In this case as the child has lost fluids and electrolytes, this test will indicate the extent of the loss and allow for more appropriate replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl complains of a paravaginal mass. Biopsy was taken which confirmed...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl complains of a paravaginal mass. Biopsy was taken which confirmed a diagnosis of rhabdomyosarcoma. The likely cell of origin is a?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle cell

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyosarcoma originates from skeletal muscle cells. A biopsy is needed for grading according to microscopy. Most patients are adult females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history:Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago.Current medications:Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasoneMesalazine 400 mg TDSShe was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7C, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult.What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer: Peptostreptococcus

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis; therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination. The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents...

    Correct

    • A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?

      Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?

      Your Answer: GnRH stimulation test

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for abnormally short stature amongst children?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Familial/inherited short stature is the most likely and commonest factor resulting in short stature among the children. Klinefelter syndrome is characterised by tall stature, widely spaces nipples and infertility. Other factors include congenital heart disease, maternal deprivation and diabetes mellitus but these are the rare causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele

      Explanation:

      The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate?

      Your Answer: Number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births

      Explanation:

      The perinatal mortality rate is defined as the number of perinatal deaths per 1000 total births. Perinatal death includes the death of a live-born neonate within 7-days of life (early neonatal death) and the death of a fetus ≥ 22 weeks of gestation (stillbirth). Hence, the perinatal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the number of still births+ the number of early neonatal deaths by 1000 births.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he was complaining of pain and swelling. The x-ray showed the classic sign of Codman's triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Codman’s triangle is the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone. The main causes for this sign are osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, eumycetoma, and a subperiosteal abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?

      Your Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton

      Explanation:

      The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the...

    Correct

    • A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the head with a cricket ball during a match. His teacher describes that he initially collapsed on the ground and complained of a sore head. Two minutes later, he got up and said he felt OK and continued playing. However, 30 minutes later he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What injury is he most likely to have sustained?

      Your Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A lucid interval, in which the patient portrays a temporary improvement in condition after a traumatic brain injury, is especially indicative of an epidural haematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      144.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees....

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Correct Answer: Iritis

      Explanation:

      The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the garden. She is unvaccinated as the parents are concerned regarding side effects. There is no contraindication to vaccinations. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Give complete DPT vaccine course

      Explanation:

      A complete course of DPT should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the...

    Incorrect

    • What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 17-year-old male undergoes an emergency appendectomy for perforated appendix. Postoperatively, he develops...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old male undergoes an emergency appendectomy for perforated appendix. Postoperatively, he develops disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which one of the following clotting factors are most rapidly consumed in this process?

      Your Answer: Factor V and VIII

      Explanation:

      Factors V and VIII are consumed most rapidly in a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation.Simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage caused by initially formation of thrombi which consume clotting factors (factors 5,8) and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding.Causes include:- Infection- Malignancy- Trauma e.g. major surgery, burns, shock, dissecting aortic aneurysm- Liver disease- Obstetric complicationsClinically bleeding is usually a dominant feature, bruising, ischaemia and organ failure.Blood tests reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen and increased fibrinogen degradation products.Treatment of DIC involves treating the underlying cause and supportive management.Mnemonic:D-I-S-S-E-M-I-N-A-T-E-DD- D dimerI-Immune complexesS-Snakebite, shock, heatstrokeS-SLEE-Eclampsia, HELLP syndromeM-Massive tissue damageI-Infections: viral and bacterialN-NeoplasmsA-Acute promyelocytic leukaemiaT-Tumour products: Tissue Factor (TF) and TF-like factors released by carcinomas of pancreas, prostate, lung,colon, stomachE-Endotoxins (bacterial)D-Dead foetus (retained)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      83.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias....

    Correct

    • A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias. Which of the following abnormalities is most often associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is an abnormality of anterior urethral and penile development. The urethral opening is located on the ventral aspect of the penis proximal to the tip of the glans penis, which, in this condition, is open. The urethral opening may be located as proximal as in the scrotum or perineum. The penis may also have associated ventral shortening and curvature, called chordee, with more proximal urethral defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old boy was discharged from hospital after an episode of acute testicular...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy was discharged from hospital after an episode of acute testicular pain.Considering he had an anatomical anomaly involving the processus vaginalis, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Incarcerated inguinal hernia

      Correct Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      Based on the presented clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for the patient would be testicular torsion.Rationale:The gubernaculum is the structure responsible for aiding the descent of the testicles from the abdomen into the scrotum. The processus vaginalis precedes the descent of the testes and then undergoes closure. Abnormalities such as the persistence of a patent processus vaginalis, known as bell clapper deformity, predispose to testicular torsion.Other options:- Varicocele: Nutcracker syndrome occurs where the left renal vein becomes compressed in between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. Since the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein, this results in a varicocele. – Epididymitis and mumps orchitis are differentials for acute testicular pain but are not due to a defect in the processus vaginalis. – An incarcerated inguinal hernia presents mainly with signs of bowel obstruction which are not mentioned in the clinical scenario.The descent of testes:- Until the end of foetal life, the testicles are located within the abdominal cavity. – They are initially located on the posterior abdominal wall on a level with the upper lumbar vertebrae (L2). – Attached to the inferior aspect of the testis is the gubernaculum testis which extends caudally to the inguinal region, through the canal and down to the superficial skin. – It is interesting to note that both the testis and the gubernaculum are extra-peritoneal.- As the foetus grows, the gubernaculum becomes progressively shorter. It carries the peritoneum of the anterior abdominal wall (the processus vaginalis). As the processus vaginalis descends the testis is guided by the gubernaculum down the posterior abdominal wall and the back of the processus vaginalis into the scrotum.- By the third month of foetal life the testes are located in the iliac fossae, by the seventh they lie at the level of the deep inguinal ring.Usually, the processus vaginalis closes after birth but may persist predisposing to indirect hernias. On the other hand, a partial closure may result in the development of cysts on the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old boy was brought by his mother due to his recent clumsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought by his mother due to his recent clumsy behaviour. She observes that he has an increased tendency to trip over while running. On examination, his calves were relatively slim, and the soles of his feet were arched. Ankle dorsiflexors were noted to be weak, and the deep tendon reflexes were absent. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical presentation is highly suggestive of Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome.It is a hereditary sensory and motor neuropathy. It is also the commonest cause of inherited peripheral neuropathy. The lower motor neuron signs are usually mild in childhood, the age of onset is very variable, and the distal weakness can take years to progress. It is not fatal and does not affect the normal life expectancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch nodules of the iris. What is the most likely sign to observe on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary freckles

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a common autosomal dominant disease. The Lisch nodule represents one of the most common NF1 ocular manifestations.NF1 is caused by a genetic mutation which can cause tumours to grow on nerve endings; these cutaneous neurofibromas are benign tumours which grow on the skin, often first appearing during the hormonal changes that occur in teenage years. They vary in size and can appear anywhere on the body. The number of neurofibromas present differs greatly between individuals and over a lifetime Cafe au lait spots (coffee coloured birthmarks) are often the first and most common sign of NF1, and these are often found at birth and are usually evident by 2 years of age.Other features of NF1 can include Lisch nodules of the iris (small pigmentation in the iris which causes no disturbance to vision), skin-fold freckling (freckling/pigmentation in the groyne and armpits), plexiform neurofibromas (or sub cutaneous neurofibromas) which are diffuse tumours that grow along a nerve and are found in at least 25 % of people with NF1, optic gliomas (tumour of the optic nerve), and skeletal complications including pseudarthrosis and scoliosis. Macrocephaly (large head size) is also common, and short stature is found in around a third of people with NF1. Rare complications include a risk of malignancy, organs being compromised by neurofibromas, seizures, and hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 5 year old girl presents with a history of polyuria, polydipsia, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with a history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She seems lethargic and has a blood glucose of 24 mmol/l. Which of the following defines diabetes, according to the World Health Organization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single fasting glucose > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms

      Explanation:

      WHO states that diabetes can be diagnosed from a single fasting glucose of > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms or a glucose level of > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after a glucose load. Two fasting glucose levels of > 7.0 mmol/l on separate occasions can also fit the diagnosis in the absence of characteristic symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In a premature infant boy, an inguinal hernia will most likely: ...

    Incorrect

    • In a premature infant boy, an inguinal hernia will most likely:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recur after surgery

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias are a common surgical condition in preterm male infants. Surgical repair is usually suggested shortly after birth due to a fear of incarceration or strangulation. These hernias are often indirect as they pass though the processes vaginalis, rather than the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Recurrence of the hernia is the most common post operative complication. While other complications can occur if left un-repaired, hydrocele and testicular atrophy are not as common, neither is spontaneous resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. What is the most appropriate management for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age

      Explanation:

      Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood...

    Incorrect

    • What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      The anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to the IgM class of immunoglobulins.Note:IgM is the largest antibody formed of 5 antibodies attached together. This functions to agglutinate or clump antigens. The associated anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM produced in the first years of life by sensitisation to environmental substances such as food, bacteria, and viruses.Other options:- IgG is the most common antibody. It is a single antibody complex.- IgD is found on the surface of B-lymphocytes.- IgE is bound to tissue cells, especially mast cells and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period -if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery. Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6-9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception. It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure. Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Fluid And Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/2) 50%
Passmed