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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman is seeking screening for sexually transmitted infections due to starting...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is seeking screening for sexually transmitted infections due to starting a new relationship. What is the most frequently diagnosed sexually transmitted infection in the UK?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.1
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  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with...

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    • A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with a complaint of erythematous sores on her face for the past 2 days. The lesions are limited to her face and have started to weep and progress to honey crusted lesions over the last 24 hours. The child is otherwise healthy. Previously, topical hydrogen peroxide was ineffective for a similar episode. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Explanation:

      If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.

      The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.

      Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      152.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are conducting a medication review for a 67-year-old man who has a...

    Correct

    • You are conducting a medication review for a 67-year-old man who has a history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 3 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
      - Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
      - Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
      - Amlodipine 5mg once daily
      - Ramipril 10mg once daily
      - Diclofenac 50mg as needed
      - Sertraline 50mg once daily

      What changes would you recommend to his medication regimen?

      Your Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID

      Explanation:

      The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.

      MHRA Guidance on Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Safety

      The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), after a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, it is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.

      The MHRA’s updated guidance on diclofenac and cardiovascular safety highlights the increased risk of cardiovascular events associated with this NSAID compared to other NSAIDs. Patients with certain conditions are advised to avoid diclofenac and switch to other NSAIDs. This guidance is important for healthcare professionals to consider when prescribing NSAIDs to patients with cardiovascular risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      92.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a cough with green sputum and palpitations. She reports feeling very sick, feverish, and tired. Upon examination, she exhibits bronchial breathing at her right base, with a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. Her heart sounds are normal, but her heartbeat is irregularly irregular, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular rate. The patient has no prior history of atrial fibrillation. What is the initial treatment that should be administered?

      Your Answer: Intravenous fluids

      Explanation:

      Patient is septic from pneumonia and has developed atrial fibrillation. Treatment should focus on resolving the sepsis with IV fluids and antibiotics, which may also resolve the AF. If AF persists, other treatment options may be considered.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      57.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man with a persistent chest infection visits the clinic for evaluation....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a persistent chest infection visits the clinic for evaluation. Despite two rounds of antibiotics, there has been no significant improvement. The medical team decides to conduct a chest x-ray and screening blood tests. When analyzing the blood tests, which of the following markers is typically not elevated in response to an acute infection?

      Your Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      A decrease in albumin levels is frequently observed after an acute phase response.

      Acute phase proteins are a group of proteins that are produced by the liver in response to inflammation or infection. These proteins are involved in various physiological processes such as immune response, blood clotting, and iron metabolism. Examples of acute phase proteins include CRP, procalcitonin, ferritin, fibrinogen, alpha-1 antitrypsin, caeruloplasmin, serum amyloid A, serum amyloid P component, haptoglobin, and complement.

      During the acute phase response, the liver decreases the production of other proteins known as negative acute phase proteins. These proteins include albumin, transthyretin, transferrin, retinol binding protein, and cortisol binding protein. The levels of acute phase proteins, particularly CRP, are commonly measured in acutely unwell patients. Elevated levels of CRP are indicative of inflammation or infection, and levels greater than 150 at 48 hours post-surgery suggest the development of complications.

      It is important to note that while acute phase proteins play a significant role in humans, some of these proteins, such as serum amyloid P component, have a more significant role in other mammals like mice. Overall, the production of acute phase proteins is a crucial part of the body’s response to inflammation or infection, and monitoring their levels can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27.9
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and a calculated QRISK-3 score of 13.8%. He has no significant past medical history and is of Pakistani background. What initial pharmacological management should be offered, in addition to lifestyle advice?

      Your Answer: A statin and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Correct Answer: A statin and a calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of left eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of left eye pain. He has been unable to wear his contact lenses for the past day due to the severity of the pain. He describes the pain as intense and wonders if there is something lodged in his eye. Upon examination, diffuse hyperemia is observed in the left eye. The left cornea appears hazy, and there is a hypopyon present. Pupillary reaction is normal, but visual acuity is reduced on the left side, and the patient experiences some photophobia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Correct Answer: Keratitis

      Explanation:

      A hypopyon in anterior uveitis can be seen, but a normal pupillary reaction and contact lens use suggest a diagnosis of keratitis.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 33-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute chest pain described...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute chest pain described as tearing in nature. Upon clinical examination, a diastolic murmur consistent with aortic regurgitation is detected. Further investigation with chest computerised tomography (CT) confirms the presence of an ascending aortic dissection. The patient has a medical history of spontaneous pneumothorax and upward lens dislocation, but no significant family history. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ehlers–Danlos syndrome

      Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Genetic and Neurological Syndromes: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Marfan Syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Homocystinuria, Korsakoff Syndrome, and Loffler Syndrome are all genetic and neurological syndromes that affect individuals in different ways.

      Marfan Syndrome is caused by a mutation in the fibrillin gene, resulting in weakened elastic fibers and aortic dissection. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is characterized by fragile blood vessels, hyperelastic skin, and aneurysm formation. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive condition that causes downward lens dislocation, thrombotic episodes, osteoporosis, and intellectual disability. Korsakoff Syndrome occurs after Wernicke’s encephalopathy and results in the inability to acquire new memories. Finally, Loffler Syndrome is a transient respiratory condition caused by the allergic infiltration of the lungs by eosinophils.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these syndromes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3263.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of generalised swelling that has affected...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of generalised swelling that has affected his legs, arm and face, worsening over the last three weeks. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained: Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l), Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l), Creatinine (Cr) 190 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l), Urea 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 7–20 mmol/l), Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 IU/l (normal range: 29–33 IU/l), Bilirubin 16 μmol/l (normal range: < 20.5 μmol/l), Albumin 19 g/l (normal range: 35–50 g/l), Total Cholesterol 9.2 mmol/l (normal range: < 5.2 mmol/l), Prothrombin time (PT) 10 s. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Generalized Edema, Low Albumin, Renal Impairment, and Elevated Cholesterol

      The patient presents with generalized edema, low albumin, renal impairment, and elevated cholesterol. The most likely diagnosis is nephrotic syndrome. Anorexia nervosa is unlikely to cause such a low albumin level. Cirrhosis of the liver is less likely due to normal liver function tests and PT. Cystic fibrosis typically presents with bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption, or diabetes. Nephritic syndrome causes hypertension, haematuria, and oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      73.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about his recent private medical...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about his recent private medical screening test results. His liver function tests have shown abnormalities, but he has no symptoms and is generally healthy. He admits to consuming approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. The following are his blood test results:
      - Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
      - ALP: 100 u/l
      - ALT: 67 u/l
      - γGT: 110 u/l
      - Albumin: 40 g/l
      Other blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, and fasting glucose, were normal. An ultrasound of his liver revealed fatty changes. His liver screen showed:
      - Hepatitis B: Negative
      - Hepatitis C: Negative
      - Serum ferritin: 550 microg/L (normal range: 25-300 microg/L)
      - Immunoglobulins: Normal
      - Transferrin saturation: 41% (normal range: <50%)

      What is the most likely underlying cause of the elevated ferritin levels?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      The elevated ferritin level can be attributed to the patient’s excessive alcohol consumption, as the typical transferrin saturation rules out iron overload as a potential cause.

      Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body

      Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it until it is needed in other parts of the body. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be produced in higher quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.

      There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of cases) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of cases). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (such as from repeated transfusions). To determine whether iron overload is present, the best test is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.

      On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can indicate a deficiency in iron, which can lead to anemia. When iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year old woman became pregnant unexpectedly. She had given birth to five...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old woman became pregnant unexpectedly. She had given birth to five healthy children in her 20s and 30s with her now 47-year-old husband. Chorionic villus biopsy and karyotype analysis revealed that she was carrying a fetus with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
      What is the most likely cause of the condition?

      Your Answer: The husband’s age

      Correct Answer: The mother’s age

      Explanation:

      Down syndrome is a genetic condition that is caused by three mechanisms. The most common cause is Trisomy 21, which occurs when there is a non-separation of the homologous chromosomes during meiosis. This risk increases with advancing maternal age, with a likelihood of 1 in 1500 at age 20 and 1 in 50 at age 45 or older. Translocation, where part of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome, accounts for about 4% of cases. Mosaicism, where only some cells carry the extra copy of chromosome 21, is the rarest type. Paternal age is not a significant factor, but if either parent is a translocation carrier, there is a 1 in 2 chance of passing it on to their offspring. A spontaneous mutation in the fetus is not a cause of Down syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual loss of hearing and ringing in her right ear for the past 4 weeks. Upon examination, her ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction is better than bone conduction on both sides, but Weber's test reveals that the sound is heard best in her left ear. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniere's disease

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old Arabic woman visits the GP clinic complaining of vision issues. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Arabic woman visits the GP clinic complaining of vision issues. She reports experiencing increasing haziness in both eyes for the past 2 years. Upon further inquiry, she discloses a history of recurrent tetany and seizures. During fundoscopy, you observe a lack of red reflex in both eyes. Additionally, both Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign are positive. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Her blood test results are as follows:
      HbA1c 40 mmol/mol
      What is the probable cause of her visual problem?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      The positive Chvostek and Trousseau signs, along with a history of tetany and convulsions, suggest that the patient is suffering from hypocalcaemia. This condition can lead to cataracts, which may explain the patient’s vision problems. It is unlikely that the cataracts are related to age, as the patient is still young. Hypercalcaemia is not a common cause of cataracts, and the patient is not taking steroids, which can also cause cataracts. Additionally, the patient’s normal HbA1c indicates that she does not have diabetes mellitus.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.5
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for a possible stroke. The stroke specialist has clinically diagnosed him with a POCI, indicating a posterior circulation infarct. Which specific area of the brain is affected by this type of stroke?

      Your Answer: The middle and anterior cerebral arteries

      Correct Answer: The vertebrobasilar arteries

      Explanation:

      A POCI (posterior circulation infarct) typically affects the vertebrobasilar arteries. In contrast, a TACI involves the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, a PACI affects the smaller arteries of anterior circulation, and a LACI involves the perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia.

      Stroke can be classified based on the initial symptoms using the Oxford Stroke Classification, also known as the Bamford Classification. The criteria assessed include unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm, and leg, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia.

      Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI) involve the middle and anterior cerebral arteries and present with all three criteria mentioned above. Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI) involve smaller arteries of the anterior circulation and present with two of the criteria. Lacunar infarcts (LACI) involve perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia and present with one of three symptoms: unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg, or all three; pure sensory stroke; or ataxic hemiparesis.

      Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI) involve vertebrobasilar arteries and present with one of three symptoms: cerebellar or brainstem syndromes, loss of consciousness, or isolated homonymous hemianopia. Other recognized patterns of stroke include lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery), also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy (e.g., Horner’s), and contralateral limb sensory loss. Weber’s syndrome presents with ipsilateral III palsy and contralateral weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man visits his general practice surgery, explaining that his depression has been cured after four months taking sertraline. He says he is ready to stop taking the medication immediately and is looking forward to being 'normal again'.
      What is the most appropriate management advice you can give this patient?

      Your Answer: He should be treated for at least six months

      Explanation:

      Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Depression

      It is recommended that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least six months after recovery to prevent relapse. Recurrent episodes warrant at least 12 months of treatment after recovery. Stopping antidepressant treatment immediately on recovery puts patients at a high risk of relapse, with 50% of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive symptoms. During the recovery phase, adults should receive the same dose used for the treatment of the acute phase. The medication should then be tapered off over a few weeks, according to the type of antidepressant used.

      Stopping medication prematurely, such as after one month or six weeks, would put the patient at a high risk of relapse. If the patient has been using antidepressants over a very short term and has found it maximally effective, they may be able to come off medication sooner than six months. However, this should be managed with caution and only recommended if there are other extenuating factors which would cause them to want to stop, such as side-effects or poor compliance. In this case, the patient has been using sertraline for four months already, has not indicated poor compliance, and there is no indication of issues with side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency department confused. He is unable to provide further history but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his chest is clear, heart sounds normal, and abdomen is soft with no tenderness. The initial blood tests reveal:
      - Na+ 134 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.7 mmol/l
      - Urea 7.8 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 104 µmol/l
      - Adjusted Ca2+ 3.5 mmol/l
      - Mg2+ 0.81 mmol/l

      What would be your initial treatment plan?

      Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Severe cases (>3.0 mmol/l) requiring admission are often caused by malignancy, as seen in this patient. Treatment involves obtaining IV access and conducting appropriate biochemistry tests to check for other electrolyte abnormalities. A chest x-ray and ECG should also be performed. The first intervention should be fluid resuscitation to replace the deficit and maintain hydration, which may require large volumes (3-4 litres in the first 24 hours). If hypercalcaemia persists, IV bisphosphonates like zoledronate or pamidronate can be administered. Specific anticancer therapies can be considered after this.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of vaginal discharge. She describes the discharge as having a fishy smell and a white colour. There is no history of abdominal pain or urinary symptoms and she denies pregnancy. She is sexually active with one regular partner of three years and has the Mirena coil in situ.
      On examination, her observations are within normal limits. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. The bimanual examination is unremarkable with no adnexal tenderness elicited. Her vaginal pH is 5.
      What is the next best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing

      Correct Answer: Vaginal swab for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis and Urinary Tract Infections

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is based on Amsel’s criteria, which includes thin, white-colored vaginal discharge, vaginal pH > 4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on microscopy. A vaginal swab for microscopy and culture is needed to confirm the diagnosis, especially if the patient meets two of the four criteria.

      On the other hand, urine microscopy and culture are used to diagnose urinary tract infections, which share some symptoms with sexually transmitted infections. However, the presence of vaginal discharge makes a sexually transmitted infection more likely, and alternative investigations are more specific.

      Blood culture and hysteroscopy and culture are not indicated in the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Blood culture is not usually necessary, while hysteroscopy and biopsy are invasive procedures used to diagnose endometrial disorders.

      Lastly, nucleic acid amplification testing is used to diagnose chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Although chlamydia may cause symptoms similar to bacterial vaginosis, the presence of increased vaginal pH makes bacterial vaginosis more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Electrical cardioversion

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adenosine

      Explanation:

      In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer: Lesions anywhere from the mouth to anus

      Correct Answer: Pseudopolyps

      Explanation:

      Pseudopolyps observed during endoscopy are indicative of ulcerative colitis.

      Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Generalised myositis is a known side effect of certain drugs. Among the options...

    Correct

    • Generalised myositis is a known side effect of certain drugs. Among the options listed below, which drug is most likely to cause this side effect?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Muscle Effects of Common Medications

      Many medications can have effects on muscles, including statins, metoclopramide, amitriptyline, cyclizine, and venlafaxine. Statins can increase the risk of muscle toxicity, especially in patients with a history of muscular disorders, high alcohol intake, renal impairment, or hypothyroidism. Metoclopramide is associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and acute dystonic reactions, but not generalised myositis. Amitriptyline and cyclizine are rarely associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and tremor, and amitriptyline may cause myalgia on drug withdrawal. Venlafaxine commonly causes hypertonia and tremor, and more rarely myoclonus, but not generalised myositis. It is important to be aware of these potential muscle effects when prescribing and monitoring these medications.

      Muscle Effects of Commonly Prescribed Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains on the right side of her face for the past two months. She reports having 10-20 episodes per day, each lasting for 30-60 seconds. She recently had a dental check-up, which was normal. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern...

    Correct

    • A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern that her uterus is small for this stage of pregnancy. Upon ultrasound, she is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. What could be a potential cause of oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Renal agenesis

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is a condition that occurs during pregnancy when there is a shortage of amniotic fluid. This can result in a smaller symphysiofundal height.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old man with difficult hypertension comes to the GP clinic for follow-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with difficult hypertension comes to the GP clinic for follow-up. His average blood pressure over the past two weeks has been 168/100 mmHg and today in the clinic it is 176/102 mmHg. He is currently taking a combination of telmisartan 80 mg and hydrochlorothiazide 25mg tablets, as well as amlodipine 10mg daily. The latest laboratory results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Add hydralazine

      Correct Answer: Add spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled moderate hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and thiazide diuretic, the recommended next step would be to add spironolactone if their potassium level is less than 4.5mmol/L. Atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line agent if the potassium level is over 4.5mmol/L, but spironolactone is preferred according to NICE guidelines. Hydralazine should not be used outside of specialist care, and indapamide is not the best option as the patient is already taking a thiazide diuretic. Prazosin is an alternative to spironolactone, but spironolactone is preferred given the lower potassium level.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite not getting the...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite not getting the MMR vaccine during the recent scare, he now wants to know if it's still possible to have her immunised due to the current measles outbreak. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Give separate measles vaccine

      Correct Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book, it is recommended to have a 3-month gap between doses for optimal response rate. However, if the child is over 10 years old, a 1-month gap is sufficient. In case of an emergency, such as an outbreak at the child’s school, younger children can have a shorter gap of 1 month.

      The MMR Vaccine: Information on Contraindications and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, there are some adverse effects that may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, some children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A middle-aged man is concerned that the lump he has discovered in his...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man is concerned that the lump he has discovered in his neck may be due to Hodgkin's disease. A routine work-up is completely negative, but he continues to worry about it.
      Which of the following is the most likely condition here?

      Your Answer: Delusional disorder-somatic type

      Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypochondriasis from Other Disorders

      Hypochondriasis is a condition characterized by persistent preoccupation with having a serious physical illness. However, it is important to differentiate it from other disorders with similar symptoms.

      Conversion disorder is a neurological condition that presents with loss of function without an organic cause. Delusional disorder-somatic type involves delusional thoughts about having a particular illness or physical problem. In somatisation disorder, patients present with medically unexplained symptoms and seek medical attention to find an explanation for them. Factitious disorder involves deliberately producing symptoms for attention as a patient.

      It is important to note that in hypochondriasis, the patient’s beliefs are not as fixed as they would be in delusional disorder-somatic type, and worry dominates the picture. In somatisation disorder, the emphasis is on the symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis, while in hypochondriasis, the patient puts emphasis on the presence of a specific illness. Factitious disorder involves deliberate production of symptoms, which is not present in hypochondriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman who has been brought in by the police under a section 135. The police had to obtain a warrant as part of the process. The patient is currently agitated and speaking incoherently about religious phrases. She has a documented history of severe depression.

      What powers does section 135 grant to the police in this situation?

      Your Answer: To bring in a person on a community treatment order

      Correct Answer: To bring a person with suspected mental health issues in from their property

      Explanation:

      If the police believe that someone requires a mental health assessment or treatment, they can request a section 135 to remove the individual from their property. The procedure involves an Approved Mental Health Practitioner (AMHP) presenting evidence at a Magistrate’s Court to obtain a warrant. This warrant permits the Police, an AMHP, and a registered medical practitioner to enter the premises and conduct an assessment or take the person to a safe location for evaluation.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      73.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of fever, headache, and dysphasia. He reports feeling generally unwell. On examination, he has a GCS of 14 with no peripheral focal neurology and normal pupillary reactions. Bibasal crepitations and an ejection systolic murmur are heard on auscultation. His abdomen is soft and nontender. A chest radiograph is unremarkable, but a CT brain scan reveals an intracranial abscess. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to aid in further diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bronchoscopy

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Distant abscesses can be caused by infective embolic plaques in patients with infective endocarditis, including brain abscesses. To aid in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis, an echocardiogram is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient, given their examination findings. While a CT of the chest and abdomen may be necessary if the underlying cause remains unknown, it is less important with a normal chest radiograph and abdominal examination. Bronchoscopy, lower limb imaging, and EEG are not currently necessary.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 43-year-old Nigerian woman comes to the clinic with complaints of heavy menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old Nigerian woman comes to the clinic with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic discomfort for the past 3 months. During the physical examination, a solid, non-painful abdominal mass is detected, which originates from the pelvis. The pelvic ultrasound confirms the presence of a sizable uterine fibroid. The medical team decides to perform a hysterectomy. What medication should be administered to prepare her for the surgery?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist e.g. Leuprolide

      Explanation:

      GnRH agonists can be effective in reducing the size of uterine fibroids, but their use is typically limited to short-term treatment. It is important to note that these agonists are primarily used to decrease the size of the uterus prior to surgery, as the risk of post-operative blood loss is directly related to the size of the uterus. Progesterone receptor inhibitors, on the other hand, do not have an impact on overall uterine size and are therefore not useful in preparing for surgery. However, they can be helpful in reducing the severity of fibroid-related bleeding. It is also important to avoid taking COCP 4-6 weeks prior to major surgery due to an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, and to avoid antiplatelet drugs such as Ibuprofen before surgery. While antifibrinolytics like tranexamic acid can be useful in reducing the severity of uterine bleeding, they are not helpful in preparing for surgery.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have severe aortic stenosis. Since he has no prior medical history, he undergoes an open aortic valve replacement and a mechanical valve is implanted. What is the most suitable medication for long-term anticoagulation after the surgery?

      Your Answer: Dalteparin

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old traveler, recently returned from Thailand, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old traveler, recently returned from Thailand, arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of gradual right scrotal pain, tenderness, and swelling that has been worsening for the past 6 days. The medical team suspects epididymo-orchitis. What is the recommended empirical treatment in case the causative organism is unknown?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly single dose, plus oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 10-14 days

      Explanation:

      For a suspected case of epididymo-orchitis in a high-risk patient for sexually transmitted infections (STI), such as this young businessman returning from Thailand, the recommended empirical treatment is ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly single dose, plus oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 10-14 days. This is because the likely organisms involved are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. If the clinical scenario suggests gram-negative organisms, as in the case of an older man with low risk of STI, ciprofloxacin 500mg twice daily for 10-14 days can be used as empirical treatment. However, amoxicillin, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are not suitable antibiotics to cover the possible organisms and are not recommended in the guidelines.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 48-year-old man comes back to the clinic for a blood pressure check...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man comes back to the clinic for a blood pressure check following an increase in his ramipril dosage. During the check, his blood pressure is recorded as 152/96 mmHg, and he reports getting similar readings on his home monitor. Which medication would be the most suitable to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a patient in this age group has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor (or angiotensin II receptor blocker), the next step is to consider adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, adding a calcium channel blocker would be the appropriate choice. Beta blockers are not recommended in the NICE guidelines for hypertension management. While a thiazide-like diuretic could also be an option, furosemide, a loop diuretic, is not suitable. It is important to note that adding another ACE inhibitor is not recommended since the patient is already taking one.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following statements about routine prenatal care is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about routine prenatal care is false?

      Your Answer: All women are offered a HIV test

      Correct Answer: The early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan should not be done at the same time

      Explanation:

      Nowadays, numerous facilities combine the early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan into a single procedure.

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced two unprovoked tonic-clonic seizures witnessed by her husband. CT scan of the brain reveals diffuse ischaemic changes in the white matter. The specialist recommends starting her on an anti-epileptic medication.
      What would be the most suitable anti-epileptic drug to prescribe for this patient who is also on warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Anti-Epileptic Drugs and Warfarin Interaction

      When prescribing anti-epileptic drugs to patients taking warfarin, it is important to consider potential drug interactions. Lamotrigine is a safe option as it has no effect on liver enzymes and does not interact significantly with warfarin. However, other anti-epileptic drugs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, primidone, and phenobarbital can affect warfarin metabolism and effectiveness. Phenytoin and warfarin have a complex interaction that may initially increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, then decrease it with continued phenytoin use. Warfarin also increases the level of phenytoin. Carbamazepine is a P450 enzyme inducer, which decreases the level and effect of warfarin. Phenobarbital and primidone are also enzyme inducers that decrease warfarin effectiveness. Sodium valproate, on the other hand, is a liver enzyme inhibitor. Therefore, when considering anti-epileptic drugs for patients taking warfarin, it is important to weigh the potential drug interactions and choose the appropriate medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.9
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  • Question 34 - A 27-year-old man complains of a sudden pain in the back of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man complains of a sudden pain in the back of his calf during a football game, causing him to limp off the field. Upon examination by the team doctor, he exhibits a positive Simmond's sign. What type of injury is he likely to have suffered?

      Your Answer: Posterior ankle impingement

      Correct Answer: Achilles tendon rupture

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences an audible ‘pop’ in their ankle, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, or is unable to continue playing a sport or running, an Achilles tendon rupture should be suspected. Posterior ankle impingement is characterized by pain during forced plantar flexion when jumping or kicking, and is most commonly seen in gymnasts, ballet dancers, and footballers. Navicular bone fractures, which are stress fractures, are frequently observed in athletes who engage in sports that involve sprinting and jumping. Athletes who have had multiple ankle sprains may experience peroneal tendon dislocation due to friction and inflammation of the tendon. Stress metatarsal fractures, also known as march fractures, are most commonly seen in soldiers, hikers, and hospital doctors who spend extended periods standing and walking.

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      66.6
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  • Question 35 - A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother with a 6-day history of fever, reduced feeding and increased irritability. His mother has also noticed this morning that his fingers and toes are swollen and tense and some of the skin is peeling. He is reluctant to play with toys or walk. On examination, he is pale, his lips are cracked and there are no rashes present. Ear, nose and throat (ENT) examinations reveal the presence of a red, swollen tongue he also has swollen, tender digits of his hands and feet.
      He is admitted to hospital and his full blood count (FBC) result is shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 88 g/l 100–135 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 3.8–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 150 × 109/l 150–400 × 1109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume 93 fl 85–105 fl
      Reticulocytes 6% 0.2–2%
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is a condition that causes inflammation in small and medium blood vessels, particularly in the coronary vessels. Children with this disease typically experience a high fever lasting more than five days, along with symptoms such as a strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips, rashes, peeling skin on the hands and feet, conjunctivitis, and swollen and painful hands and feet.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that can cause bone pain and swelling in children, as well as unexplained fever, lethargy, recurrent infections, headaches, petechiae or purpura, and splenomegaly. However, a high white blood cell count would be present in ALL, which would be absent in this patient. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia are also common in ALL.

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low levels of albumin and protein in the urine due to damage to the basement membrane of the renal glomerulus. Children with this condition typically experience swelling in the face, feet, abdomen, and genitals, but not in the fingers and toes as seen in this patient.

      Rheumatic fever is a reaction to a bacterial infection, usually caused by group A streptococcus. Symptoms may include fever, abdominal pain, carditis, Sydenham’s chorea, and a rash, but joint pain typically affects the ankles, knees, elbows, and wrists rather than the hands and feet.

      Sickle cell disease is an inherited condition that causes abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells, leading to blockages in small blood vessels and chronic anemia. It is most common in Black African and Black Caribbean populations. Symptoms may include jaundice, anemia, and acute dactylitis, and screening is recommended for high-risk ethnic groups. A diagnosis of hemolysis is supported by a high reticulocyte count and normocytic anemia on FBC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 36 - A 32-year old woman who is currently breastfeeding her 8-week-old baby girl presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year old woman who is currently breastfeeding her 8-week-old baby girl presents to the clinic with complaints of a painful right breast. During examination, her temperature is 38.5C, HR 110, the right breast appears significantly red and warm, and there is an area of fluctuance in the upper outer quadrant.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer: Breast abscess

      Explanation:

      Breast Mass Differential Diagnosis

      Breast abscesses typically present with localised breast inflammation, pain, and fever. Treatment involves antibiotics and/or incision and drainage. Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, but may present with changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lump. Fat necrosis is a benign inflammatory process that can result from trauma or surgery, and presents as a firm, painless mass. Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women aged <35 years, presenting as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass. Diffuse cystic mastopathy is characterised by cysts of varying sizes due to hormonal changes, but typically presents with multiple lumps and is not associated with inflammation. Clinical examination and biopsy may be needed to differentiate between these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      44.8
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  • Question 37 - A 12-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a glucose tolerance test following an overnight fast.
      Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time

      Correct Answer: A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Glucose Tolerance Test Results in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes

      Glucose tolerance tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. In insulin-dependent diabetes, the results of these tests can provide valuable information about the patient’s glucose metabolism. Here are some key points to consider when interpreting glucose tolerance test results in insulin-dependent diabetes:

      – A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test. This is in contrast to normal individuals, who typically have a sharper and earlier peak that returns to basal levels.
      – An ‘overshoot’ in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours: This phenomenon is seen in normal individuals but not in insulin-dependent diabetics.
      – A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time: This is unlikely in diabetic patients, who typically have high basal glucose levels.
      – A glucose concentration of 5.2 mmol/l at 4 hours: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test.
      – A low haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): If the patient has been suffering from diabetes for some time without treatment, the HbA1c would likely be elevated rather than low.

      Overall, glucose tolerance tests can provide valuable insights into the glucose metabolism of insulin-dependent diabetics. By understanding the nuances of these test results, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage this chronic condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 38 - A 39-year-old man with a psychiatric history visits his doctor with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man with a psychiatric history visits his doctor with a complaint of tremors. During the examination, the doctor observes a fine bilateral tremor in his hands that does not improve with intention. The patient's neurological examination is otherwise normal. Which of the medications he takes regularly is the probable cause of this side effect?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium is known to cause tremors, particularly a fine non-distractible rest tremor. This side effect is more common at higher doses and in cases of toxicity, but can still occur at treatment levels. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to manage acute anxiety and tremors, is unlikely to produce any motor effects from typical use. Mirtazapine, an antidepressant, can cause tremors but it is much less common than in other antidepressants. Olanzapine, an antipsychotic medication, can also cause tremors but they are usually coarse and affect the mouth and face. Based on the description of the tremor, it is more likely that lithium is the cause.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      50.2
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  • Question 39 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Digoxin + warfarin

      Correct Answer: Admit patient

      Explanation:

      Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19.2
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  • Question 40 - A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a physiological third stage of labor. She subsequently loses 700ml of blood and medical assistance is requested. An ABCDE assessment is conducted, and the patient is given warmed IV crystalloid fluids after obtaining IV access. The uterus is compressed to stimulate contractions, and a catheter is inserted, but the bleeding persists. The patient has a history of asthma but no known coagulopathy. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: IV tocolytics

      Correct Answer: IV oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The appropriate medical treatments for postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony are oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. In this scenario, the patient has experienced a blood loss of over 500 ml after delivery, indicating PPH as the likely cause, with uterine atony being the most probable reason. The first steps in managing PPH involve an ABCDE approach, including IV access, warm crystalloid administration, uterine fundus palpation, and catheterisation to prevent bladder distention. If these measures fail, medical therapy is initiated, starting with IV oxytocin. IM carboprost is not the correct choice as it requires senior approval and can worsen bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma. IV carboprost is also not recommended as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, and fever, and requires senior approval. IV tocolytics are not appropriate as they suppress uterine contractions, which would exacerbate the problem in this case. Therefore, agents that stimulate uterine contraction are given to manage PPH caused by uterine atony.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 41 - The organism that is becoming increasingly resistant to antimicrobial agents and is responsible...

    Correct

    • The organism that is becoming increasingly resistant to antimicrobial agents and is responsible for a high number of hospital-acquired infections is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Pathogens and Their Associated Infections

      Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by various pathogens, including viruses, bacteria, and fungi. The most common types of infections are bloodstream infection, pneumonia, urinary tract infection, and surgical site infection. Staphylococcus aureus is a prevalent pathogen, with approximately 33% of the general population being carriers and 2% carrying the antibiotic-resistant strain MRSA. Toxoplasma gondii can cause severe disease in fetuses, newborns, and immunocompromised patients. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of pneumonia and meningitis in children and the elderly, as well as septicaemia in HIV-infected individuals. Pneumocystis jiroveci is a rare cause of infection in the general population but can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised patients, especially those with AIDS. Listeria monocytogenes primarily affects newborns, elderly patients, and immunocompromised individuals. Understanding these common pathogens and their associated infections is crucial in preventing and treating hospital-acquired infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of schizophrenia is being seen by...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of schizophrenia is being seen by his psychiatrist. He was admitted to the psychiatry unit six months ago due to delusions that he was being tracked by spies. At the time of admission, he was taking quetiapine, but it was changed to aripiprazole 400 mg monthly depot. Recently, he has been expressing to his wife that he believes his food is poisoned. His wife thinks that his new medication is not effective. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue aripiprazole

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the appropriate choice for patients with schizophrenia who have not responded adequately to at least two antipsychotics. In this case, the patient has already tried quetiapine and aripiprazole without success, making clozapine a suitable option. However, it requires careful monitoring and titration. Continuing aripiprazole is not recommended as the patient has been on the highest dose for six months and is still experiencing delusional ideas. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that can be used for schizophrenia, but atypical antipsychotics are preferred due to fewer side effects. Lorazepam is not a long-term antipsychotic and is only useful for managing severe agitation in patients with schizophrenia.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 43 - Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals?

      Your Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and the presence of livedo reticularis skin rash. Meanwhile, tuberculosis is commonly associated with the skin condition lupus vulgaris.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 30-year-old woman with a family history of renal disease presents with gross...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a family history of renal disease presents with gross haematuria. She reports that her sister recently underwent a kidney transplant and that her mother passed away due to renal failure. During physical examination, a significant mass is palpated in the left lumbar region, and a smaller mass is felt in the right flank. Elevated levels of blood urea and serum creatinine are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)

      Correct Answer: Adult polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Common Kidney Disorders and their Clinical Presentations

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
      ADPKD is a progressive disorder characterized by cyst formation and enlargement in the kidney and other organs. Patients may experience pain in the abdomen, flank or back, and hypertension is a common early manifestation. Palpable, bilateral flank masses are present in advanced ADPKD.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)
      RCC is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults. It may remain clinically occult for most of its course, with only 10% of patients presenting with the classic triad of flank pain, haematuria, and unilateral palpable flank mass. RCC presents with hypercalcaemia manifestations in 5% of cases and with varicocele in 2% of men.

      Renal Calculi
      Renal calculi, or nephrolithiasis, classically present with sudden onset of severe pain originating in the flank and radiating inferiorly and anteriorly. On examination, there is dramatic costovertebral angle tenderness.

      Prostatic Carcinoma
      Most cases of prostate cancer are identified by screening in asymptomatic men. Symptoms include urinary complaints or retention, back pain, and haematuria. Findings in patients with advanced disease include bony tenderness, lower-extremity oedema or deep venous thrombosis, and an overdistended bladder due to outlet obstruction.

      Renal Amyloidosis
      Patients with renal amyloidosis typically present with proteinuria and/or hypertension, followed by progressive renal failure. Haematuria is not a feature.

      Clinical Presentations of Common Kidney Disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 45 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with persistent low mood. Despite undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with persistent low mood. Despite undergoing CBT in the past, he has not experienced any improvement and wishes to try medication. He has a medical history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking amlodipine and warfarin.

      Which antidepressant should be steered clear of in this patient?

      Your Answer: Trazodone

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking warfarin or heparin should avoid taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) due to their antiplatelet effect, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, citalopram is the appropriate choice. It is important to note that some tricyclic antidepressants and mirtazapine can also increase the INR, so caution is necessary when prescribing these medications. According to the Nice CKS guidelines on warfarin administration, trazodone may be the preferred antidepressant for these patients.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 46 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor for routine blood tests before starting a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor for routine blood tests before starting a statin medication. During the tests, his renal function is discovered to be impaired, and he is referred for further evaluation.
      Na+ 135 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 15 mmol/l
      Creatinine 152 µmol/l
      What sign would suggest that the man's condition is chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer: A normal parathyroid level

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease

      One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.

      In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      15.7
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  • Question 47 - A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit after experiencing increasing fatigue and general malaise for the past week following a recent febrile illness. Upon examination, she appears pale and has multiple petechiae and bruises over her trunk and upper and lower limbs. Blood tests reveal a Hb of 82 g/L (135-180), platelets of 29 * 109/L (150 - 400), and WBC of 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0). What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection

      Explanation:

      Pancytopenia may occur in patients with underlying haematological conditions who are infected with Parvovirus B19, which can also cause fever and rash.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 48 - A 52-year-old man on several medications develops bruising. Blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia.
    Which medication...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man on several medications develops bruising. Blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Medications and their potential to cause thrombocytopenia

      Thrombocytopenia is a condition where there is a low platelet count in the blood, which can lead to bleeding and bruising. Some medications have been known to cause immune-mediated, drug-induced thrombocytopenia. Ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is one such medication. It interacts with platelet membrane glycoprotein, resulting in the formation of drug-glycoprotein complexes that can trigger the production of antibodies. The mechanism behind this is not entirely clear. Paracetamol and bisoprolol have a low likelihood of causing thrombocytopenia, making them safer alternatives. Simvastatin also has a low risk of causing thrombocytopenia. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a potential side effect of bleeding but is not directly linked to causing thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with medications and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 70-year-old man is rushed to the hospital due to severe chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is rushed to the hospital due to severe chest pain and nausea. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4. Following angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention, his left anterior descending coronary artery is stented. The patient admits to avoiding doctors and not seeing his GP for more than two decades. He has been smoking 15 cigarettes daily since he was 18. What are the recommended medications for secondary prevention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin + prasugrel + lisinopril + bisoprolol + atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer: Facts and Controversies

      Prostate cancer is the second most common cancer in men in developed countries, with an estimated one in six men being diagnosed with it in their lifetime. However, there is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK due to the controversial nature of PSA testing. PSA tests can yield unreliable results and may lead to unnecessary treatment for slow-growing tumours that may never cause symptoms or shorten life. Although treating prostate cancer in its early stages can be beneficial, the potential side effects of treatment may cause men to delay treatment until it is absolutely necessary.

      The 5-year relative survival rates for prostate cancer vary depending on the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, with local or regional prostate cancer having a survival rate of over 99%, while distant disease has a survival rate of 29%. The Gleason grade, tumour volume, and presence of capsular penetration or margin positivity are important indicators of prognosis for prostate cancer.

      Prostate cancer is also the second most common cause of cancer death in men, accounting for 8% of cancer deaths. Advanced prostate cancer may not involve pain, but can result in a range of symptoms including weight loss, anorexia, bone pain, neurological deficits, and lower extremity pain and oedema.

      Overall, prostate cancer remains a complex and controversial disease, with ongoing debates surrounding screening and treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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Infectious Diseases (3/4) 75%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (4/8) 50%
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Genetics (1/2) 50%
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Psychiatry (1/6) 17%
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Reproductive Medicine (4/5) 80%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
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