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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He is up to date with all vaccinations which were offered as part of his childhood vaccination scheme. It is July. Which of the following vaccinations does he require in the first instance?

      Your Answer: Pneumococcus, meningococcus type B and C, Haemophilus type B

      Explanation:

      Acquired asplenia or hyposlenia can occur following splenectomy. Hyposplenism is used to describe reduced (‘hypo-‘) splenic functioning and is associated with increased risk of sepsis from polysaccharide encapsulated bacteria. In particular, patients are at risk from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and meningococcus. The risk is elevated as much as 350–fold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV...

    Correct

    • One of your colleagues shares with you the fact that he is HBV positive. He's a general surgeon in the local hospital and he's afraid that if people know he might lose his job. However, you try to convince him that it's important to inform occupational health but he explicitly refuses. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Inform your colleague's employing body

      Explanation:

      According to the updated GMC guidelines, patient safety is more important than anything else, thus the correct thing to do is inform your colleague’s employing body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?

      Your Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
      Parametric tests:
      Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
      Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlation

      Non-parametric tests:
      Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
      Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
      chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
      Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.

      The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
      This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81...

    Correct

    • The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81 kg, with a standard deviation of 12 kg. What is the standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The SEM is dependent on the variation in the population and the number of the extracted samples. A large variation in the population causes a large difference in the sample means, ultimately resulting in a larger SEM. However, as more samples are extracted from the population, the sample means move closer to the population mean, which results in a smaller SEM. In short, the SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. Standard error of the mean = standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
      The standard error of the mean is calculated by the standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      = 12 / square root (64) = 12 / 8 = 1.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with...

    Correct

    • A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with Crohn's disease. The objective of the study is to detect any differences between the average calcium levels in men compared to women. Previous studies have shown a normal distribution regarding calcium levels. Which of the the following tests would you most likely apply?

      Your Answer: Student's unpaired t-test

      Explanation:

      A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, comparing two independent samples from the same population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP =...

    Correct

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.

      Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Choose the best source of folic acid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the best source of folic acid:

      Your Answer: Milk

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Beef liver is one of the best sources of folic acid, amongst others like green vegetables and nuts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Where is secretin secreted from? ...

    Correct

    • Where is secretin secreted from?

      Your Answer: S cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Secretin is a peptide hormone produced in the S cells of the duodenum, which are located in the intestinal glands. In humans, the secretin peptide is encoded by the SCT gene.
      Secretin helps regulate the pH of the duodenum by
      1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and
      (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate from the ductal cells of the pancreas.
      G cells in the antrum of the stomach release gastrin
      I cells in upper small intestine release CCK
      D cells in the pancreas & stomach secrete somatostatin
      K cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide, an incretin, which also promotes triglyceride storage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by a high velocity cricket ball and lost consciousness immediately. Paramedics found him to have a Glasgow coma score of 15 but take him to the A&E for further investigation. His Glasgow coma score on examination in the A&E is 13 (M5, V4, E4) and he has anterograde and retrograde amnesia to recent events. The doctors arrange an urgent CT scan. Which clinical sign would be most concerning if present?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) is a complex brain modality that determines cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is the difference between arterial blood pressure (ABP), and ICP. Raised ICP reduces CPP and blood delivery to the brain. This jeopardizes cerebral function and organismal survival in many species. A massive rise in ICP is also known to produce an increase in ABP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities termed Cushing response. This mechanism is generally considered to be an agonal and terminal event occurring in extreme condition of brainstem ischaemia leading to a sympatho-adrenal response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Cholecystokinin is secreted from: ...

    Correct

    • Cholecystokinin is secreted from:

      Your Answer: I cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) was discovered in 1928 in jejunal extracts as a gallbladder contraction factor. It was later shown to be member of a peptide family, which are all ligands for the CCK1 and CCK2 receptors. CCK peptides are known to be synthetized in the small intestinal endocrine I-cells and cerebral neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?...

    Correct

    • Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?

      Your Answer: Lysosome

      Explanation:

      Lysosomal hydrolases are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and specifically transported through the Golgi apparatus to the trans-Golgi network, from which transport vesicles bud to deliver them to the endosomal/lysosomal compartment. The explanation of how the lysosomal enzymes are accurately recognized and selected over many other proteins in the trans-Golgi network relies on them being tagged with a unique marker: the mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) group, which is added exclusively to the N-linked oligosaccharides of lysosomal soluble hydrolases, as they pass through the cis-Golgi network. Generation of the M6P recognition marker depends on a reaction involving two different enzymes: UDP-N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphotransferase and α-N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphodiester α-N-acetylglucosaminidase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following cardiac tissue types has the highest conduction velocity?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following cardiac tissue types has the highest conduction velocity?

      Your Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      Nerve conduction velocity is an important aspect of nerve conduction studies. It is the speed at which an electrochemical impulse propagates down a neural pathway. Ultimately, conduction velocities are specific to each individual and depend largely on an axon’s diameter and the degree to which that axon is myelinated.
      The cardiac action potential is a brief change in voltage (membrane potential) across the cell membrane of heart cells. Conduction speed varies:
      Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec
      AV node conduction 0.05 m/sec
      Ventricular conduction Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec (this allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than usual. She has not attended the previous three annual check-ups and her blood glucose control has been poor. She has not been compliant with his medications. Blood pressure is 170/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. A blood test reveals her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 26mL/min. If a renal biopsy was to be performed in this patient, what would be the expected findings?

      Your Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has a poorly controlled T2DM with an underlying diabetic nephropathy. The histological findings are Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis. This is due to nonenzymatic glycosylation.

      Diabetic nephropathy is the chronic loss of kidney function occurring in those with diabetes mellitus. Protein loss in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli may become massive, and cause a low serum albumin with resulting generalized body swelling (edema) and result in the nephrotic syndrome. Likewise, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) may progressively fall from a normal of over 90 ml/min/1.73m2 to less than 15, at which point the patient is said to have end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). It usually is slowly progressive over years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The family of a 10-year-old boy was advised to take the boy to...

    Correct

    • The family of a 10-year-old boy was advised to take the boy to see an oncologist, for suspected lymphoma. The boy had lymphadenopathy on presentation. His mother says that he's had a fever, night sweats and has experienced weight loss. The boy underwent a lymph node biopsy at the oncologist which suggests Burkitt's lymphoma. Which oncogene are you expecting to see after molecular testing?

      Your Answer: c-MYC

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is a germinal centre B-cell-derived cancer that was instrumental in the identification of MYC as an important human oncogene more than three decades ago. Recently, new genomics technologies have uncovered several additional oncogenic mechanisms that cooperate with MYC to create this highly aggressive cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the...

    Correct

    • A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1,200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2,000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      95.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation of the kneecaps. Choose the dermatome most likely compromised:

      Your Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      L4 dermatome distribution includes the kneecaps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following best describes the main action of the polymerase...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following best describes the main action of the polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer: DNA amplification

      Explanation:

      Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method widely used in molecular biology to make several copies of a specific DNA segment. Using PCR, copies of DNA sequences are exponentially amplified to generate thousands to millions of more copies of that particular DNA segment.The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections. PCR is also extensively used in forensics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?

      Your Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels

      Explanation:

      The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
      increased B2-microglobulin
      decreased IL-2 production
      polyclonal B-cell activation
      decreased NK cell function
      reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On examination he has weakness of elbow extension, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension and distal interphalangeal joint flexion. All other movements and reflexes are normal. Sensation is normal apart from reduced pin-prick sensation over the medial aspect of the hand. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is performed due to suspicion of a nerve lesion. Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be found on the scan based on the clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Disc herniation between C6 and C7

      Correct Answer: Disc herniation between C7 and T1

      Explanation:

      The C8 nerve forms part of the radial and ulnar nerves via the brachial plexus, and therefore has motor and sensory function in the upper limb. It originates from the spinal column from below the cervical vertebra 7 (C7).
      The C8 nerve receives sensory afferents from the C8 dermatome. This consists of all the skin on the little finger, and continuing up slightly past the wrist on the palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand and forearm.
      The other options available correspond to the C6 or C7 roots and these are unaffected as evidenced by normal elbow flexion and thumb sensation (C6) and normal sensation over the middle finger (C7). Elbow extension is weak as it has roots from both C7 and C8 and so cannot be used alone to decide between the two levels clinically.
      The C8 nerve contributes to the motor innervation of many of the muscles in the trunk and upper limb. Its primary function is the flexion of the fingers, and this is used as the clinical test for C8 integrity, in conjunction with the finger jerk reflex.

      Trunk:
      – Pectoralis major – Medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1)
      – Pectoralis minor – Medial pectoral nerve (C5, C6, C7,C8, T1)
      – Latissimus dorsi – Thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
      Upper arm:
      – Triceps brachii – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
      Forearm
      – Flexor carpi ulnaris – Ulnar nerve (C7, C8, T1)
      – Palmaris longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Flexor digitorum superficialis – Median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor digitorum profundus – Median and Ulnar nerves (C8, T1)
      – Flexor pollicis longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Pronator quadratus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor carpi radialis brevis – Deep branch of the radial nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor digitorum – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor digiti minimi – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor carpi ulnaris – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Anconeus – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
      – Abductor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor pollicis brevis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor indicis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      Hand
      – Palmaris brevis – Superficial branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Dorsal interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Palmar interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Adductor pollicis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Lumbricals – Deep branch of ulnar, Digital branches of median nerve
      – Opponens pollicis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Abductor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Opponens digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Abductor digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor digiti minimi brevis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer: DNA is converted to RNA

      Correct Answer: RNA is converted to DNA

      Explanation:

      Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique combining reverse transcription of RNA into DNA and amplification of specific DNA targets using polymerase chain reaction. It is primarily used to measure the amount of a specific RNA. The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Choose the most important stimulator of the central chemoreceptors: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the most important stimulator of the central chemoreceptors:

      Your Answer: Decrease in pH

      Explanation:

      Central chemoreception refers to the detection of changes in CO2/H+ within the brain and the associated effects on breathing. In the conscious animal the response of ventilation to changes in the brain’s interstitial fluid (ISF) pH is very sensitive. Note that a small change in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pH from 7.30 to 7.25 is associated with a doubling of alveolar ventilation; it is a very sensitive reflex response. Note also that the relationship of alveolar ventilation to ISF pH is essentially the same for both types of stimulation, metabolic acid-base disorders and primary CO2 stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with pallor, lethargy and abdominal enlargement. His mother said she only noticed these symptoms two weeks ago but further questioning reveals that they have been progressively worsening over a longer period of time. The boy was born naturally following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Past and family histories are not significant and the family hasn't been on any vacations recently. However, the mother mentions a metabolic disorder present in the family history but couldn't remember the exact name. Clinical examination reveals generalised pallor, abdominal enlargement, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. The spleen is firm but not tender and there is no icterus or lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gaucher's disease

      Explanation:

      Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Choose the wrong statement regarding hypocalcaemia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the wrong statement regarding hypocalcaemia:

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval is seen

      Correct Answer: Chvostek's sign is more sensitive and specific than Trousseau's sign

      Explanation:

      Chvostek and Trousseau signs can be elicited in patients with hypocalcaemia. Chvostek sign is the twitching of the upper lip with tapping on the cheek 2 cm anterior to the earlobe, below the zygomatic process overlying the facial nerve. Trousseau sign (a more reliable sign present in 94% of hypokalaemic individuals and only 1% to 4% of healthy people) is the presence of carpopedal spasm observed following application of an inflated blood pressure cuff over systolic pressure for 3 minutes in hypokalaemic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Promotes platelet aggregation

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide, known as an endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), is biosynthesized endogenously from L-arginine, oxygen, and NADPH by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and is a signaling molecule in many physiological and pathological processes in humans.
      One of the main enzymatic targets of nitric oxide is guanylyl cyclase. The binding of nitric oxide to the haem region of the enzyme leads to activation, in the presence of iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both her elbows. The rash is red, is papulovesicular in nature, and looks like it has many small blisters. The dermatologist diagnoses her with dermatitis herpetiformis. Which HLA haplotype is this associated with?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Correct Answer: HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), or Duhring’s disease, is a chronic blistering skin condition,characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, it is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face)
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune condition associated with HLA-DR3.
      HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis. HLA-B5 is most commonly associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-DR4 is associated with both type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with several diseases, most commonly ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which is the formula to calculate the number needed to treat? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the formula to calculate the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding epidemiological measures is correct?

      Your Answer: Cross-sectional surveys can be used to estimate the prevalence of a condition in the population

      Explanation:

      The incidence rate is the number of new cases per population at risk in a given time period. For example, if a population initially contains 1,000 non-diseased persons and 28 develop a condition over two years of observation, the incidence proportion is 28 cases per 1,000 persons per two years, i.e. 2.8% per two years.
      Prevalence is the proportion of a particular population found to be affected by a medical condition (typically a disease or a risk factor such as smoking or seat-belt use). It is derived by comparing the number of people found to have the condition with the total number of people studied, and is usually expressed as a fraction, as a percentage, or as the number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people.
      Incidence should not be confused with prevalence, which is the proportion of cases in the population at a given time rather than rate of occurrence of new cases. Thus, incidence conveys information about the risk of contracting the disease, whereas prevalence indicates how widespread the disease is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A study's objective is to find the normal reference range for IgE levels...

    Correct

    • A study's objective is to find the normal reference range for IgE levels in the adult population. What percentage of individuals will have IgE levels higher than 2 standard deviations from the mean, assuming that the IgE levels follow a normal distribution?

      Your Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer: Is a measure of correlation between two variables

      Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      When statistically comparing data sets, researchers estimate the population of each sample and examine them to see whether they are identical. The standard error of the mean (SEM) – not the standard deviation (SD), which represents the variation in the sample – is used to estimate the population mean. Via this process, researchers conclude that the sample used in their studies appropriately represents the population within the error range specified by the pre-set significance level.
      The SEM is smaller than the SD, as the SEM is estimated usually with the SD divided by the square root of the sample size. For this reason, researchers are tempted to use the SEM when describing their samples. It is acceptable to use either the SEM or SD to compare two different groups if the sample sizes of the two groups are equal; however, the sample size must be stated in order to deliver accurate information. For example, when a population has a large amount of variation, the SD of an extracted sample from this population must be large. However, the SEM will be small if the sample size is deliberately increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Choose the correct statement regarding hyponatremia: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding hyponatremia:

      Your Answer: Hyperlipidaemia may cause pseudohyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      The Hyperlipidaemia Effect: Pseudohyponatremia in Pancreatic Cancer; Patients who have disorders of cholestasis commonly present with volume depletion due to vomiting and poor oral intake, which, in turn, often leads to hypovolemic hyponatremia. It is less well known that disorders of cholestasis, including tumours of the hepatobiliary system, can be accompanied by hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (23/30) 77%
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