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Question 1
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A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows: Na+: 122 mmol/L, K+: 3.4 mmol/L, Urea: 3.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 69 umol/l. During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?
Your Answer: Hypertonic saline
Explanation:Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man is investigated for visual loss and diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Given the mitochondrial inheritance of this condition, which one of the following relatives is most likely to be also affected?
Your Answer: Daughter
Correct Answer: Sister
Explanation:The human cell has two type of DNA: Nuclear DNA and Mitochondrial DNA (MtDNA). A MtDNA copy is passed down entirely unchanged, through the maternal line. Males cannot pass their MtDNA to their offspring although they inherit a copy of it from their mother. Mitochondrial inheritance therefore has the following characteristics:
– Inheritance is only via the maternal line
– All children of affected males will not inherit the disease
– All children of affected females will inherit it -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone?
Your Answer: Collecting ducts
Explanation:Vasopressin, also called antidiuretic hormone (ADH), regulates the tonicity of body fluids. It is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.. An incidental consequence of this renal reabsorption of water is concentrated urine and reduced urine volume. In high concentrations may also raise blood pressure by inducing moderate vasoconstriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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A 69-year-old woman is admitted with confusion. She's known to have a history of multiple myeloma. Blood exam reveals the following: Na+ = 147 mmol/l, K+ = 4.7 mmol/l, Urea = 14.2 mmol/l, Creatinine = 102 μmol/l, Adjusted calcium = 3.9 mmol/l. What is the single most appropriate management?
Your Answer: IV 0.9% saline
Explanation:NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
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A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a new rapid finger-prick blood test developed to help diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The new test was positive on 200 patients with DVT and on 100 patients without DVT. It was also negative on 20 patients with DVT and 680 without DVT. What is the specificity of the new test?
Your Answer: 680/780
Explanation:Specificity (negative in health)
The ability of a test to correctly classify an individual as disease- free is called the test′s specificity. [Table 2]Specificity = d / b+d
= d (true negative) / b+d (true negative + false positive)
= Probability of being test negative when disease absent.
Example: One hundred persons with normal angles (diagnosed by ′gold standard′: gonioscopy) are examined by peripheral angle chamber depth examination. Eighty-five persons had normal peripheral angle chamber depth [Table 3]. The specificity of the peripheral angle chamber depth examination to PACG is therefore –
85 / 100 = 85%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Question 7
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true?
Your Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes
Explanation:Interleukin 1 alpha and interleukin 1 beta (IL1 alpha and IL1 beta) are cytokines that participate in the regulation of immune responses, inflammatory reactions, and hematopoiesis. It is secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A study is developed to assess a new mandible advancement device designed to reduce snoring. A 10 point scale was used to assess the severity of snoring before and after applying of the device by the respective partner. The number of the people involved in the study was 50. What test would you apply in this particular study?
Your Answer: Unpaired Student's t-test
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:Steps required in performing the Wilcoxon signed rank test:
1 State the null hypothesis and, in particular, the hypothesized value for comparison
2 Rank all observations in increasing order of magnitude, ignoring their sign. Ignore any observations that are equal to the hypothesized value. If two observations have the same magnitude, regardless of sign, then they are given an average ranking
3 Allocate a sign (+ or -) to each observation according to whether it is greater or less than the hypothesized value (as in the sign test)
4 Calculate:
R+ = sum of all positive ranks
R- = sum of all negative ranks
R = smaller of R+ and R-
5 Calculate an appropriate P value What makes this test the most appropriate for this study is that the data is non-parametric, paired and comes from the same population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
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A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his right eye is experiencing visual problems. The ophthalmologist notes a constellation of symptoms resembling those of Marfan Syndrome. The patient's history reveals learning disabilities and a diagnosis of homocystinuria is suspected. What is the pathophysiology of homocystinuria?
Your Answer: Deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase
Explanation:Inherited metabolic disorders are often characterized by the lack of an essential enzyme and are currently treated by dietary restriction and other strategies to replace the substrates or products of the missing enzyme. Patients with homocystinuria lack the enzyme cystathionine β-synthase (CBS), and many of these individuals do not respond to current treatment protocols.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Correct
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A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He claims the pain is crushing in character. ECG reveals T wave inversion in II, III and AVF. Blood exams are as follows: Troponin T = 0.9 ng/ml. Which substance does troponin bind to?
Your Answer: Tropomyosin
Explanation:Troponin T is a 37 ku protein that binds to tropomyosin, thereby attaching the troponin complex to the thin filament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman experiences weakness of her left hand. Clinical examination reveals wasting of the hypothenar eminence and weakness of finger abduction and thumb adduction. The lesion is most probably located at:
Your Answer: Median nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Patients with compressive neuropathy of the ulnar nerve typically describe numbness and tingling of the ulnar-sided digits of the hand, classically in the small finger and ulnar aspect of the ring finger. Among the general population, symptoms usually begin intermittently and are often worse at night, particularly if the elbow is flexed while sleeping. As the disease progresses, paraesthesia may occur more frequently and during the daytime.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?
Your Answer: Low calcium diet
Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake
Explanation:NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?
Your Answer: myc
Explanation:Myc is a family of regulator genes and proto-oncogenes that code for transcription factors.
A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. When this gene mutates to cause a loss or reduction in its function, the cell can progress to cancer, usually in combination with other genetic changes. Tumor suppressor genes can be grouped into categories including caretaker genes, gatekeeper genes, and landscaper genes; the classification schemes are continually evolving.
Examples include:
Gene Associated cancers
p53 Common to many cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
APC Colorectal cancer
BRCA1 Breast and ovarian cancer
BRCA2 Breast and ovarian cancer
NF1 Neurofibromatosis
Rb Retinoblastoma
WT1 Wilm’s tumour -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Correct
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A 19-year-old lady with established anorexia nervosa is admitted with a BMI of 16. However, she gives the consent to be fed by a nasogastric tube. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances are you most likely to find?
Your Answer: Hypophosphataemia
Explanation:Refeeding syndrome can be defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally). These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphatemia. However, the syndrome is complex and may also feature abnormal sodium and fluid balance; changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism; thiamine deficiency; hypokalaemia; and hypomagnesaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to reduce femoral neck fractures in elderly nursing home patients. The study included 800 patients randomly selected with an average age of 82 years of age. The data was collected over a two year period and the patients were randomly put in the standard care group or the hip protector group. From the 400 patients assigned to the hip protector group, 10 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. From the 400 patients assigned to the standard care group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. What is the correct value regarding the absolute risk reduction?
Your Answer: 0.05
Correct Answer: 0.025
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. In this example, the ARR is 8 per cent (20 per cent – 12 per cent = 8 per cent). This means that, if 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes. Another way of expressing this is the number needed to treat (NNT). If 8 children out of 100 benefit from treatment, the NNT for one child to benefit is about 13 (100 ÷ 8 = 12.5). CER = 20 / 400 = 1 / 20 = 0.05, EER = 10 / 400 = 0.025, ARR =CER – EER = 0.025
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You want to compare a new oral hypoglycaemic drug with an existing treatment, which would also lower HbA1c. Which study design would you choose?
Your Answer: Placebo-controlled trial
Correct Answer: Superiority trial
Explanation:When the aim of the randomized controlled trial (RCT) is to show that one treatment is superior to another, a statistical test is employed and the trial (test) is called a superiority trial (test).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled. Sputum cultures reveal pneumonia and he receives treatment with erythromycin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Inhibit protein wall synthesis
Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. This means it stops the further growth of bacteria rather than directly destroying it. This is achieved by inhibiting protein synthesis. Erythromycin binds to the 23S ribosomal RNA molecule in the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This causes a blockage in the exiting of the peptide chain that is growing. Given that humans have 40S and 60S subunits, and do not have 50S subunits, erythromycin does not affect protein synthesis in human tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Correct
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A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils in patients with established ischaemic heart disease. The power of the study is equal to:
Your Answer: 1 - probability of making a type II error
Explanation:The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Correct
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A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in the past seven months presents with fever, pleuritic pain and productive cough. Chest x-ray shows lobar consolidation and the diagnosis of a fourth chest infection is established, after sputum culture reveals Haemophilus influenzae. The previous chest infections were due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. After a period of six weeks, a full blood count, urea, CRP, electrolytes and chest x-ray turn out as normal. What is the investigation you would choose next?
Your Answer: Serum immunoglobulins
Explanation:Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs due to a variety of underlying primary or secondary immunodeficient states, including HIV which is suspected in this case. The most commonly recognised clinical feature is recurrent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Correct
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A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and depression, presents with neck and right arm pain. She claims that the pain is present for two months and is triggered by flexing her neck. Clinical examination reveals sensory loss over the middle finger and palm of the hand without any obvious muscle atrophy or weakness. Which nerve root is most probably affected?
Your Answer: C7
Explanation:The most common cause of cervical radiculopathy is degenerative disease in the cervical spine. In 80–90% of patients with cervical radiculopathy, the C5/C6 or C6/C7 motion segments are affected by degenerative disease and the nearby C6 and/or C7 nerve roots are producing the symptoms. Patients with cervical radiculopathy complain of neck pain and radiating pain in the arm sometimes combined with sensory and motor disturbances in the arm and/or hand. These symptoms are accepted as being caused by the nerve root compression. Middle finger and palm of the hand are mostly rising the suspicion for C7 nerve root and median nerve involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Correct
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A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to the A&E. The results from the blood tests reveal Calcium = 1.62mmol/l and Albumin = 33g/l. The man is known to have a history of alcoholic liver disease. Which of the following is the best management regarding his calcium levels?
Your Answer: 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes
Explanation:Acute, symptomatic hypocalcaemia is treated with 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Correct
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Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk:
Your Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies
Explanation:Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group). The relative risk is mistaken by some, with the odds ratio and absolute risk. Relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without the exposure. Thus to calculate the relative risk, we must know the exposure status of all individuals (either exposed or not exposed). This implies that relative risk is only appropriate for cases where the exposure status and incidence of disease can be accurately determined such as prospective cohort studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Correct
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A study is developed to assess a new anti-hypertensive drug and two groups of patients are randomly chosen. The first group takes an established anti-hypertensive drug for 3 months and the second group receives the new drug, again for 3 months. To assess the efficacy of the new drug, blood pressure is measured before and after taking the drug in both groups of patients. After a period of 1 month off medication, the groups swap medication and blood pressure is measured again, finally the difference in blood pressure after receiving each drug is calculated. Which of the following significance tests would you apply to assess the results of the study?
Your Answer: Student's paired t-test
Explanation:A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, and they belong to the same patients, so a paired t test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of his mouth. Upon examination, angular cheilitis is diagnosed. Anamnesis reveals a history of excessive drinking and malnutrition. What is the most probable deficiency responsible for his condition?
Your Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency
Correct Answer: Vitamin B2 deficiency
Explanation:Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into glucose for energy. Riboflavin deficiency can cause fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, and depression. It can affect the skin by causing skin cracks, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth. Hyperaemia and oedema around throat, liver degeneration, and hair loss can also occur along with reproductive issues. Usually, people with riboflavin deficiency also have deficiencies of other nutrients. In most cases, riboflavin deficiency can be reversed unless it has caused anatomical changes such as cataracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A study was developed to assess a new oral antithrombotic drug on the chance of stroke in high-risk patients, compared to warfarin. The total number of patients receiving the new drug were 200 compared to 600 who were receiving warfarin. From the ones receiving the new drug, 10 patients had a stroke within 3 years, compared to 12 patients who were receiving warfarin and had a stroke. What is the relative risk of having a stroke within 3 years for patients receiving the new drug?
Your Answer: 0.66
Correct Answer: 2.5
Explanation:Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group)
Experimental event rate, EER = 10 / 200 = 0.05Control event rate, CER = 12 / 600 = 0.02
Therefore the relative risk = EER / CER = 0.05 / 0.02 = 2.5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Correct
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A 62year-old manpresents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive coronary artery disease on angiogram. Which of the following cell types is most implicated in the development of coronary artery plaques?
Your Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:An atheroma is an accumulation of degenerative material in the tunica intima (inner layer) of artery walls. The material consists of (mostly) macrophage cells, or debris, containing lipids (cholesterol and fatty acids), calcium and a variable amount of fibrous connective tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Correct
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Choose the correct statement regarding interferon:
Your Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor
Explanation:Type I interferons (IFNs) form a network of homologous cytokines that bind to a shared, heterodimeric cell surface receptor and engage signalling pathways that activate innate and adaptive immune responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). It is her fourth episode in the past two months and she's known to be a type 1 diabetes mellitus patient. The doctors suspects she's non-compliant with her treatment to keep her weight down. She often self-discharges after 24 hours. What is the single most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Have a chat after the ward round about why she thinks her control is so bad
Explanation:In many Western countries and health plans in the United States, patients have a primary care physician who acts as a formal gatekeeper for medical specialist care and thereby determines together with the patient whether or not a patient requires medical specialist care. Ideally in such systems, patients are treated in primary care if possible, and referred to medical specialist care if necessary. For the gatekeeper system to be effective, it is vital that adequate decisions are made about when and who to refer. But it is also important that referred patients comply with the referral by consulting a medical specialist. In this case, the GP should discuss with the patient the reasons why she cannot follow the treatment plan. In other words, the GP should detect why the patient is being non-compliant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 29
Correct
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A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?
Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 30
Correct
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A 42-year-old patient has been admitted with a very swollen and painful right knee. He was unable to walk on it so came into hospital. It is currently being treated as gout with non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. You notice he is of short stature, has shortened arms and legs and a flat nasal bridge. A mutation in which gene is responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Fibroblast growth factor receptor
Explanation:Achondroplasia is a common cause of dwarfism. It is caused by a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3). In normal development FGFR3 has a negative regulatory effect on bone growth. In achondroplasia, the mutated form of the receptor is constitutively active and this leads to severely shortened bones. The effect is genetically dominant, with one mutant copy of the FGFR3 gene being sufficient to cause achondroplasia, while two copies of the mutant gene are invariably fatal. A person with achondroplasia thus has a 50% chance of passing dwarfism to each of their offspring. People with achondroplasia can be born to parents that do not have the condition due to spontaneous mutation. It occurs as a sporadic mutation in approximately 80% of cases (associated with advanced paternal age) or it may be inherited as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder.
People with achondroplasia have short stature, with an average adult height of 131 centimeters (52 inches) for males and 123 centimeters (48 inches) for females. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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