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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are with a hiking group and have ascended from an elevation of 2800m to 3400 meters over the past two days. One of your group members is experiencing difficulty breathing while at rest and has developed a dry cough. The individual's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 150/92 mmHg
Pulse: 126 bpm
Respiration rate: 28 bpm
Oxygen saturations: 86% on air
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer to this individual?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Nifedipine is the preferred medication for treating high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE). When a patient shows signs of HAPE, the best course of action is to immediately descend to a lower altitude while receiving supplemental oxygen. However, if descent is not possible, nifedipine can be used to alleviate symptoms and assist with descent. Nifedipine works by reducing the pressure in the pulmonary artery. On the other hand, dexamethasone is the preferred medication for treating acute mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE).
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 9 month old male is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. They inform you that the patient has been slightly under the weather for the past couple of days with a runny nose, a slight fever, and an occasional dry cough. However, overnight, the cough has worsened and now sounds like a harsh barking cough.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Whooping cough
Correct Answer: Croup
Explanation:Croup is usually preceded by symptoms such as cough, runny nose, and nasal congestion. These symptoms typically occur 12 to 72 hours before the onset of a distinctive barking cough. The barking cough, which resembles the sound of a seal, is particularly severe at night. It is important to note that the cough may be preceded by prodromal upper respiratory tract symptoms, including cough, runny nose, and nasal congestion, within a timeframe of 12 to 72 hours.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 3
Correct
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A 37 year old male is brought into the emergency department with severe chest injuries following a car accident. FAST scanning shows the presence of around 100 ml of fluid in the pericardium. The patient's blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 92. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Transfer to theatre for thoracotomy
Explanation:For individuals with traumatic cardiac tamponade, thoracotomy is the recommended treatment. In the case of a trauma patient with a significant buildup of fluid around the heart and the potential for tamponade, it is advised to transfer stable patients to the operating room for thoracotomy instead of performing pericardiocentesis. Pericardiocentesis, when done correctly, is likely to be unsuccessful due to the presence of clotted blood in the pericardium. Additionally, performing pericardiocentesis would cause a delay in the thoracotomy procedure. If access to the operating room is not possible, pericardiocentesis may be considered as a temporary solution.
Further Reading:
Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.
Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.
Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.
It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 4
Correct
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A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They are worried because the child has had a high fever for the past 24 hours and has developed noisy breathing and a change in her voice in the past few hours. They inform you that the child has been refusing to drink fluids orally due to a sore throat for the past few hours as well. The parents mention that the child has never had a serious illness before. You observe that the child has not received any vaccinations as the parents have concerns about potential vaccine-related diseases later in life. During the assessment, the child is sitting upright, leaning forward on her arms, and drooling. You can hear audible stridor. The child's vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 38.9ºC
Pulse: 155 bpm
Respiration rate: 40 bpm
Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Epiglottitis
Explanation:Epiglottitis symptoms typically appear suddenly, usually within a day. This patient’s symptoms align with those of epiglottitis and his vaccination status puts him at a higher risk. Common clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, a sore throat, a change in voice (often described as a muffled or hot potato voice), painful swallowing, a specific positioning called tripod positioning, excessive drooling, and stridor.
Further Reading:
Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.
The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.
Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.
Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.
Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45 year old presents to the emergency department after a fall onto their outstretched left hand. An X-ray confirms a displaced fracture of the distal radius. Your consultant recommends reducing it under conscious sedation. What is the best description of conscious sedation?
Your Answer: Level of sedation where patient responds purposefully to verbal commands
Explanation:Conscious sedation involves a patient who can respond purposefully to verbal commands. It is different from deeper levels of sedation where the patient may only respond to painful stimuli or not respond at all. In conscious sedation, the patient can usually maintain their own airway and does not need assistance with breathing or cardiovascular support.
Further Reading:
Procedural sedation is commonly used by emergency department (ED) doctors to minimize pain and discomfort during procedures that may be painful or distressing for patients. Effective procedural sedation requires the administration of analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and amnesia. This is typically achieved through the use of a combination of short-acting analgesics and sedatives.
There are different levels of sedation, ranging from minimal sedation (anxiolysis) to general anesthesia. It is important for clinicians to understand the level of sedation being used and to be able to manage any unintended deeper levels of sedation that may occur. Deeper levels of sedation are similar to general anesthesia and require the same level of care and monitoring.
Various drugs can be used for procedural sedation, including propofol, midazolam, ketamine, and fentanyl. Each of these drugs has its own mechanism of action and side effects. Propofol is commonly used for sedation, amnesia, and induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA on the GABA A receptors. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is used for dissociative sedation. Fentanyl is a highly potent opioid used for analgesia and sedation.
The doses of these drugs for procedural sedation in the ED vary depending on the drug and the route of administration. It is important for clinicians to be familiar with the appropriate doses and onset and peak effect times for each drug.
Safe sedation requires certain requirements, including appropriate staffing levels, competencies of the sedating practitioner, location and facilities, and monitoring. The level of sedation being used determines the specific requirements for safe sedation.
After the procedure, patients should be monitored until they meet the criteria for safe discharge. This includes returning to their baseline level of consciousness, having vital signs within normal limits, and not experiencing compromised respiratory status. Pain and discomfort should also be addressed before discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 6
Correct
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You evaluate a 45-year-old man with a history of difficult-to-control hypertension. His initial diagnosis was made after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. He is currently taking Lisinopril 10 mg once daily and Amlodipine 10 mg once daily. Despite this treatment, his blood pressure today is 156/98. On examination, he appears normal and is otherwise in good health. A recent blood test shows the following results:
Sodium: 145 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
Potassium: 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
Urea: 6.3 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
Creatinine: 88 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary hyperaldosteronism, which is caused by either an adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome) or bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia. Conn’s syndrome is likely in a patient who has difficult-to-control hypertension, low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia), and elevated or high normal levels of sodium. If the aldosterone:renin ratio is raised (>30), it further suggests primary hyperaldosteronism. CT scanning can be used to differentiate between an adrenal adenoma and adrenal hyperplasia. Treatment for hyperaldosteronism caused by an adenoma typically involves 4-6 weeks of spironolactone therapy followed by surgical removal of the adenoma. Adrenal hyperplasia usually responds well to potassium-sparing diuretics alone, such as spironolactone or amiloride.
Renal artery stenosis could also be suspected in a case of resistant hypertension, but it would be expected to cause a decline in renal function when taking a full dose of an ACE inhibitor like ramipril. However, in this case, the patient’s renal function is completely normal.
Phaeochromocytoma is associated with symptoms such as headaches, palpitations, tremors, and excessive sweating. The hypertension in phaeochromocytoma tends to occur in episodes. Since these symptoms are absent in this patient, a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma is unlikely.
Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by various other clinical features, including weight gain, central obesity, a hump-like accumulation of fat on the back (buffalo hump), muscle wasting in the limbs, excessive hair growth (hirsutism), thinning of the skin, easy bruising, acne, and depression. Since this patient does not exhibit any of these features, Cushing’s syndrome is unlikely.
White coat syndrome is an unlikely diagnosis in this case because the initial diagnosis of hypertension was made based on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought in with a history of high temperatures and severe right-sided ear pain. She had a very restless night, but her pain suddenly improved this morning. Since she has improved, there has been noticeable purulent discharge coming from her right ear. On examination, you are unable to visualise the tympanic membrane due to the presence of profuse discharge.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate next management step for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Review patient again in 14 days
Explanation:This child has a past medical history consistent with acute purulent otitis media on the left side. The sudden improvement and discharge of pus from the ear strongly suggest a perforated tympanic membrane. It is not uncommon to be unable to see the tympanic membrane in these situations.
Initially, it is best to adopt a watchful waiting approach to tympanic membrane perforation. Spontaneous healing occurs in over 90% of patients, so only persistent cases should be referred for myringoplasty. There is no need for an urgent same-day referral in this case.
The use of topical corticosteroids and gentamicin is not recommended when there is a tympanic membrane perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She had initially improved after receiving fluids, but her condition has worsened in the past hour. She is now expressing discomfort due to a headache and is displaying irritability. She has started vomiting again, and the nursing staff has observed an increase in her blood pressure and a decrease in her heart rate.
What complication has developed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebral oedema
Explanation:Cerebral edema is the most significant complication of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), leading to death in many cases. It occurs in approximately 0.2-1% of DKA cases. The high blood glucose levels cause an osmolar gradient, resulting in the movement of water from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) space and a decrease in cell volume. When insulin and intravenous fluids are administered to correct the condition, the effective osmolarity decreases rapidly, causing a reversal of the fluid shift and the development of cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is associated with a higher mortality rate and poor neurological outcomes. To prevent its occurrence, it is important to slowly normalize osmolarity over a period of 48 hours, paying attention to glucose and sodium levels, as well as ensuring proper hydration. Monitoring the child for symptoms such as headache, recurrent vomiting, irritability, changes in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), abnormal slowing of heart rate, and increasing blood pressure is crucial.
If cerebral edema does occur, it should be treated with either a hypertonic (3%) saline solution at a dosage of 3 ml/kg or a mannitol infusion at a dosage of 250-500 mg/kg over a 20-minute period.
In addition to cerebral edema, there are other complications associated with DKA in children, including cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, and acute renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with neck pain after a car accident. After conducting a clinical examination and identifying a low-risk factor for cervical spine injury, you decide to order imaging for this patient. What type of imaging would you recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT cervical spine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, when it comes to imaging for cervical spine injury, CT is recommended as the primary modality for adults aged 16 and above, while MRI is recommended for children. This applies to patients who are either at high risk for cervical spine injury or are unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right.
Further Reading:
When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.
If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.
NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.
Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents with gradually worsening shortness of breath on exertion that has been ongoing for the past four weeks. The breathlessness is worse when lying flat, and he has noticed his ankles have become swollen. This morning he had a small amount of blood in his sputum. He is currently 32 weeks pregnant, and his pregnancy is progressing normally. On examination, you note that he has a tapping apex beat and a low-volume pulse. On auscultation, you note a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.
The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard best at the apex in the left lateral position during expiration using the bell of the stethoscope.
Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, with about two-thirds of patients being female. During pregnancy, the increase in plasma volume can lead to elevated left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures. This can exacerbate any symptoms related to mitral stenosis and potentially result in pulmonary edema, as seen in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of cold symptoms. He is coughing frequently, and his mother has noticed that he is wheezing. He is now having difficulty with feeding and appears fatigued. On examination, his respiratory rate is 60, and you can see flaring of the nostrils and chest wall retractions. Chest examination reveals bilateral fine crackles and high-pitched expiratory wheezing in both lung fields.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection that primarily affects infants. It typically occurs between the ages of 3-6 months and is most prevalent during the winter months from November to March. The main culprit behind bronchiolitis is the respiratory syncytial virus, accounting for about 70% of cases. However, other viruses like parainfluenza, influenza, adenovirus, coronavirus, and rhinovirus can also cause this infection.
The clinical presentation of bronchiolitis usually starts with symptoms resembling a common cold, which last for the first 2-3 days. Infants may experience poor feeding, rapid breathing (tachypnoea), nasal flaring, and grunting. Chest wall recessions, bilateral fine crepitations, and wheezing may also be observed. In severe cases, apnoea, a temporary cessation of breathing, can occur.
Bronchiolitis is a self-limiting illness, meaning it resolves on its own over time. Therefore, treatment mainly focuses on supportive care. However, infants with oxygen saturations below 92% may require oxygen administration. If an infant is unable to maintain oral intake or hydration, nasogastric feeding should be considered. Nasal suction is recommended to clear secretions in infants experiencing respiratory distress due to nasal blockage.
It is important to note that there is no evidence supporting the use of antivirals (such as ribavirin), antibiotics, beta 2 agonists, anticholinergics, or corticosteroids in the management of bronchiolitis. These interventions are not recommended for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. While examining his cranial nerves, you also note that his tongue is deviated to the right-hand side. CT and MRI head scans are undertaken, and he is discovered to have suffered a right-sided stroke. He is subsequently admitted under the stroke team.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial medullary syndrome
Explanation:Occlusion of branches of the anterior spinal artery leads to the development of the medial medullary syndrome. This condition is characterized by several distinct symptoms. Firstly, there is contralateral hemiplegia, which occurs due to damage to the pyramidal tracts. Additionally, there is contralateral loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch, resulting from damage to the medial lemniscus. Lastly, there is ipsilateral deviation and paralysis of the tongue, which is caused by damage to the hypoglossal nucleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given isoniazid as part of her medication. As a result of this treatment, the newborn develops a defect.
Which of the following defects is the most probable outcome due to the use of this medication during pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuropathy
Explanation:The standard drug regimen for tuberculosis is generally safe to use during pregnancy, with the exception of streptomycin which should be avoided. However, the use of isoniazid during pregnancy has been associated with potential risks such as liver damage in the mother and the possibility of neuropathy and seizures in the newborn.
Here is a list outlining some commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:
ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If taken during the second and third trimesters, these medications can lead to reduced blood flow, kidney failure, and a condition called oligohydramnios.
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity, resulting in hearing loss in the baby.
Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can increase the risk of first trimester abortions, delayed labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and a condition called fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When taken late in pregnancy, these medications can cause respiratory depression in the baby and lead to a withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers: If taken during the first trimester, these drugs can cause abnormalities in the fingers and toes. If taken during the second and third trimesters, they may result in fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine: This medication can increase the risk of hemorrhagic disease in the newborn and neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug in newborns can lead to a condition known as grey baby syndrome.
Corticosteroids: If taken during the first trimester, corticosteroids may increase the risk of orofacial clefts in the baby.
Danazol: When taken during the first trimester, this medication can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect the development of male sex organs in the baby.
Haloperidol: If taken during the first trimester, this medication may increase the risk of limb malformations. If taken during the third trimester, it can lead to an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.
Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman that is 42-weeks pregnant becomes suddenly very breathless shortly after going into labor. An ambulance is called, and she is ‘blue lighted’ into the resus area of your Emergency Department. She appears cyanosed and states that her heart feels like it is ‘beating very quickly’. Shortly after arriving in the Emergency Department, she becomes unresponsive. You notice a change in rhythm to ventricular fibrillation on the cardiac monitor and are unable to detect a pulse or any signs of life. She receives three stacked shocks and is managed according to the ALS algorithm, but initial attempts at resuscitation are unsuccessful.
Which of the following management options is most likely to improve his likelihood of successful resuscitation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peri-mortem Caesarean section
Explanation:Based on her presentation, the most probable cause of the cardiac arrest in this case is either a pulmonary embolism or amniotic fluid embolism.
When dealing with a cardiac arrest during pregnancy, there are several adjustments that need to be made compared to a regular cardiac arrest situation. These adjustments include:
– Ensuring the presence of an obstetrician
– Having a paediatrician or neonatologist available
– Manually displacing the uterus to the left in order to relieve caval compression
– Tilting the table to the left side, ideally at a 15-30 degree angle
– Performing early tracheal intubation to reduce the risk of aspiration (it is recommended to seek expert anaesthetic assistance for this)
– Initiating preparations for an emergency Caesarean sectionIn the event of a cardiac arrest, a perimortem Caesarean section should be performed within 5 minutes of the onset. This procedure is crucial as it relieves caval compression, improves the chances of successful resuscitation by increasing venous return during CPR, and maximizes the likelihood of the infant’s survival. The best survival rate for the infant occurs when delivery is achieved within 5 minutes of the mother’s cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
Select from the options below the one condition that is currently a reportable illness.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scarlet fever
Explanation:The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations currently require the reporting of certain diseases. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with swollen lips and a rash all over her body. According to her friend, she had recently consumed a sandwich. Anaphylaxis is suspected. You inquire about her medication use, and she presents a packet of propranolol. In addition to the usual treatment, which drug should be taken into consideration for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glucagon
Explanation:Glucagon may be an option for individuals experiencing anaphylaxis while taking beta blockers. However, it should not be chosen over Adrenaline as the primary treatment. Glucagon stimulates the production of cyclic AMP, which helps to increase heart contractility and heart rate, both of which are necessary during anaphylaxis. It is important to note that rapid administration of glucagon may lead to adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.
In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.
Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.
The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with a swollen, red, and hot left knee. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.6°C. The knee feels warm to touch and is stiff, making it impossible for the patient to move it.
Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, which occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint and causes pus formation. The clinical features of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty in moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and overall feeling of being unwell.
The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria can also be responsible. These include Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea (typically seen in sexually active young adults with macules or vesicles on the trunk), and Escherichia coli (common in intravenous drug users, the elderly, and seriously ill individuals).
According to the current recommendations by NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) and the BNF (British National Formulary), the treatment for septic arthritis involves using specific antibiotics. Flucloxacillin is the first-line choice, but if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is suspicion of MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus), vancomycin is recommended. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred antibiotic.
The suggested duration of treatment for septic arthritis is 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 36 year old man has arrived at the Emergency Department seeking treatment for a deep cut on his leg. He is by himself, and before examining the wound, he warns you to 'be careful' and reveals that he recently tested positive for HIV. He suspects that he contracted the virus after engaging in an extramarital affair. The nurse then approaches and asks if it is permissible for his wife to enter the room. He informs you that his wife is unaware of his diagnosis and he wishes to keep it that way. You observe that his wife appears to be in the early stages of pregnancy.
In addition to providing appropriate medical care for the wound, what steps should you take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If confirmed HIV infection, explain risks to his wife and unborn child and need for disclosure. If he refuses to consent to this, explain you have the right to do this against his wishes.
Explanation:This is a complex situation that presents both ethical and medico-legal challenges. While patients have a right to confidentiality, it is important to recognize that this right is not absolute and may not apply in every circumstance. There are certain situations where it is appropriate to breach confidentiality, such as when mandated by law or when there is a threat to public health. However, it is crucial to make every effort to persuade the patient against disclosure and to inform them of your intentions.
In this particular case, the patient has disclosed to you that they have recently been diagnosed with HIV, which they believe was contracted from a sexual encounter outside of their marriage. They have explicitly stated that they do not want you to inform their wife, who is in the early stages of pregnancy. Before taking any action, it is advisable to gather all the relevant facts and confirm the patient’s HIV diagnosis through their health records, including any other blood-borne viruses.
If the facts are indeed confirmed, it is important to continue efforts to persuade the patient of the necessity for their wife to be informed. If she has been exposed, she could greatly benefit from testing and starting antiretroviral therapy. Additionally, specialized care during early pregnancy could help prevent transmission of the virus to the unborn child. However, if the patient continues to refuse disclosure, you have the right to breach confidentiality, but it is crucial to inform the patient of your intentions beforehand. Seeking support from your defense organization is also recommended in such situations.
For further information, you may refer to the GMC Guidance on Confidentiality, specifically the section on disclosing information about serious communicable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38 year old male presents to the emergency department with a three day history of left sided otalgia. You note the patient takes methotrexate to control psoriatic arthritis. On examination you note the left tympanic membrane is bulging and appears cloudy centrally with peripheral erythema. The remaining examination of the head and neck reveals no other abnormalities. The patients observations are shown below.
Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
Pulse 92 bpm
Respiration rate 18 bpm
Temperature 37.9ºC
Oxygen saturations 98% on air
You advise the patient you feel he would benefit from antibiotics. The patient tells you he has no known drug allergies. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Amoxicillin is the preferred antibiotic for treating acute otitis media (AOM). It is the first choice for patients who do not have a penicillin allergy. According to NICE guidelines, a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin is recommended for treating this condition.
Further Reading:
Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.
Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.
Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.
Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.
The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of persistent hoarseness of her voice. She has also been bothered by a sore throat on and off but describes this as mild, and she has no other symptoms. On examination, she is afebrile, her chest is clear, and examination of her throat is unremarkable.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate next management step for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to an ENT specialist (for an appointment within 2 weeks)
Explanation:Laryngeal cancer should be suspected in individuals who experience prolonged and unexplained hoarseness. The majority of laryngeal cancers, about 60%, occur in the glottis, and the most common symptom is dysphonia. If the cancer is detected early, the chances of a cure are excellent, with a success rate of approximately 90%.
Other clinical signs of laryngeal cancer include difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), the presence of a lump in the neck, a persistent sore throat, ear pain, and a chronic cough.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) regarding the recognition and referral of suspected cancer, individuals who are over the age of 45 and present with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck should be considered for a suspected cancer referral pathway. This pathway aims to ensure that these individuals are seen by a specialist within two weeks for further evaluation.
For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl arrives at the emergency department with her friend following a fall from her skateboard. An X-ray reveals a dislocated shoulder. You inform the patient that the shoulder will require sedation for reduction. At what age is it generally assumed that a patient has the capacity to provide consent for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 16
Explanation:Patients who are 16 years old and above are presumed to have the ability to make decisions about their treatment.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is brought in to the Emergency Department by his wife. He is experiencing multiple episodes of vertigo, each lasting almost all day, before resolving spontaneously. He usually vomits during the attacks and complains of a sensation of fullness in his ears. He also states that his hearing has been worse than usual recently, and he is also experiencing symptoms of tinnitus.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meniere’s disease
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear due to changes in fluid volume within the vestibular labyrinth. This leads to the progressive distension of the labyrinth, known as endolymphatic hydrops, which causes damage to the vestibular system and the cochlea. The classic symptoms associated with Meniere’s disease are vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.
The main clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that typically last for 2-3 hours. These episodes are usually shorter than 24 hours in duration. Hearing loss, which is often gradual and affects only one ear, is also a common symptom. Tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears, is frequently associated with Meniere’s disease. Other symptoms may include a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ears, as well as nausea and vomiting. Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, may occur away from the side of the lesion. Meniere’s disease is more prevalent in individuals who suffer from migraines.
The management of Meniere’s disease aims to alleviate acute attacks, reduce their severity and frequency, and improve hearing while minimizing the impact of tinnitus. If Meniere’s disease is suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist.
During acute attacks, medications such as prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, and cyclizine can help reduce nausea and vertigo symptoms. If vomiting is present, buccal or intramuscular administration of these medications may be necessary. In severe cases, hospital admission may be required to prevent dehydration.
For long-term prevention, lifestyle measures can be beneficial. Avoiding caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, and tobacco is recommended. Excessive fatigue should also be avoided. Following a low-salt diet may be helpful. Betahistine, a medication that initially starts at a dose of 16 mg three times a day, can be used for prophylaxis to reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. Diuretics may also be beneficial, but they are typically not recommended for primary care use.
Overall, the management of Meniere’s disease involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication to control symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old dairy farmer presents with a flu-like illness that has been worsening for the past two weeks. He has high fevers, a pounding headache, and muscle aches. He has now also developed a dry cough, stomach pain, and diarrhea. During the examination, there are no notable chest signs, but a liver edge can be felt 4 cm below the costal margin.
Today, his blood tests show the following results:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 13.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
- White blood cell count (WCC): 21.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
- Neutrophils: 17.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
- Platelets: 567 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 187 mg/l (normal range: < 5 mg/l)
- Sodium (Na): 127 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K): 4.4 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine (Creat): 122 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
- Urea: 7.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
- Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 121 IU/l (normal range: 8-40 IU/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 296 IU/l (normal range: 30-200 IU/l)
- Bilirubin: 14 micromol/l (normal range: 3-17 micromol/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coxiella burnetii
Explanation:Q fever is a highly contagious infection caused by Coxiella burnetii, which can be transmitted from animals to humans. It is commonly observed as an occupational disease among individuals working in farming, slaughterhouses, and animal research. Approximately 50% of cases do not show any symptoms, while those who are affected often experience flu-like symptoms such as headache, fever, muscle pain, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.
In some cases, patients may develop an atypical pneumonia characterized by a dry cough and minimal chest signs. Q fever can also lead to hepatitis and enlargement of the liver (hepatomegaly), although jaundice is not commonly observed. Typical blood test results for Q fever include an elevated white cell count (30-40%), ALT/AST levels that are usually 2-3 times higher than normal, increased ALP levels (70%), reduced sodium levels (30%), and reactive thrombocytosis.
It is important to check patients for heart murmurs and signs of valve disease, as these conditions increase the risk of developing infective endocarditis. Treatment for Q fever typically involves a two-week course of doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. During the history-taking, the patient reveals a recent weight loss of approximately 10 kg over the past 6 months and the presence of hand tremors. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results confirm hyperthyroidism. What is the predominant cause of thyrotoxicosis in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma is an uncommon cause of hyperthyroidism in the United Kingdom, accounting for only a small number of cases.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68 year old has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a history of collapsing shortly after complaining of severe chest pain and difficulty breathing. It has been determined that the patient needs rapid sequence induction after pre-oxygenation. What is the best position for the patient to be in during pre-oxygenation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20-30 degrees head up tilt
Explanation:Several studies have shown that elevating the head by 20-30 degrees is beneficial for increasing oxygen levels compared to lying flat on the back.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man from Spain is found to have anemia. The results of his blood tests are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 9.3 g/dl (13-17 g/dl)
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 66 fl (80-100 fl)
Platelets: 219 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
Serum Ferritin: 169 mg/l (15-200 mg/l)
Serum Iron: 200 mg/l (30-230 mg/l)
Hemoglobin A2 (HbA2): 6%
Blood Film: Presence of target cells
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta thalassaemia trait
Explanation:The beta thalassaemias are a group of blood disorders that occur when there is an abnormality in the production of the globin chains. These disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In individuals with beta thalassaemia trait, there is a slight decrease in the production of beta-globin chains. This condition is most commonly found in people of Mediterranean and Asian descent.
The presentation of beta thalassaemia trait is characterized by a mild form of microcytic hypochromic anaemia. This type of anaemia can be challenging to differentiate from iron deficiency anaemia. However, it can be distinguished from iron deficiency anaemia by the presence of normal iron levels. Another useful marker for diagnosing beta thalassaemia trait is an elevated HbA2 level. A value greater than 3.5% is considered diagnostic for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 7-year-old girl who recently immigrated from South East Asia. Her parents have expressed concerns about her lack of energy and pale appearance. A complete blood count was conducted, and the results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 4.4 g/dl (normal range: 11.5-14 g/dl)
- Red blood cells (RBC): 2.6 x 1012/l (normal range: 4-5 x 1012/l)
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 59 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
- Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH): 21 pg (normal range: 25-35 pg)
- Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC): 27 g/dl (normal range: 30-37 g/dl)
- Platelets: 466 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
- White blood cell count (WCC): 7.4 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
The peripheral blood smear reveals evidence of anisocytosis and pencil cells. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:The complete blood count findings indicate a severe case of iron deficiency anemia. The patient’s red blood cells are significantly reduced in number, and there is a noticeable hypochromic microcytic anemia. When examining the peripheral blood smear, variations in shape (poikilocytosis) and size (anisocytosis) can be observed, which are typical of iron deficiency anemia. Pencil cells are commonly seen in this condition. Additionally, it is common for iron deficiency anemia to be accompanied by thrombocytosis, an increase in platelet count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35 year old epileptic is brought into the emergency department after experiencing a grand mal seizure. The patient is unable to close their mouth. You suspect temporomandibular joint dislocation. What is the initial imaging test recommended for diagnosing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orthopantomogram
Explanation:The recommended first-line diagnostic test for TMJ dislocation is an OPG. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine suggests that an OPG is the most effective initial imaging technique for diagnosing TMJ dislocation. However, mandibular series X-ray views and CT scans can also be used as alternative imaging methods.
Further Reading:
TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.
The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.
Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.
If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.
Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.
Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.
After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 55-year-old woman with chest discomfort and suspect a diagnosis of an acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
Which ONE statement about ACS is NOT TRUE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac enzymes are usually elevated in unstable angina
Explanation:Cardiac enzymes do not increase in unstable angina. However, if cardiac markers do rise, it is classified as a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). Both unstable angina and NSTEMI can have a normal ECG. An extended ventricular activation time indicates damage to the heart muscle. This occurs because infarcting myocardium conducts electrical impulses at a slower pace, resulting in a prolonged interval between the start of the QRS complex and the apex of the R wave. A positive troponin test indicates the presence of necrosis in cardiac myocytes.
Summary:
Marker | Initial Rise | Peak | Normal at
Creatine kinase | 4-8 hours | 18 hours 2-3 days | CK-MB = main cardiac isoenzyme
Myoglobin | 1-4 hours | 6-7 hours | 24 hours | Low specificity due to skeletal muscle damage
Troponin I | 3-12 hours | 24 hours | 3-10 days | Appears to be the most sensitive and specific
HFABP | 1-2 hours | 5-10 hours | 24 hours | HFABP = heart fatty acid binding protein
LDH | 10 hours | 24-48 hours | 14 days | Cardiac muscle mainly contains LDH -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient arrives after an acute overdose of digoxin. She is experiencing nausea and is expressing concerns about palpitations.
What is the indication for administering DigiFab to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular tachycardia
Explanation:Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).
DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.
The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:
Acute digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Potassium level >5 mmol/l
– Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
– Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
– Digoxin level >12 ng/mlChronic digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
– Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl presents with vomiting and diarrhea due to viral gastroenteritis. Upon examination, she is found to be mildly dehydrated. You suggest treating her with oral rehydration therapy (ORT).
Which SINGLE statement regarding the use of ORT in the management of gastroenteritis is FALSE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ORT is sugar-free
Explanation:Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) is a method used to prevent or treat dehydration by replacing fluids in the body. It is a less invasive approach compared to other methods and has been successful in reducing the mortality rate of diarrhea in developing nations.
ORT includes glucose, such as 90 mmol/L in Dioralyte, which helps improve the absorption of sodium and water in the intestines and prevents low blood sugar levels. It also contains essential mineral salts.
According to current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), for mild dehydration, it is recommended to administer 50 mL/kg of ORT over a period of 4 hours.
Once a child has been rehydrated, they should continue their normal daily fluid intake and consume an additional 200 ml of ORT after each loose stool. For infants, ORT should be given at 1-1.5 times their regular feeding volume, while adults should consume 200-400 mL of ORT after each loose stool.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the diagnosis and management of diarrhea and vomiting caused by gastroenteritis in children under 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 10 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after falling through the ice while playing on a frozen pond. The child was submerged up to his waist and it took his friends approximately 10-15 minutes to pull him out of the water completely. The child then spent an additional 10 minutes outside in wet clothes with an air temperature of -4ºC before an adult arrived and took him to the emergency department. A core temperature reading is taken and recorded as 29.6ºC. How would you best classify the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate hypothermia
Explanation:Moderate hypothermia is indicated by core temperatures ranging from 28-32ºC.
Further Reading:
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in depressed myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.
In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.
Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.
Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman of Asian descent comes to the Emergency Department with swelling of the face, lips, and tongue. Despite receiving IM adrenaline, her symptoms do not improve. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication.
Which of the following drugs is most likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the primary cause of drug-induced angioedema in the UK and USA, mainly due to their widespread use. The incidence of angioedema caused by ACE inhibitors ranges from 0.1 to 0.7% among recipients, with evidence suggesting a consistent and persistent risk each year. Interestingly, individuals of African descent are approximately five times more likely to experience this adverse reaction.
The most common symptoms observed in patients with ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema include swelling of the lips, tongue, or face. However, another manifestation of this condition is episodic abdominal pain caused by intestinal angioedema. Notably, urticaria (hives) and itching are absent in these cases.
The underlying mechanism of ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema appears to involve the activation of the complement system or other pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as prostaglandins and histamine. These substances trigger rapid dilation of blood vessels and the accumulation of fluid, leading to edema.
Although less frequently associated with angioedema, other medications that may cause this condition include angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), bupropion (e.g., Zyban and Wellbutrin), beta-lactam antibiotics, statins, and proton pump inhibitors.
Fortunately, most cases of drug-induced angioedema are mild and can be effectively managed by discontinuing the medication and prescribing oral antihistamines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
Which of the following conditions is associated with ulcerative colitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis
Explanation:Cholelithiasis is a common occurrence in individuals with Crohn’s disease. There are several other conditions that are known to be associated with Crohn’s disease. These include a higher prevalence in smokers, with approximately 50-60% of patients being smokers. Additionally, individuals with Crohn’s disease may experience aphthous ulcers, uveitis, episcleritis, seronegative spondyloarthropathies, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and osteoporosis. However, it is important to note that primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and chronic active hepatitis are associations commonly seen in ulcerative colitis rather than Crohn’s disease. Lastly, dermatitis herpetiformis is a condition that is associated with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection after finding eggs in their stool.
What is the most suitable treatment for this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Praziquantel
Explanation:Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.
Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.
The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents with a swollen and painful right big toe. He has a history of gout and states that this pain is similar to previous flare-ups. He has been taking allopurinol 200 mg daily for the past year and this is his second episode of acute gout during that time. He has no significant medical history and is not on any other medications. He has no known allergies.
What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence naproxen
Explanation:Allopurinol should not be started during an acute gout attack as it can make the attack last longer and even trigger another one. However, if a patient is already taking allopurinol, they should continue taking it and treat the acute attack with NSAIDs or colchicine as usual.
The first choice for treating acute gout attacks is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like naproxen. Colchicine can be used if NSAIDs are not suitable, for example, in patients with high blood pressure or a history of peptic ulcer disease. In this case, the patient has no reason to avoid NSAIDs, so naproxen would still be the preferred option.
Once the acute attack has subsided, it would be reasonable to gradually increase the dose of allopurinol, aiming for urate levels in the blood of less than 6 mg/dl (<360 µmol/l). Febuxostat (Uloric) is an alternative to allopurinol that can be used for long-term management of gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male with a history of COPD presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening shortness of breath. The patient's family informs you that during the previous episode, the patient required BiPAP. What is one of the criteria for initiating BiPAP in COPD patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient on maximal medical therapy
Explanation:Before starting BiPAP, it is important for patients with COPD to have already started maximum medical therapy. This includes receiving supplemental oxygen, using nebulizers with salbutamol and ipratropium, taking steroids and antibiotics if necessary, and potentially receiving IV bronchodilators. Additionally, patients should meet the blood gas requirements of having a pH level below 7.35 and a pCO2 level above 6 Kpa. Another criteria for initiating NIV is having a respiratory rate higher than 23.
Further Reading:
Mechanical ventilation is the use of artificial means to assist or replace spontaneous breathing. It can be invasive, involving instrumentation inside the trachea, or non-invasive, where there is no instrumentation of the trachea. Non-invasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) in the emergency department typically refers to the use of CPAP or BiPAP.
CPAP, or continuous positive airways pressure, involves delivering air or oxygen through a tight-fitting face mask to maintain a continuous positive pressure throughout the patient’s respiratory cycle. This helps maintain small airway patency, improves oxygenation, decreases airway resistance, and reduces the work of breathing. CPAP is mainly used for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
BiPAP, or biphasic positive airways pressure, also provides positive airway pressure but with variations during the respiratory cycle. The pressure is higher during inspiration than expiration, generating a tidal volume that assists ventilation. BiPAP is mainly indicated for type 2 respiratory failure in patients with COPD who are already on maximal medical therapy.
The pressure settings for CPAP typically start at 5 cmH2O and can be increased to a maximum of 15 cmH2O. For BiPAP, the starting pressure for expiratory pressure (EPAP) or positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is 3-5 cmH2O, while the starting pressure for inspiratory pressure (IPAP) is 10-15 cmH2O. These pressures can be titrated up if there is persisting hypoxia or acidosis.
In terms of lung protective ventilation, low tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg are used to prevent atelectasis and reduce the risk of lung injury. Inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) should be kept below 30 cm of water, and permissible hypercapnia may be allowed. However, there are contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as unacceptable levels of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia.
Overall, mechanical ventilation, whether invasive or non-invasive, is used in various respiratory and non-respiratory conditions to support or replace spontaneous breathing and improve oxygenation and ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male with a history of IV drug use presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell, lethargy, and having a fever for the past 2 days. The initial observations are as follows:
- Temperature: 38.6ºC
- Pulse rate: 124 bpm
- Blood pressure: 126/80 mmHg
- Respiration rate: 22 bpm
- Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
During chest auscultation, an audible murmur is detected, leading to a suspicion of infective endocarditis. What is the most likely organism causing this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus is the primary organism responsible for infective endocarditis in individuals who use intravenous drugs (IVDUs). In fact, it is not only the most common cause of infective endocarditis overall, but also specifically in IVDUs. Please refer to the additional notes for more detailed information.
Further Reading:
Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.
The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.
Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.
The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.
In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. As part of your treatment, a dose of adrenaline is given.
Which of the following is NOT a beta-adrenergic effect of adrenaline?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic vasoconstriction
Explanation:The effects of adrenaline on alpha-adrenergic receptors result in the narrowing of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressure in the coronary and cerebral arteries. On the other hand, the effects of adrenaline on beta-adrenergic receptors enhance the strength of the heart’s contractions and increase the heart rate, which can potentially improve blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these positive effects may be counteracted by the simultaneous increase in oxygen consumption by the heart, the occurrence of abnormal heart rhythms, reduced oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow patterns, impaired small blood vessel function, and worsened heart function following a cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman has been referred to the Emergency Department by her primary care physician after a review of her digoxin prescription. Her physician reports that her current digoxin levels are elevated.
At what digoxin level is toxicity typically observed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 nmol/L
Explanation:Digoxin is a medication used to manage heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It works by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase in the myocardium, which slows down the ventricular response and has a positive effect on the heart’s contraction. Although less commonly used nowadays, digoxin still plays a role in certain cases.
One advantage of digoxin is its long half-life, allowing for once-daily maintenance doses. However, it is important to monitor the dosage to ensure it is correct and to watch out for factors that may lead to toxicity, such as renal dysfunction and hypokalemia. Once a steady state has been achieved, regular monitoring of plasma digoxin concentrations is not necessary unless there are concerns.
In atrial fibrillation, the effectiveness of digoxin treatment is best assessed by monitoring the ventricular rate. The target range for plasma digoxin concentration is 1.0-1.5 nmol/L, although higher levels of up to 2 nmol/L may be needed in some cases. It is important to note that the plasma concentration alone cannot reliably indicate toxicity, but levels above 2 nmol/L significantly increase the risk. To manage hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity, a potassium-sparing diuretic or potassium supplementation may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a known history of lumbar radiculopathy causing neuropathic pain presents with an increase in his symptoms. He describes the pain as a severe burning sensation on the right side of his lower back and leg. You discuss his treatment options.
Which of the following pharmacological therapies is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the management of neuropathic pain? Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:The first line of treatment for neuropathic pain includes options such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. The dosage should be adjusted based on how the individual responds to the medication and their ability to tolerate it. If the initial treatment does not provide relief or is not well tolerated, one of the remaining three medications can be considered as an alternative option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a car accident. You evaluate the patient's risk of cervical spine injury using the Canadian C-spine rule. What is included in the assessment for the Canadian C-spine rule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ask patient to rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right
Explanation:The Canadian C-spine assessment includes evaluating for tenderness along the midline of the spine, checking for any abnormal sensations in the limbs, and assessing the ability to rotate the neck 45 degrees to the left and right. While a significant portion of the assessment relies on gathering information from the patient’s history, there are also physical examination components involved. These include testing for tenderness along the midline of the cervical spine, asking the patient to perform neck rotations, ensuring they are comfortable in a sitting position, and assessing for any sensory deficits in the limbs. It is important to note that any reported paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs can also be taken into consideration during the assessment.
Further Reading:
When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.
If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.
NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.
Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis, which refers to inflammation of the iris. It typically presents with symptoms such as a painful and red eye, sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. The photo above shows a possible indication of this condition, with the presence of pus in the front chamber of the eye, known as hypopyon.
Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause is identified. Other potential triggers include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can be associated with anterior uveitis.
It is worth noting that there is a strong link between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the mid-spine area and sacroiliitis. It is important to mention that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy has been brought to the hospital for evaluation of a severe respiratory infection. The medical team suspects a diagnosis of pertussis (whooping cough).
What is the MOST SUITABLE investigation for this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCR testing
Explanation:Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of about 7-21 days. This disease is highly contagious and can be transmitted to around 90% of close household contacts.
The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage is called the catarrhal stage, which resembles a mild respiratory infection with symptoms like low-grade fever and a runny nose. A cough may be present, but it is usually mild compared to the second stage. The catarrhal stage typically lasts for about a week.
The second stage is known as the paroxysmal stage. During this phase, the cough becomes more severe as the catarrhal symptoms start to subside. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound, followed by a series of rapid coughs. Vomiting may occur, and patients may develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Patients generally feel well between coughing spasms, and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over time. The later stages of this phase are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.
Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.
Public Health England (PHE) provides recommendations for testing whooping cough based on the patient’s age, time since onset of illness, and severity of symptoms. For infants under 12 months of age who are hospitalized, PCR testing is recommended. Non-hospitalized infants within two weeks of symptom onset should undergo culture testing of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Non-hospitalized infants presenting over two weeks after symptom onset should be tested for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels using serology.
For children over 12 months of age and adults, culture testing of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate is recommended within two weeks of symptom onset. Children aged 5 to 16 who have not received the vaccine within the last year and present over two weeks after symptom onset should undergo oral fluid testing for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels. Children under 5 or adults over
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the ECG in atrial fibrillation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ashman beats have a poor prognosis
Explanation:The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.
In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.
The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A middle-aged intravenous drug user with an unstable living situation complains of intense back pain, fever, and weakness in the left leg. The pain has been disrupting his sleep and making it hard for him to walk. During the examination, tenderness is observed in the lower lumbar spine, and there is weakness in left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
What is the probable organism responsible for these symptoms in this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in intravenous drug users and those with weakened immune systems. Gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in 1-2% of cases post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, MRI is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. CT scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves admission to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is important to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a CRP, to the lab. The choice of antibiotics depends on the specific situation. A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis may include IV flucloxacillin as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy, IV vancomycin if the infection was acquired in the hospital or there is a high risk of MRSA, and possibly IV gentamicin if there is a possibility of a Gram-negative infection. In cases where there is acute kidney injury and Gram-negative cover is required, IV piperacillin-tazobactam alone may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of dizziness. It started suddenly in the morning upon waking, and he is currently unable to get out of bed and is lying still. The dizziness symptoms are worsened by moving and he has vomited multiple times. He had a viral upper respiratory tract infection last week that has now resolved. He has never experienced dizziness before. On examination, he has an unsteady gait, slightly reduced hearing on the left, and prominent horizontal nystagmus to the right. The Hallpike maneuver was negative, and Weber's test lateralizes to the right.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Labyrinthitis
Explanation:Differentiating between the various causes of vertigo can be challenging, but there are several clues in the question that can help determine the most likely cause. If the patient has a history of sudden and severe vertigo following a viral infection, the diagnosis is likely to be vestibular neuritis or labyrinthitis. Labyrinthitis, which is characterized by hearing loss and tinnitus, is more likely in this case. Meniere’s disease, on the other hand, can also cause hearing loss and tinnitus along with vertigo, but it typically has a longer history of gradually worsening hearing loss and does not cause prolonged vertigo attacks.
Here are the key clinical features of the different causes of vertigo mentioned in the question:
Vestibular neuronitis:
– Infection of the 8th cranial nerve, often viral or bacterial
– Usually preceded by a sinus infection or upper respiratory tract infection
– Severe vertigo
– Vertigo is not related to position
– No hearing loss or tinnitus
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus (involuntary eye movement) away from the side of the lesion
– Episodes may recur over an 18-month periodLabyrinthitis:
– Caused by a viral infection
– Can affect the entire inner ear and 8th cranial nerve
– Severe vertigo
– Vertigo can be related to position
– Can be accompanied by sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus away from the side of the lesionBenign positional vertigo:
– Mostly idiopathic (unknown cause)
– Can be secondary to trauma or other inner ear disorders
– Provoked by head movement, rolling over, or upward gaze
– Brief episodes lasting less than 5 minutes
– No hearing loss or tinnitus
– Nausea is common, vomiting is rare
– Positive Hallpike maneuver (a diagnostic test)Meniere’s disease:
– Idiopathic (unknown cause)
– Sensorineural hearing loss
– Hearing loss usually gradually worsens and affects one ear
– Commonly associated with tinnitus
– Vertigo attacks typically last 2-3 hours
– Attacks of vertigo last less than 24 hours
– Sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear(s)
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female is brought into the emergency department with multiple injuries following a severe car accident. The patient was intubated at the scene due to low GCS and concerns about their ability to maintain their airway. You are checking the patient's ventilation and blood gases. The PaO2/FiO2 ratio is 140 mmHg with PEEP 7 cm H2O. What does this suggest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation:A PaO2/FiO2 ratio ranging from 100 mmHg to 200 mmHg indicates the presence of moderate Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS).
Further Reading:
ARDS is a severe form of lung injury that occurs in patients with a predisposing risk factor. It is characterized by the onset of respiratory symptoms within 7 days of a known clinical insult, bilateral opacities on chest X-ray, and respiratory failure that cannot be fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. Hypoxemia is also present, as indicated by a specific threshold of the PaO2/FiO2 ratio measured with a minimum requirement of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) ≥5 cm H2O. The severity of ARDS is classified based on the PaO2/FiO2 ratio, with mild, moderate, and severe categories.
Lung protective ventilation is a set of measures aimed at reducing lung damage that may occur as a result of mechanical ventilation. Mechanical ventilation can cause lung damage through various mechanisms, including high air pressure exerted on lung tissues (barotrauma), over distending the lung (volutrauma), repeated opening and closing of lung units (atelectrauma), and the release of inflammatory mediators that can induce lung injury (biotrauma). These mechanisms collectively contribute to ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI).
The key components of lung protective ventilation include using low tidal volumes (5-8 ml/kg), maintaining inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) below 30 cm of water, and allowing for permissible hypercapnia. However, there are some contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as an unacceptable level of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia. These factors need to be carefully considered when implementing lung protective ventilation strategies in patients with ARDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 49
Incorrect
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You are participating in a mountain expedition and have been airlifted to camp at an elevation of 2750m. As part of your responsibilities, you need to identify individuals displaying indications of acute mountain sickness (AMS). At what point would you anticipate the emergence of signs and symptoms of AMS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After 6-12 hours of being at altitude
Explanation:The symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS) typically appear within 6-12 hours of reaching an altitude above 2500 meters. On the other hand, the onset of high altitude cerebral edema (HACE) and high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) usually occurs after 2-4 days of being at high altitude.
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing his medications, you find out that he is taking warfarin as part of his treatment.
Which ONE of the following beverages should he avoid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:Warfarin has been found to heighten the likelihood of bleeding events when consumed alongside specific juices, such as cranberry juice and grapefruit juice. As a result, individuals who are taking warfarin should be cautioned against consuming these beverages. For more information on this topic, please refer to the BNF section on warfarin interactions and the interaction between warfarin and cranberry juice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease two years ago has experienced a sudden decline in her functioning and is experiencing significant issues with balance. She is at a high risk of falling and recently fractured her wrist. She complains of severe dryness in her eyes and struggles to look downwards. Her husband reports that she is currently feeling very down and has been displaying uncharacteristic episodes of anger. Additionally, you observe that her speech is slurred today.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
Explanation:The Parkinson-plus syndromes are a group of neurodegenerative disorders that share similar features with Parkinson’s disease but also have additional clinical characteristics that set them apart from idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (iPD). These syndromes include Multiple System Atrophy (MSA), Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP), Corticobasal degeneration (CBD), and Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB).
Multiple System Atrophy (MSA) is a less common condition than iPD and PSP. It is characterized by the loss of cells in multiple areas of the nervous system. MSA progresses rapidly, often leading to wheelchair dependence within 3-4 years of diagnosis. Some distinguishing features of MSA include autonomic dysfunction, bladder control problems, erectile dysfunction, blood pressure changes, early-onset balance problems, neck or facial dystonia, and a high-pitched voice.
To summarize the distinguishing features of the Parkinson-plus syndromes compared to iPD, the following table provides a comparison:
iPD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Typically starts at rest on one side of the body
– Levodopa response: Excellent response
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Late in the disease
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingMSA:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingPSP:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Less common, if present affects both sides
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Personality changes, depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1 year
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, difficulty in looking downwardsCBD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient presents with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active at the moment and has no other systemic health issues. She does not report any itching symptoms but has observed a strong fishy odor and a greyish-white appearance in the discharge.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common condition that affects up to a third of women during their childbearing years. It occurs when there is an overgrowth of bacteria, specifically Gardnerella vaginalis. This bacterium is anaerobic, meaning it thrives in environments without oxygen. As it multiplies, it disrupts the balance of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a rise in pH levels due to a decrease in lactic acid-producing lactobacilli. It’s important to note that BV is not a sexually transmitted infection.
The main symptom of BV is a greyish discharge with a distinct fishy odor. However, it’s worth mentioning that up to 50% of affected women may not experience any symptoms at all.
To diagnose BV, healthcare providers often use Amsel’s criteria. This involves looking for the presence of three out of four specific criteria: a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, a positive fishy smell when potassium hydroxide is added (known as the whiff test), the presence of clue cells on microscopy, and a thin, white, homogeneous discharge.
The primary treatment for BV is oral metronidazole, typically taken for 5-7 days. This medication has an initial cure rate of about 75%. It’s important to note that pregnant patients with BV require special attention, as the condition is associated with an increased risk of late miscarriage, early labor, and chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the fetal membranes). Therefore, prompt treatment is crucial for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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You evaluate a child with a limp and complaints of hip discomfort. An X-ray is conducted, and the diagnosis of Perthes' disease is confirmed.
Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A positive family history is present in 10-15% of cases
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is a hip disorder that occurs in childhood due to a disruption in the blood supply to the femoral head. This leads to a lack of blood flow, causing the bone to die. The condition typically affects children between the ages of 4 and 10, with boys being more commonly affected than girls. In about 10-15% of cases, there is a family history of the disease, and approximately 15% of patients have the condition in both hips.
The progression of Perthes’ disease can be seen through characteristic changes on X-rays, which can take between 2 and 4 years to fully heal. The earliest sign is an increased density of the epiphysis (the end of the bone) and widening of the medial joint space. As the disease progresses, the epiphysis may fragment and the head of the femur may flatten. Over time, the bone gradually heals, with the dense bone being reabsorbed and replaced by new bone. This process continues until growth stops, and the bone is remodeled.
Children with Perthes’ disease typically present with hip pain and a limp. The pain can vary in severity, and clinical signs may be minor, with only a slight restriction in hip joint movement.
The treatment of Perthes’ disease is a topic of debate. Around 50% of patients can achieve good results with conservative management alone, without the need for surgery. Surgical intervention, such as osteotomy (reshaping the bone), is usually reserved for cases where the disease progresses unfavorably or when conservative treatment fails. Potential complications of Perthes’ disease include permanent hip deformity and secondary arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 54
Incorrect
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You are requested to aid the team in resuscitating a 42-year-old male who has been admitted to the emergency department with various injuries, including a head injury resulting from a severe assault. The patient shows signs of increased intracranial pressure and has been intubated. The specialist registrar is contemplating the use of hyperventilation. What is the impact of hyperventilation on ICP, and what is its underlying mechanism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases blood pH which results in arterial vasoconstriction and reduced cerebral blood flow
Explanation:Hyperventilation leads to the constriction of blood vessels in the brain, which in turn reduces the flow and volume of blood in the brain, ultimately decreasing intracranial pressure (ICP). This is because hyperventilation lowers the levels of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in the blood, resulting in an increase in pH and causing the arteries in the brain to constrict and reduce blood flow. As a result, cerebral blood volume and ICP decrease. The effects of hyperventilation are immediate, but they gradually diminish over a period of 6-24 hours as the brain adjusts its bicarbonate levels to normalize pH. However, caution must be exercised when discontinuing hyperventilation after a prolonged period, as the sudden increase in PaCO2 can lead to a rapid rise in cerebral blood flow and a detrimental increase in ICP.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of confusion. An MRI scan is performed, which reveals a temporal lobe infarct.
Which SINGLE clinical feature would you NOT anticipate to observe during the examination of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Expressive dysphasia
Explanation:The temporal lobes play a crucial role in various functions such as processing visual and auditory information, storing memories, and helping us categorize objects. However, if this area of the brain is affected by a stroke, a space-occupying lesion, or trauma, it can lead to several issues. These include problems with understanding and producing language (known as receptive dysphasia), difficulty recognizing faces (prosopagnosia), an inability to categorize objects, difficulty understanding auditory information (auditory agnosia), and impaired perception of music.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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You are managing a 72 year old female who has presented to the emergency department with sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. The patient's pulse rate is recorded as 44 beats per minute. Your assessment focuses on identifying reversible causes of bradycardia. Which of the following metabolic conditions is commonly associated with reversible bradycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypermagnesemia
Explanation:Some reversible metabolic causes of bradycardia include hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia, and hypothermia. These conditions can lead to a slow heart rate and can be treated or reversed.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man develops hearing loss and renal impairment after inpatient treatment for urinary sepsis.
Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to have been administered?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Gentamicin is an antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It works by binding to the 30S subunit of the ribosome in bacteria, thereby preventing the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA and ultimately inhibiting the initiation of protein synthesis.
The two most significant side effects associated with gentamicin are hearing loss and reversible nephrotoxicity. These side effects are directly related to the dosage of the medication and are more commonly observed in elderly individuals.
Hearing loss occurs due to damage to the vestibular apparatus located in the inner ear. On the other hand, nephrotoxicity is caused by the inhibition of protein synthesis in renal cells. This inhibition leads to necrosis of the cells in the proximal convoluted tubule and results in a condition known as acute tubular necrosis.
In summary, gentamicin mechanism of action and side effects, such as hearing loss and reversible nephrotoxicity, are closely linked to its interaction with the bacterial ribosome and its impact on protein synthesis. These effects are particularly prevalent in the elderly population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 48 year old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of episodes of lightheadedness. She mentions that she is an avid jogger and noticed on her fitness tracker that her heart rate had dropped to 48 beats per minute. Which of the following characteristics would warrant drug intervention or transcutaneous pacing in a patient with bradycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myocardial ischaemia
Explanation:Indications for drug treatment or pacing in patients with bradycardia include shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, heart failure, and the presence of risk factors for asystole. If any of these adverse features are present, it is important to consider drug treatment or pacing. However, even if none of these adverse features are present, patients may still require drug treatment or pacing if they have risk factors for developing asystole, such as recent asystole, Mobitz II AV block, complete heart block with broad QRS, or a ventricular pause longer than 3 seconds.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old individual presents on a Tuesday morning after being bitten by a tick a few days ago while hiking in the woods. The tick was promptly removed and there have been no symptoms experienced since. After conducting some online research, the individual is extremely worried about the potential of acquiring Lyme disease.
What is the MOST suitable course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance only, no need to test or treat
Explanation:According to the current NICE guidance, it is not recommended to diagnose Lyme disease in individuals who do not show any symptoms, even if they have been bitten by a tick. Therefore, there is no need to conduct tests or provide treatment in such cases. It is important to reassure these patients that the majority of ticks do not transmit Lyme disease. However, it is advised that they remain vigilant for any potential symptoms and return for re-evaluation if necessary. The ‘Be Tick Aware’ campaign by Public Health England can serve as a helpful resource for further information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG, it is found that she has newly developed QT prolongation. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication and wonders if that could be the reason.
Which of the following medications is most likely to cause QT interval prolongation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.
Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.
The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.
If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.
A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.
Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:
Antimicrobials:
– Erythromycin
– Clarithromycin
– Moxifloxacin
– Fluconazole
– KetoconazoleAntiarrhythmics:
– Dronedarone
– Sotalol
– Quinidine
– Amiodarone
– FlecainideAntipsychotics:
– Risperidone
– Fluphenazine
– Haloperidol
– Pimozide
– Chlorpromazine
– Quetiapine
– ClozapineAntidepressants:
– Citalopram/escitalopram
– Amitriptyline
– Clomipramine
– Dosulepin
– Doxepin
– Imipramine
– LofepramineAntiemetics:
– Domperidone
– Droperidol
– Ondansetron/GranisetronOthers:
– Methadone
– Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A young woman with a previous case of urethritis has a urethral swab sent to the laboratory for examination. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is identified in the sample, confirming a diagnosis of gonorrhea.
Which ONE statement about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It adheres to the genitourinary epithelium via pili
Explanation:Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that causes the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. It is a Gram-negative diplococcus, meaning it appears as pairs of bacteria under a microscope. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is its ability to undergo antigenic variation, which means that recovering from an infection does not provide immunity and reinfection is possible.
When Neisseria gonorrhoeae infects the body, it first attaches to the genitourinary epithelium using pili, which are hair-like structures on the surface of the bacteria. It then invades the epithelial layer and triggers a local acute inflammatory response. In men, the clinical features of gonorrhoea often include urethritis (inflammation of the urethra) in about 80% of cases, dysuria (painful urination) in around 50% of cases, and mucopurulent discharge. Rectal infection may also occur, usually without symptoms, but it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is usually asymptomatic in men.
In women, the clinical features of gonorrhoea commonly include vaginal discharge in about 50% of cases, lower abdominal pain in around 25% of cases, dysuria in 10-15% of cases, and pelvic/lower abdominal tenderness in less than 5% of cases. Endocervical discharge and/or bleeding may also be present. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic but can cause anal discharge, and pharyngitis is usually asymptomatic in women as well.
Complications of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection can be serious and include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, epididymo-orchitis or prostatitis in men, arthritis, dermatitis, pericarditis and/or myocarditis, hepatitis, and meningitis.
To diagnose gonorrhoea, samples of pus from the urethra, cervix, rectum, or throat should be collected and promptly sent to the laboratory in specialized transport medium. Traditionally, diagnosis has been made using Gram-stain and culture techniques, but newer PCR testing methods are becoming more commonly used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recently developed back pain. After conducting a thorough examination, your findings raise significant alarm. You begin to consider the likelihood of a metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) diagnosis.
Among the following types of cancer, which one is most frequently associated with MSCC?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate cancer
Explanation:Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs when a tumor mass compresses the thecal sac and its components, leading to a spinal emergency. If the pressure on the spinal cord is not relieved promptly, it can result in irreversible loss of neurological function. The most crucial factor for predicting functional outcome is the patient’s neurological function before treatment. Therefore, delayed treatment can lead to permanent disability and a decrease in quality of life.
The most common cancers that cause MSCC are prostate, lung, breast, and myeloma. In approximately 10 to 20% of cancer patients, MSCC is the first noticeable symptom. It is important to consider MSCC in any patient with a history of cancer if they experience any of the following symptoms: severe or progressive lumbar back pain, nocturnal pain that disrupts sleep, localized spinal tenderness, radicular pain, or neurological symptoms.
Thoracic pain can also be an indicator of MSCC, but it can also be caused by an aortic aneurysm. In patients aged 60 or older with persistent back pain, myeloma should be considered. Similarly, in patients aged 60 or older with accompanying weight loss, pancreatic cancer should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
Which of the following is NOT currently a reportable illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV
Explanation:HIV is currently not considered a notifiable disease. The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations require the reporting of certain diseases, but HIV is not included in this list. The diseases that are currently considered notifiable include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever. If you want to learn more about notifiable diseases and the organisms that cause them, you can refer to the Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report resource.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 64
Incorrect
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You are managing a 62-year-old woman with a dorsally displaced fracture of the distal radius. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). Following the administration of the local anesthetic, you observe a change in the patient's skin color to a grayish-blue hue. What complication is most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methaemoglobinaemia
Explanation:In this case, the administration of the local anesthetic used for the Bier’s block may have caused the patient’s blood to convert hemoglobin into methemoglobin, resulting in the observed skin color change.
Further Reading:
Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.
Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.
During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.
There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is about to begin taking warfarin for the treatment of her atrial fibrillation. She is currently on multiple other medications.
Which ONE medication will counteract the effects of warfarin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers have the ability to hinder the effects of warfarin, leading to a decrease in INR levels. To remember the commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, the mnemonic PC BRASS can be utilized. Each letter in the mnemonic represents a specific inducer: P for Phenytoin, C for Carbamazepine, B for Barbiturates, R for Rifampicin, A for Alcohol (chronic ingestion), S for Sulphonylureas, and S for Smoking. These inducers can have an impact on the effectiveness of warfarin and should be taken into consideration when prescribing or using this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old is brought into the resuscitation bay by ambulance after being found unconscious at home. You observe that the patient has a medical history of hyperthyroidism and suspect thyroid storm after conducting a thorough assessment. Which of the following should NOT be administered immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lugol’s iodine
Explanation:When treating thyroid storm, it is important to administer certain drugs immediately. These include a beta blocker like propranolol or a calcium channel blocker if a beta blocker cannot be used. Corticosteroids like hydrocortisone or dexamethasone are also given. Additionally, antithyroid drugs like propylthiouracil are administered. However, it is crucial to wait at least one hour after giving the antithyroid drugs before administering iodine solution such as Lugol’s iodine. This is because iodine can worsen thyrotoxicosis by stimulating thyroid hormone synthesis. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, inhibits the normal interactions of iodine and peroxidase with thyroglobulin, which is why it is given first and allowed time to take effect.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female is brought into the emergency department with burns sustained in a house fire. You evaluate the patient for potential inhalation injury and the severity of the burns to the patient's limbs. In terms of the pathophysiology of burns, what is the central component of the burn known as according to the Jackson's Burn wound model?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zone of coagulation
Explanation:Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 68
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 30-year-old female patient with sickle-cell disease. She presents with dyspnea and pain in her lower extremities.
Which ONE statement about sickle-cell disease is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis is a recognised complication
Explanation:HbAS is known as Sickle cell trait, while HbSS is the genotype for Sickle-cell disease. Sickle-shaped red blood cells have a shorter lifespan of 10-20 days compared to the normal red blood cells that live for 90-120 days. Cholelithiasis, a complication of sickle-cell disease, occurs due to excessive bilirubin production caused by the breakdown of red blood cells. The inheritance pattern of sickle-cell disease is autosomal recessive. The disease is caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin, resulting in the substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the sixth position. Individuals with one normal hemoglobin gene and one sickle gene have the genotype HbAS, which is commonly referred to as Sickle Cell trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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You review a child with a history of autism who is currently experiencing severe communication difficulties. You attempt to engage in conversation with the child but find it challenging to comprehend their speech. Their language lacks coherence and seems to consist of random words and phrases.
Which ONE of the following communication disorders is the child displaying?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Word salad
Explanation:A word salad refers to a jumbled or incomprehensible combination of seemingly arbitrary words and phrases. This phenomenon is frequently observed in individuals with schizophrenia and dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his father with an itchy, red and watery right eye. On examination, there is mild erythema of palpebral conjunctiva, and follicles are visible on eversion of the eyelid. Lid oedema is evident, and you can also see a few petechial subconjunctival haemorrhages. The eye appears watery, and there is no purulent discharge. He has recently recovered from a mild upper respiratory tract infection. You make a diagnosis of viral conjunctivitis.
How long does Public Health England recommend that he should be excluded from school?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No school exclusion is necessary
Explanation:According to Public Health England, there is no recommended exclusion period for viral or bacterial conjunctivitis from school, nursery, or childminders, unless there is an outbreak or cluster of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She presents with a high fever, and you have concerns about the potential occurrence of neutropenic sepsis.
Which of the following statements about neutropenic sepsis is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dual therapy with Tazocin and an aminoglycoside is the recommended first-line treatment for confirmed neutropenic sepsis
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can occur when a person has low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. This condition can be life-threatening and is often caused by factors such as chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, infections, and bone marrow disorders. Mortality rates can be as high as 20% in adults.
To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, if a patient has a temperature higher than 38°C or other signs of significant sepsis, they may be diagnosed with neutropenic sepsis.
Cancer treatments, particularly chemotherapy, can weaken the bone marrow ability to fight off infections, making patients more susceptible to neutropenic sepsis. This risk can also be present with radiotherapy.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), adult patients with acute leukemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumors should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone antibiotic during periods of expected neutropenia.
When managing neutropenic sepsis, it is important to follow the UK Sepsis Trust Sepsis Six bundle, which includes specific actions to be taken within the first hour of recognizing sepsis.
For initial empiric antibiotic therapy in suspected cases of neutropenic sepsis, the NICE guidelines recommend using piperacillin with tazobactam as monotherapy. Aminoglycosides should not be used unless there are specific patient or local microbiological indications.
Reference:
NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman presents with symptoms that can be associated with sexually transmitted infection (STI). Following her investigations, she is diagnosed with the most common cause of STI in the UK.
Which of the following is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia
Explanation:Chlamydia trachomatis is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as chlamydia. This bacterium is typically either coccoid or rod-shaped in its appearance.
There are various serological variants of C. trachomatis, and each variant is associated with different patterns of disease. Specifically, types D-K are responsible for causing genitourinary infections.
In the United Kingdom, chlamydia is the most commonly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection (STI). It is also the leading preventable cause of infertility worldwide. Interestingly, around 50% of men infected with chlamydia do not experience any symptoms, while at least 70% of infected women are asymptomatic.
If left untreated, chlamydia can lead to various complications. In women, these complications may include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), ectopic pregnancy, and tubal infertility. Men, on the other hand, may experience complications such as proctitis, epididymitis, and epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and painful right eye. On examination, you note the presence of conjunctival erythema. There is also mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting evident in the eye. You make a diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis.
With reference to the current NICE guidance, which of the following should NOT be included in your management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely
Explanation:Here is a revised version of the guidance on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:
– It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment.
– However, if the condition is severe or if there is a need for rapid resolution, topical antibiotics may be prescribed. In some cases, a delayed treatment strategy may be appropriate, and the patient should be advised to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.
– There are several options for topical antibiotics, including Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops (to be applied every 2 hours for 2 days, then 4 times daily for 5 days) and Chloramphenicol 1% ointment (to be applied four times daily for 2 days, then twice daily for 5 days). Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment, to be applied twice daily for 7 days.
– It is important to note that there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders for isolated cases of bacterial conjunctivitis. However, some institutions may have their own exclusion policies.
– Provide the patient with written information and explain the red flags that indicate the need for an urgent review.
– Arrange a follow-up appointment to confirm the diagnosis and ensure that the symptoms have resolved.
– If the patient returns with ongoing symptoms, it may be necessary to send swabs for viral PCR (to test for adenovirus and Herpes simplex) and bacterial culture. Empirical topical antibiotics may also be prescribed if they have not been previously given.
– Consider referring the patient to ophthalmology if the symptoms persist for more than 7 to 10 days after initiating treatment.For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Infective Conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with bleeding gums and easy bruising. She also reports feeling extremely tired lately and has been experiencing recurrent chest infections for the past few months. She had mononucleosis approximately six months ago and believes her symptoms started after that. Her complete blood count today shows the following results:
Hemoglobin: 5.4 g/dl (11.5-14 g/dl)
Mean Corpuscular Volume: 89 fl (80-100 fl)
White Cell Count: 1.1 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
Platelets: 17 x 109/l (150-450 x 109/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia
Explanation:Aplastic anaemia is a rare and potentially life-threatening condition where the bone marrow fails to produce enough blood cells. This results in a decrease in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the body, a condition known as pancytopenia. The main cause of aplastic anaemia is damage to the bone marrow and the stem cells that reside there. This damage can be caused by various factors such as autoimmune disorders, certain medications like sulphonamide antibiotics and phenytoin, viral infections like EBV and parvovirus, chemotherapy, radiotherapy, or inherited conditions like Fanconi anaemia. Patients with aplastic anaemia typically experience symptoms such as anaemia, recurrent infections due to a low white blood cell count, and an increased tendency to bleed due to low platelet levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A child is brought in by their family with noticeable tremors, muscle contractions, muscle spasms, and slow movements. They have a significant history of mental health issues and are currently taking multiple medications.
Which of the following medications is most likely causing these side effects?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side effects refer to drug-induced movements that encompass acute dyskinesias and dystonic reactions, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, akinesia, akathisia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome. These side effects occur due to the blockade or depletion of dopamine in the basal ganglia, leading to a lack of dopamine that often resembles idiopathic disorders of the extrapyramidal system.
The primary culprits behind extrapyramidal side effects are the first-generation antipsychotics, which act as potent antagonists of the dopamine D2 receptor. Among these antipsychotics, haloperidol and fluphenazine are the two drugs most commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. On the other hand, second-generation antipsychotics like olanzapine have lower rates of adverse effects on the extrapyramidal system compared to their first-generation counterparts.
While less frequently, other medications can also contribute to extrapyramidal symptoms. These include certain antidepressants, lithium, various anticonvulsants, antiemetics, and, in rare cases, oral contraceptive agents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 76
Incorrect
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You are treating an 82-year-old patient who is unable to bear weight after a fall. X-ray results confirm a fractured neck of femur. You inform the patient that they will be referred for surgery. In terms of the blood supply to the femoral neck, which artery is responsible for supplying blood to this area?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deep femoral artery
Explanation:The femoral neck receives its blood supply from branches of the deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris artery. The deep femoral artery gives rise to the medial and lateral circumflex branches, which form a network of blood vessels around the femoral neck.
Further Reading:
Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.
There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.
Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.
Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.
In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition. Upon reviewing her medications, you discover that she is taking furosemide as part of her management.
Which ONE of the following drugs should be avoided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:When furosemide and SSRI drugs are prescribed together, there is a higher chance of developing hyponatraemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. Additionally, there is an increased risk of hypokalaemia, which can potentially lead to a dangerous heart rhythm disorder called torsades de pointes. It is important to note that co-prescribing furosemide with citalopram should be avoided due to these risks. For more information, you can refer to the section on furosemide interactions in the BNF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed spironolactone. Upon reviewing her blood test results, you observe a notable electrolyte imbalance.
Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to have occurred?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Spironolactone is a medication used to treat conditions such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, hepatic cirrhosis with ascites and edema, and Conn’s syndrome. It functions as a competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist, primarily working in the distal convoluted tubule. In this area, it hinders the reabsorption of sodium ions and enhances the reabsorption of potassium ions. Spironolactone is commonly known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.
The main side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, particularly when renal impairment is present. In severe cases, hyperkalemia can be life-threatening. Additionally, there is a notable occurrence of gastrointestinal disturbances, with nausea and vomiting being the most common. Women may experience menstrual disturbances, while men may develop gynecomastia, both of which are attributed to the antiandrogenic effects of spironolactone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 79
Incorrect
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You have advised an elderly patient to stop driving following their visit to the emergency department. A few days later, you spot the patient at a gas station near the hospital, filling up their car and driving away. What would be the most suitable course of action to take in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contact the patient and try to persuade them to stop driving
Explanation:According to the GMC, if a doctor becomes aware that a patient is driving despite being unfit to do so, they should do everything they can to convince the patient to stop driving. If these efforts are unsuccessful and the patient continues to drive, the GMC advises promptly contacting the DVLA or DVA and sharing any pertinent medical information with the medical adviser, ensuring confidentiality.
Further Reading:
Blackouts are a common occurrence in the emergency department and can have serious consequences if they happen while a person is driving. It is crucial for doctors in the ED to be familiar with the guidelines set by the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency) regarding driving restrictions for patients who have experienced a blackout.
The DVLA has specific rules for different types of conditions that may cause syncope (loss of consciousness). For group 1 license holders (car/motorcycle use), if a person has had a first unprovoked isolated seizure, they must refrain from driving for 6 months or 12 months if there is an underlying causative factor that may increase the risk. They must also notify the DVLA. For group 2 license holders (bus and heavy goods vehicles), the restrictions are more stringent, with a requirement of 12 months off driving for a first unprovoked isolated seizure and 5 years off driving if there is an underlying causative factor.
For epilepsy or multiple seizures, both group 1 and group 2 license holders must remain seizure-free for 12 months before their license can be considered. They must also notify the DVLA. In the case of a stroke or isolated transient ischemic attack (TIA), group 1 license holders need to refrain from driving for 1 month, while group 2 license holders must wait for 12 months before being re-licensed subject to medical evaluation. Multiple TIAs require 3 months off driving for both groups.
Isolated vasovagal syncope requires no driving restriction for group 1 license holders, but group 2 license holders must refrain from driving for 3 months. Both groups must notify the DVLA. If syncope is caused by a reversible and treated condition, group 1 license holders need 4 weeks off driving, while group 2 license holders require 3 months. In the case of an isolated syncopal episode with an unknown cause, group 1 license holders must refrain from driving for 6 months, while group 2 license holders will have their license refused or revoked for 12 months.
For patients who continue to drive against medical advice, the GMC (General Medical Council) has provided guidance on how doctors should manage the situation. Doctors should explain to the patient why they are not allowed to drive and inform them of their legal duty to notify the DVLA or DVA (Driver and Vehicle Agency in Northern Ireland). Doctors should also record the advice given to the patient in their medical record
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 80
Incorrect
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You review the X-ray of a 70 year old male who has fallen onto his outstretched right hand. The X-ray confirms a dorsally displaced fracture of the distal radius. You plan to reduce the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). Which local anesthetic is first choice for this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prilocaine
Explanation:According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), Prilocaine is the preferred choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. This is because Bupivacaine and lidocaine have a higher risk of causing harmful side effects.
Further Reading:
Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.
Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.
During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.
There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to sudden confusion, severe headache, and problems with coordination. Upon initial assessment at triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be significantly elevated at 224/126 mmHg. You suspect the presence of hypertensive encephalopathy. What is the primary treatment option for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:The primary treatment option for hypertensive encephalopathy, a condition characterized by sudden confusion, severe headache, and coordination problems due to significantly elevated blood pressure, is labetalol.
Further Reading:
A hypertensive emergency is characterized by a significant increase in blood pressure accompanied by acute or progressive damage to organs. While there is no specific blood pressure value that defines a hypertensive emergency, systolic blood pressure is typically above 180 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure is above 120 mmHg. The most common presentations of hypertensive emergencies include cerebral infarction, pulmonary edema, encephalopathy, and congestive cardiac failure. Less common presentations include intracranial hemorrhage, aortic dissection, and pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
The signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergencies can vary widely due to the potential dysfunction of every physiological system. Some common signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and/or vomiting, chest pain, arrhythmia, proteinuria, signs of acute kidney failure, epistaxis, dyspnea, dizziness, anxiety, confusion, paraesthesia or anesthesia, and blurred vision. Clinical assessment focuses on detecting acute or progressive damage to the cardiovascular, renal, and central nervous systems.
Investigations that are essential in evaluating hypertensive emergencies include U&Es (electrolyte levels), urinalysis, ECG, and CXR. Additional investigations may be considered depending on the suspected underlying cause, such as a CT head for encephalopathy or new onset confusion, CT thorax for suspected aortic dissection, and CT abdomen for suspected phaeochromocytoma. Plasma free metanephrines, urine total catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrine may be tested if phaeochromocytoma is suspected. Urine screening for cocaine and/or amphetamines may be appropriate in certain cases, as well as an endocrine screen for Cushing’s syndrome.
The management of hypertensive emergencies involves cautious reduction of blood pressure to avoid precipitating renal, cerebral, or coronary ischemia. Staged blood pressure reduction is typically the goal, with an initial reduction in mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 25% in the first hour. Further gradual reduction to a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg over the next 2 to 6 hours is recommended. Initial management involves treatment with intravenous antihypertensive agents in an intensive care setting with appropriate monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old carpenter comes in with a chief complaint of shoulder pain that worsens with repetitive overhead tasks. Additionally, he reports experiencing nighttime pain and difficulty in raising his arm. There is no history of any injuries.
Which muscle is most likely to be affected in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The supraspinatus tendon passes through a narrow space located between the underside of the acromion and acromioclavicular joint, as well as the head of the humerus. When the tendon becomes trapped in this space, it can cause pain and restrict movement, especially during overhead activities. This condition is known as subacromial impingement.
Impingement can occur due to various factors, such as thickening of the tendon caused by partial tears, inflammation, or degeneration. It can also be a result of the space narrowing due to osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint or the presence of bone spurs. Some individuals may have a naturally downward sloping acromion, which makes them more susceptible to impingement.
Certain professions that involve a significant amount of overhead work, like plasterers, builders, and decorators, are particularly prone to developing subacromial impingement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 83
Incorrect
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You are present at a trauma call for an elderly pedestrian who has been hit by a vehicle. She exhibits bruising on the right side of her chest. The primary survey has been conducted, and you have been tasked with conducting a secondary survey.
As per the ATLS guidelines, which of the following would be considered a potentially life-threatening chest injury that should be identified and addressed during the SECONDARY survey?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Traumatic aortic disruption
Explanation:The ATLS guidelines categorize chest injuries in trauma into two groups: life-threatening injuries that require immediate identification and treatment in the primary survey, and potentially life-threatening injuries that should be identified and treated in the secondary survey.
During the primary survey, the focus is on identifying and treating life-threatening thoracic injuries. These include airway obstruction, tracheobronchial tree injury, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive haemothorax, and cardiac tamponade. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in order to prevent further deterioration and potential fatality.
In the secondary survey, attention is given to potentially life-threatening injuries that may not be immediately apparent. These include simple pneumothorax, haemothorax, flail chest, pulmonary contusion, blunt cardiac injury, traumatic aortic disruption, traumatic diaphragmatic injury, and blunt oesophageal rupture. These injuries may not pose an immediate threat to life, but they still require identification and appropriate management to prevent complications and ensure optimal patient outcomes.
By dividing chest injuries into these two categories and addressing them in a systematic manner, healthcare providers can effectively prioritize and manage trauma patients, ultimately improving their chances of survival and recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing at home. The patient is observed to be hypotensive and drowsy upon arrival and is promptly transferred to the resuscitation bay. The patient's spouse informs you that the patient has been feeling sick with nausea and vomiting for the past 48 hours. It is important to note that the patient has a medical history of Addison's disease. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100mg IM hydrocortisone
Explanation:The first-line treatment for Addisonian (adrenal) crisis is hydrocortisone. This patient displays symptoms that indicate an Addisonian crisis, and the main components of their management involve administering hydrocortisone and providing intravenous fluids for resuscitation.
Further Reading:
Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.
The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.
Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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You assess a 60-year-old woman who has a confirmed diagnosis of aortic stenosis.
Which ONE statement accurately describes aortic stenosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 4th heart sound may be present
Explanation:Aortic stenosis can be identified through various clinical signs. These signs include a slow rising and low-volume pulse, as well as a narrow pulse pressure. The ejection systolic murmur, which is loudest in the aortic area (2nd intercostal space, close to the sternum), is another indicator. Additionally, a sustained apex beat and a thrill in the aortic area can be felt when the patient is sitting forward at the end of expiration. In some cases, a 4th heart sound may also be present. It is important to note that in severe cases of aortic stenosis, there may be reverse splitting of the second heart sound. However, fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound is typically associated with ASD and VSD. Lastly, the presence of an ejection click can help exclude supra- or subaortic stenosis, especially if the valve is pliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of a nosebleed. The patient informs you that they have been applying pressure to the soft part of their nose for 10 minutes. You request the patient to release the pressure for examination purposes, but upon doing so, bleeding commences from both nostrils, and the bleeding point remains unseen. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insert bilateral nasal tampons
Explanation:Nasal packing is recommended for cases of bilateral epistaxis (nosebleeds on both sides) and when it is difficult to locate the source of bleeding. If initial first aid measures, such as applying pressure to the soft part of the nose, do not stop the bleeding or if there is no visible bleeding point, nasal packing is necessary. In the UK, the most commonly used methods for nasal packing are Merocel nasal tampons and rapid-rhino inflatable nasal packs. If anterior nasal packing fails to control the bleeding, posterior nasal packing with a Foley catheter may be considered. Ideally, this procedure should be performed by an ENT surgeon, but if specialist input is not immediately available, a trained clinician in the emergency department can carry it out.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient with asthma comes to the Emergency Department for an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing their medications, you find out that they are taking theophylline as part of their asthma treatment.
Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin is known to inhibit the activity of cytochrome P450 enzymes, which can lead to increased levels of theophylline in the blood. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid prescribing ciprofloxacin and theophylline together. For more information on the interactions between these two medications, you can refer to the relevant section on theophylline interactions in the British National Formulary (BNF).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 88
Incorrect
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You assess a patient with a previous diagnosis of bipolar disorder. His family members are worried about his conduct.
What is ONE characteristic symptom of mania?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought disorder
Explanation:The flight of ideas observed in mania is considered a type of thought disorder. The primary clinical characteristics of mania include changes in mood, behavior, speech, and thought.
In terms of mood, individuals experiencing mania often exhibit an elated mood and a sense of euphoria. They may also display irritability and hostility instead of their usual amiability. Additionally, there is an increase in enthusiasm.
Regarding behavior, individuals in a manic state tend to be overactive and have heightened energy levels. They may lose their normal social inhibitions and engage in more risk-taking behaviors. This can also manifest as increased sexual promiscuity and libido, as well as an increased appetite.
In terms of speech, individuals with mania often speak in a pressured and rapid manner. Their conversations may be cheerful, and they may engage in rhyming or punning.
Lastly, in terms of thought, the flight of ideas is a prominent feature of mania and is classified as a thought disorder. Individuals may experience grandiose delusions and have an inflated sense of self-esteem. They may also struggle with poor attention and concentration.
Overall, mania is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect mood, behavior, speech, and thought.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 42 year old man is brought into the emergency department after a car accident. He has significant bruising on the right side of his chest. You suspect he may have a hemothorax. When would thoracotomy be considered as a treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prompt drainage of ≥1500 ml of blood following chest drain insertion
Explanation:Thoracotomy is recommended when there is a need for prompt drainage of at least 1500 ml of blood following the insertion of a chest drain. Additionally, it is indicated when there is a continuous blood loss of more than 200 ml per hour for a period of 2-4 hours or when there is a persistent requirement for blood transfusion.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 90
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 72-year-old in the emergency department who has come in with complaints of back pain. After conducting a thorough assessment, you observe that the patient possesses several risk factors for osteoporosis. You recommend that the patient undergo a formal evaluation to determine their risk of osteoporotic fractures. Which tool is considered the gold standard for this assessment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Qfracture
Explanation:QFracture is a highly regarded tool used to predict the risk of osteoporotic fractures and determine if a DXA bone assessment is necessary. It is considered the preferred and gold standard tool by NICE and SIGN. FRAX is another fracture risk assessment tool that is also used to determine the need for a DXA bone assessment. The Rockwood score and electronic frailty Index (eFI) are both frailty scores. The informant questionnaire on cognitive decline in the elderly is a tool used to assess cognitive decline in older individuals.
Further Reading:
Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.
Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.
The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.
There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.
Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.
Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.
Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with suspected methanol poisoning. You collect a blood gas sample. What acid-base disturbance is commonly associated with methanol poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised anion gap acidosis
Explanation:Methanol poisoning is linked to an increase in anion gap acidosis.
Further Reading:
Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.
To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.
Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.
The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.
The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.
The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.
Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.
The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with brief episodes of vertigo that worsen in the morning and are triggered by head movement and rolling over in bed. The episodes only last a few minutes. She experiences nausea during the attacks but has not vomited. There is no history of hearing loss or tinnitus.
What is the recommended treatment for the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Epley manoeuvre
Explanation:Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) occurs when there is dysfunction in the inner ear. This dysfunction causes the otoliths, which are located in the utricle, to become dislodged from their normal position and migrate into one of the semicircular canals over time. As a result, these detached otoliths continue to move even after head movement has stopped, leading to vertigo due to the conflicting sensation of ongoing movement with other sensory inputs.
While the majority of BPPV cases have no identifiable cause (idiopathic), approximately 40% of cases can be attributed to factors such as head injury, spontaneous labyrinthine degeneration, post-viral illness, middle ear surgery, or chronic middle ear disease.
The main clinical features of BPPV include symptoms that are provoked by head movement, rolling over, and upward gaze. These episodes are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are often worse in the mornings. Unlike other inner ear disorders, BPPV does not cause hearing loss or tinnitus. Nausea is a common symptom, while vomiting is rare. The Dix-Hallpike test can be used to confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
It is important to note that vestibular suppressant medications have not been proven to be beneficial in managing BPPV. These medications do not improve symptoms or reduce the duration of the disease.
The treatment of choice for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre. This maneuver aims to reposition the dislodged otoliths back into the utricles from the semicircular canals. A 2014 Cochrane review concluded that the Epley manoeuvre is a safe and effective treatment for BPPV, with a number needed to treat of 2-4.
Referral to an ENT specialist is recommended for patients with BPPV in the following situations: if the treating clinician is unable to perform or access the Epley manoeuvre, if the Epley manoeuvre has not been beneficial after repeated attempts (minimum two), if the patient has been symptomatic for more than 4 weeks, or if the patient has experienced more than 3 episodes of BPPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
You are asked to review a 7-year-old girl that is feeling sick in the Paediatric Emergency Department. You observe from her urea & electrolytes that her potassium is elevated at 6.2 mmol/l.
What is the most frequent cause of hyperkalaemia in children?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal failure
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by a high level of potassium in the blood, specifically a plasma potassium level greater than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be further classified into three categories based on the severity of the condition. Mild hyperkalaemia refers to a potassium level ranging from 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, while moderate hyperkalaemia is defined as a potassium level between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l. Severe hyperkalaemia is indicated by a potassium level exceeding 6.5 mmol/l.
The most common cause of hyperkalaemia in renal failure, which can occur either acutely or chronically. However, there are other factors that can contribute to this condition as well. These include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.
Overall, hyperkalaemia is a medical condition that requires attention and management, as it can have significant implications for the body’s normal functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male medical student presents with intense vomiting that began a couple of hours after consuming a microwaved Chinese takeout.
What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Bacillus cereus is a type of bacterium that is Gram-positive, rod-shaped, and beta-haemolytic. It is responsible for causing a condition known as ‘fried rice syndrome’.
The bacterium forms hardy spores that can withstand boiling temperatures and remain viable even when rice is left at room temperature for extended periods before being fried. When these spores germinate, they can lead to the development of the syndrome.
There are two types of strains associated with Bacillus cereus. The first type produces an emetic enterotoxin, which results in symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. These symptoms typically occur within 1 to 6 hours after consuming contaminated food and can be quite severe, lasting for about 6 to 24 hours.
The second type of strain produces a diarrheagenic enterotoxin. This strain is commonly associated with the ingestion of meat, vegetables, and dairy products. Symptoms of this type of infection include abdominal pain and vomiting, which usually begin 8 to 12 hours after ingestion and resolve within 12 to 24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where her car was hit by a truck. She has sustained severe facial injuries and shows signs of airway obstruction. Her cervical spine is immobilized. She has suffered significant midface trauma, and the anesthesiologist decides to secure a definitive airway by intubating the patient.
Which of the following does NOT indicate proper placement of the endotracheal tube?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of borborygmi in the epigastrium
Explanation:The presence of borborygmi in the epigastrium can indicate that the endotracheal tube (ETT) is incorrectly placed in the esophagus. There are several ways to verify the correct placement of the endotracheal tube (ETT).
One method is through direct visualization, where the ETT is observed passing through the vocal cords. Another method is by checking for fogging in the ETT, which can indicate proper placement. Auscultation of bilateral equal breath sounds is also a reliable way to confirm correct ETT placement.
Additionally, the absence of borborygmi in the epigastrium is a positive sign that the ETT is in the correct position. Capnography or using a CO2 detector can provide further confirmation of proper ETT placement. Finally, chest radiography can be used to visually assess the placement of the endotracheal tube.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He describes a sensation in which his train of thought is abruptly cut off completely. During the consultation, you observe that his speech is frequently interrupted by prolonged periods of silence, lasting for a minute or two.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought blocking
Explanation:Thought blocking is a distressing phenomenon where one’s train of thought is abruptly halted. This occurrence is observed in various psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia. It manifests as sudden pauses in a person’s speech, lasting from a few seconds to even a minute or more.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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You review a patient on the clinical decision unit (CDU) with a known diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease (AD).
Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the third most common cause of dementia in the elderly
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that is closely linked to Parkinson’s disease (PD). It is the third most common cause of dementia in older individuals, following Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
DLB is characterized by several clinical features, including the presence of Parkinsonism or co-existing PD, a gradual decline in cognitive function, fluctuations in cognition, alertness, and attention span, episodes of temporary loss of consciousness, recurrent falls, visual hallucinations, depression, and complex, systematized delusions. The level of cognitive impairment can vary from hour to hour and day to day.
Pathologically, DLB is marked by the formation of abnormal protein collections called Lewy bodies within the cytoplasm of neurons. These intracellular protein collections share similar structural characteristics with the classic Lewy bodies observed in Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department due to worsening confusion. A urinary tract infection is suspected as the probable cause. During assessment, you observe partial thickness loss of dermis in the sacral area, which appears as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed, without slough. What grade of pressure ulcer would this be classified as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 2
Explanation:In the UK, the classification of pressure ulcers is done using the international NPUAP-EPUAP system. This particular description refers to a pressure ulcer of grade 2. Please refer to the notes below for more information on the classification of pressure ulcers.
Further Reading:
Pressure ulcers, also known as bedsores, are localized damage to the skin and underlying tissues caused by pressure or pressure combined with shear force. They most commonly occur over bony prominences but can develop on any part of the body. Pressure ulcers develop due to five main factors: pressure, shear, friction, moisture, and circulation and tissue perfusion. Pressure is the most important factor, with intensity and duration playing key roles in the development of pressure ulcers.
Assessment of pressure ulcers in adults should be done using a validated classification tool. The International NPUAP-EPUAP pressure ulcer classification system is preferred in the UK. This system categorizes pressure ulcers into four stages. Stage I is characterized by non-blanchable erythema, which is non-blanchable redness of the skin. Stage II involves partial thickness loss of the dermis, presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed. Stage III is full thickness skin loss, with subcutaneous fat visible but no exposure of bone, tendon, or muscle. Stage IV is also full thickness tissue loss, but with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. In addition, some pressure ulcers may be classified as suspected deep tissue injury or unstageable.
Management of pressure ulcers involves general measures such as pressure reducing aids, repositioning, hygiene, cleansing, dressings, analgesia, and dietary optimization. It is also important to optimize or treat underlying health conditions, such as diabetes. For grade 3 and 4 ulcers, additional measures to consider include antibiotics and surgical debridement with or without skin flap coverage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man comes in after experiencing a seizure. His wife was present during the episode and reported that his eyes rolled upwards before he became rigid. He felt extremely tired afterwards. Following that, he had shaking movements in all four limbs for approximately 3 minutes and lost control of his bladder. He has no other medical conditions and is generally healthy.
What type of seizure did he have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised, tonic-clonic
Explanation:The patient’s history aligns with a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The observer of the incident provided a detailed description, which is crucial in diagnosing epilepsy.
Diagnosing epilepsy can sometimes rely solely on the patient’s history. It is common to ask the patient to maintain a seizure diary to identify patterns and potential triggers. Additionally, EEG tests, along with an MRI scan or CT scan of the brain, can provide further insight into the type and possible cause of the seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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You are managing a 42 year old female who has been brought into the emergency department with burns and suspected inhalation injury following a house fire. Due to concerns about the patient's ability to maintain their airway it is decided to proceed with intubation and ventilation. Your initial attempt to intubate the patient fails. What is the maximum number of intubation attempts that should be made?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:According to the guidelines of the Difficult Airway Society, it is recommended to limit intubation attempts to a maximum of three. However, if the first three attempts are unsuccessful, a more experienced colleague may make a fourth attempt. If all four attempts are unsuccessful, the intubation should be declared as a failure.
Further Reading:
A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.
Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.
If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.
Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman experiences excessive bleeding after a minor surgical procedure. Her blood test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 11.6 g/dl (12-15 g/dl)
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 80 fl (80-100 fl)
Platelets: 246 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
Bleeding time: 9 minutes (2-7 minutes)
Prothrombin time: 12 seconds (10-14 seconds)
Thrombin time: 16 seconds (15-19 seconds)
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT): 64 seconds (35-45 seconds)
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand disease
Explanation:Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is a common hereditary coagulation disorder that affects approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It occurs due to a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. vWF not only binds to factor VIII to protect it from rapid breakdown, but it is also necessary for proper platelet adhesion. When vWF is lacking, both factor VIII levels and platelet function are affected, leading to prolonged APTT and bleeding time. However, the platelet count and thrombin time remain unaffected.
While some individuals with vWD may not experience any symptoms and are diagnosed incidentally during a clotting profile check, others may present with easy bruising, nosebleeds (epistaxis), and heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia). In severe cases, more significant bleeding and joint bleeding (haemarthrosis) can occur.
For mild cases of von Willebrand disease, bleeding can be managed with desmopressin. This medication works by stimulating the release of vWF stored in the Weibel-Palade bodies, which are storage granules found in the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels and heart. By increasing the patient’s own levels of vWF, desmopressin helps improve clotting. In more severe cases, replacement therapy is necessary. This involves infusing cryoprecipitate or Factor VIII concentrate to provide the missing vWF. Replacement therapy is particularly recommended for patients with severe von Willebrand’s disease who are undergoing moderate or major surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with a suddenly painful right eye and sensitivity to light. She describes her eye as feeling gritty and it is noticeably watery. The patient has been experiencing a mild cold for the past few days. You administer fluorescein drops to her eye, which reveal the presence of a dendritic ulcer.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acyclovir ointment
Explanation:There are two types of infectious agents that can lead to the development of a dendritic ulcer. The majority of cases (80%) are caused by the herpes simplex virus (type I), while the remaining cases (20%) are caused by the herpes zoster virus. To effectively treat this condition, the patient should follow a specific treatment plan. This includes applying acyclovir ointment topically five times a day for a duration of 10 days. Additionally, prednisolone 0.5% drops should be used 2-4 times daily. It is also recommended to take oral high dose vitamin C, as it has been shown to reduce the healing time of dendritic ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient presents with a 48-hour history of right-sided facial weakness accompanied by pain behind the right ear. On examination, there is noticeable asymmetry in the face, with the patient unable to raise the right eyebrow or lift the right side of the mouth. There is no tenderness or swelling in the mastoid area, and the external auditory canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Evaluation of the remaining cranial nerves shows no abnormalities, and there are no other focal neurological deficits detected. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe prednisolone 50 mg daily for 10 days
Explanation:The main treatment options for Bell’s palsy are oral prednisolone and proper eye care. Referral to a specialist is typically not necessary. It is recommended to start steroid treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset. Currently, NICE does not recommend the use of antiviral medications for Bell’s palsy.
Further Reading:
Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle weakness or drooping. The exact cause is unknown, but it is believed to be related to viral infections such as herpes simplex or varicella zoster. It is more common in individuals aged 15-45 years and those with diabetes, obesity, hypertension, or upper respiratory conditions. Pregnancy is also a risk factor.
Diagnosis of Bell’s palsy is typically based on clinical symptoms and ruling out other possible causes of facial weakness. Symptoms include rapid onset of unilateral facial muscle weakness, drooping of the eyebrow and corner of the mouth, loss of the nasolabial fold, otalgia, difficulty chewing or dry mouth, taste disturbance, eye symptoms such as inability to close the eye completely, dry eye, eye pain, and excessive tearing, numbness or tingling of the cheek and mouth, speech articulation problems, and hyperacusis.
When assessing a patient with facial weakness, it is important to consider other possible differentials such as stroke, facial nerve tumors, Lyme disease, granulomatous diseases, Ramsay Hunt syndrome, mastoiditis, and chronic otitis media. Red flags for these conditions include insidious and painful onset, duration of symptoms longer than 3 months with frequent relapses, pre-existing risk factors, systemic illness or fever, vestibular or hearing abnormalities, and other cranial nerve involvement.
Management of Bell’s palsy involves the use of steroids, eye care advice, and reassurance. Steroids, such as prednisolone, are recommended for individuals presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset. Eye care includes the use of lubricating eye drops, eye ointment at night, eye taping if unable to close the eye at night, wearing sunglasses, and avoiding dusty environments. Reassurance is important as the majority of patients make a complete recovery within 3-4 months. However, some individuals may experience sequelae such as facial asymmetry, gustatory lacrimation, inadequate lid closure, brow ptosis, drooling, and hemifacial spasms.
Antiviral treatments are not currently recommended as a standalone treatment for Bell’s palsy, but they may be given in combination with corticosteroids on specialist advice. Referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary if the patient has eye symptoms such as pain, irritation, or itch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 60 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his wife as he has become increasingly lethargic and confused over the past 5 days. You observe that the patient had a pituitary adenoma removed through transsphenoidal resection about 2 months ago and is currently on a medication regimen of desmopressin 100 micrograms 3 times daily. You suspect that his symptoms may be attributed to his medication. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Desmopressin, a common treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) following pituitary surgery, can often lead to hyponatremia as a side effect. Therefore, it is important for patients to have their electrolyte levels regularly monitored. Symptoms of hyponatremia may include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, restlessness, irritability, muscle weakness or spasms, seizures, and drowsiness (which can progress to coma in severe cases).
Further Reading:
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by either a decrease in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (cranial DI) or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic DI). Antidiuretic hormone, also known as arginine vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. The typical biochemical disturbances seen in DI include elevated plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality, polyuria, and hypernatraemia.
Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, CNS infections, pituitary tumors, and pituitary surgery. Nephrogenic DI, on the other hand, can be genetic or result from electrolyte disturbances or the use of certain drugs. Symptoms of DI include polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, signs of dehydration, and in children, irritability, failure to thrive, and fatigue.
To diagnose DI, a 24-hour urine collection is done to confirm polyuria, and U&Es will typically show hypernatraemia. High plasma osmolality with low urine osmolality is also observed. Imaging studies such as MRI of the pituitary, hypothalamus, and surrounding tissues may be done, as well as a fluid deprivation test to evaluate the response to desmopressin.
Management of cranial DI involves supplementation with desmopressin, a synthetic form of arginine vasopressin. However, hyponatraemia is a common side effect that needs to be monitored. In nephrogenic DI, desmopressin supplementation is usually not effective, and management focuses on ensuring adequate fluid intake to offset water loss and monitoring electrolyte levels. Causative drugs need to be stopped, and there is a risk of developing complications such as hydroureteronephrosis and an overdistended bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man presents with visual difficulties. Upon examination, it is discovered that he has a quadrantic visual field defect. He is subsequently taken to the hospital for a CT head scan, which confirms a diagnosis of a cerebrovascular accident.
Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be impacted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 4 year old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a limp that has developed in the last 24 hours. The patient appears to be in good overall health and has no notable medical history. Upon examination, you observe that the child is not putting full weight on her left side and shows signs of discomfort when you try to internally rotate her hip. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:The age of the child can help determine the most probable diagnosis. Transient synovitis (irritable hip) is commonly observed in children aged 3 to 10. Septic arthritis is more prevalent in children under 4 years old, while Perthes disease is typically diagnosed between the ages of 4 and 8. SUFE is usually seen in girls around the age of 12 and boys around the age of 13.
Further Reading:
– Transient Synovitis (irritable hip):
– Most common hip problem in children
– Causes transient inflammation of the synovium
– Presents with thigh, groin, and/or hip pain with impaired weight bearing
– Mild to moderate restriction of hip internal rotation is common
– Symptoms usually resolve quickly with rest and anti-inflammatory treatment– Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE):
– Displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly
– Usually affects adolescents
– Can present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms
– Associated with loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion
– Treatment involves surgical fixation by pinning– Perthes disease:
– Degenerative condition affecting the hip joints of children
– Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is the cause
– Presents with hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movements
– X-ray changes include widening of joint space and decreased femoral head size/flattening
– Treatment can be conservative or operative, depending on the severity– Important differentials:
– Septic arthritis: Acute hip pain associated with systemic upset and severe limitation of affected joint
– Non-accidental injury (NAI): Should be considered in younger children and toddlers presenting with a limp, even without a trauma history
– Malignancy: Rare, but osteosarcoma may present with hip pain or limp, especially in tall teenage boys
– Developmental dysplasia of the hip: Often picked up on newborn examination with positive Barlow and Ortolani tests
– Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): Joint pain and swelling, limp, positive ANA in some cases
– Coagulopathy: Haemophilia, HSP, and sickle cell disease can cause hip pain through different mechanisms -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is brought in to see you by his wife. She is concerned that he may have had a 'mini-stroke.' After conducting a comprehensive history and examination, you conclude that it is highly probable that he has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). You decide to refer him to the nearby specialist TIA clinic.
What imaging procedure is most likely to be arranged at the TIA clinic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid imaging
Explanation:The NICE recommendations for managing patients with suspected TIA are as follows:
– Offer aspirin (300 mg daily) to individuals who have experienced a suspected TIA, unless there are contraindications. This treatment should be started immediately.
– Immediately refer individuals who have had a suspected TIA for specialist assessment and investigation. They should be seen within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms.
– Avoid using scoring systems, such as ABCD2, to assess the risk of subsequent stroke or determine the urgency of referral for individuals with suspected or confirmed TIA.
– Provide secondary prevention measures, in addition to aspirin, as soon as possible after confirming the diagnosis of TIA.The NICE recommendations for imaging in individuals with suspected TIA or acute non-disabling stroke are as follows:
– Do not offer CT brain scanning to individuals with suspected TIA, unless there is clinical suspicion of an alternative diagnosis that CT could detect.
– After a specialist assessment in the TIA clinic, consider performing an MRI (including diffusion-weighted and blood-sensitive sequences) to determine the area of ischemia, detect hemorrhage, or identify alternative pathologies. If an MRI is conducted, it should be done on the same day as the assessment.
– Carotid imaging is necessary for all individuals with TIA who, after specialist assessment, are considered candidates for carotid endarterectomy. This imaging should be done urgently.For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals over 16 years old: diagnosis and initial management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department due to near-fainting. Whilst in the department, the patient loses consciousness and upon examination, no pulse is detected. You begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Which two medications (aside from oxygen) are administered as part of the advanced life support resuscitation protocol?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline and amiodarone
Explanation:According to the ALS algorithm, the main drugs used during CPR are oxygen, adrenaline, and amiodarone. Adrenaline is administered every 3-5 minutes as per the 2021 UK ALS algorithm. Amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.
Further Reading:
In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.
During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.
There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.
There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.
When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.
Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 109
Incorrect
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You admit a 65-year-old woman to the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a fall at her assisted living facility. You can see from her notes that she has mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease. While writing up her drug chart, you note that there are some medications you are not familiar with.
Which ONE of the following medications can be used as a first-line drug in the management of mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:According to NICE, one of the recommended treatments for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease is the use of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. These inhibitors include Donepezil (Aricept), Galantamine, and Rivastigmine. They work by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function.
On the other hand, Memantine is a different type of medication that acts by blocking NMDA-type glutamate receptors. It is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s disease who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to AChE inhibitors, or for those with severe Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 55 year old female patient is brought into the emergency department with urosepsis. It is decided to intubate her pending transfer to ITU. Your consultant requests you prepare propofol and suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation (RSI). What is the recommended dose of suxamethonium for RSI in adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5 mg/kg
Explanation:The appropriate dosage of suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) in adults is between 1 and 1.5 milligrams per kilogram of body weight.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 111
Incorrect
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There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the school where you are currently teaching. You are working as part of the team conducting initial triage at the scene of the incident.
Which of the following statements about initial triage at the scene of a major incident is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: P3 patients will need medical treatment, but this can safely be delayed
Explanation:Triage is a crucial process that involves determining the priority of patients’ treatment based on the severity of their condition and their chances of recovery. Its purpose is to ensure that limited resources are used efficiently, maximizing the number of lives saved. During a major incident, primary triage takes place in the bronze area, which is located within the inner cordon.
In the context of a major incident, priorities are assigned numbers from 1 to 3, with 1 being the highest priority. These priorities are also color-coded for easy identification:
– P1: Immediate priority. This category includes patients who require immediate life-saving intervention to prevent death. They are color-coded red.
– P2: Intermediate priority. Patients in this group also require significant interventions, but their treatment can be delayed for a few hours. They are color-coded yellow.
– P3: Delayed priority. Patients in this category require medical treatment, but it can be safely delayed. This category also includes walking wounded individuals. The classification as P3 is based on the motor score of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which predicts a favorable outcome. They are color-coded green.The fourth classification is for deceased individuals. It is important to identify and classify them to prevent the unnecessary use of limited resources on those who cannot be helped. Dead bodies should be left in their current location, both to avoid wasting resources and because the area may be considered a crime scene. Deceased individuals are color-coded black.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes in with symptoms of anaphylaxis. You provide initial treatment, but there is no improvement in her symptoms. What condition might this indicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
Explanation:Anaphylaxis caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor is not effectively treated with adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Instead, treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It is characterized by a rapid onset and can lead to difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. In paediatrics, anaphylaxis is often caused by food allergies, with nuts being the most common trigger. Other causes include drugs and insect venom, such as from a wasp sting.
When treating anaphylaxis, time is of the essence and there may not be enough time to look up medication doses. Adrenaline is the most important drug in managing anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary based on the age of the child. For children under 6 months, the dose is 150 micrograms, while for children between 6 months and 6 years, the dose remains the same. For children between 6 and 12 years, the dose is increased to 300 micrograms, and for adults and children over 12 years, the dose is 500 micrograms. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary.
The preferred site for administering adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This ensures quick absorption and effectiveness of the medication. It is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for anaphylaxis management, as they have recently been updated.
In some cases, it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis. This can help confirm the diagnosis and guide further management.
Overall, prompt recognition and administration of adrenaline are crucial in managing anaphylaxis in paediatrics. Following the recommended doses and guidelines can help ensure the best outcomes for patients experiencing this severe allergic reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has a history of unstable relationships, excessive anger, fluctuating moods, uncertainty about her personal identity, self-harm, and impulsive behavior that causes harm.
Which of the following is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a range of clinical features. These include having unstable relationships, experiencing undue anger, and having variable moods. Individuals with this disorder often struggle with chronic boredom and may have doubts about their personal identity. They also tend to have an intolerance of being left alone and may engage in self-injury. Additionally, they exhibit impulsive behavior that can be damaging to themselves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A parent brings their 10 year old child into the emergency department as they have been feeling sick and have now developed a rash. You diagnose chickenpox. The mother asks about school exclusion.
What is the appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclude for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash and until all blisters have crusted over
Explanation:Individuals who have chickenpox should refrain from coming into contact with others for a minimum of 5 days starting from when the rash first appears and continuing until all blisters have formed a crust.
Further Reading:
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.
Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.
Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.
Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.
Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of pain in his left buttock, hip, and thigh. The pain began abruptly a couple of months ago, and he cannot recall any previous injury. During the examination, you observe muscle wasting in his left quadriceps, struggles in standing up from a seated position, and an absent knee jerk on the left side. Additionally, you notice muscle fasciculations in his left thigh.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic amyotrophy
Explanation:Diabetic amyotrophy, also referred to as proximal diabetic neuropathy, is the second most prevalent form of diabetic neuropathy. It typically begins with discomfort in the buttocks, hips, or thighs and is often initially experienced on one side. The pain may start off as mild and gradually progress or it can suddenly manifest, as seen in this case. Subsequently, weakness and wasting of the proximal muscles in the lower limbs occur, making it difficult for the patient to transition from sitting to standing without assistance. Reflexes in the affected areas can also be impacted. Good control of blood sugar levels, physiotherapy, and lifestyle adjustments can reverse diabetic amyotrophy.
Peripheral neuropathy is the most common type of diabetic neuropathy and typically manifests as pain or loss of sensation in the feet or hands.
Autonomic neuropathy leads to changes in digestion, bowel and bladder function, sexual response, and perspiration. It can also affect the cardiovascular system, resulting in rapid heart rates and orthostatic hypotension.
Focal neuropathy causes sudden weakness in a single nerve or group of nerves, resulting in pain, sensory loss, or muscle weakness. Any nerve in the body can be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while crossing the street. The patient is breathing rapidly and clinical examination shows a flail segment. What is the most suitable initial intervention to relieve respiratory distress?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive pressure ventilation
Explanation:To relieve the patient’s respiratory distress, the most suitable initial intervention would be positive pressure ventilation. This involves providing mechanical assistance to the patient’s breathing by delivering air or oxygen under pressure through a mask or endotracheal tube. This helps to improve oxygenation and ventilation, ensuring that the patient’s lungs are adequately supplied with oxygen and carbon dioxide is effectively removed. Positive pressure ventilation can help stabilize the patient’s breathing and alleviate the respiratory distress caused by the flail segment.
Further Reading:
Flail chest is a serious condition that occurs when multiple ribs are fractured in two or more places, causing a segment of the ribcage to no longer expand properly. This condition is typically caused by high-impact thoracic blunt trauma and is often accompanied by other significant injuries to the chest.
The main symptom of flail chest is a chest deformity, where the affected area moves in a paradoxical manner compared to the rest of the ribcage. This can cause chest pain and difficulty breathing, known as dyspnea. X-rays may also show evidence of lung contusion, indicating further damage to the chest.
In terms of management, conservative treatment is usually the first approach. This involves providing adequate pain relief and respiratory support to the patient. However, if there are associated injuries such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, specific interventions like thoracostomy or surgery may be necessary.
Positive pressure ventilation can be used to provide internal splinting of the airways, helping to prevent atelectasis, a condition where the lungs collapse. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient comes in after a chronic overdose of digoxin. She has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting, feels extremely tired, and reports that her vision seems to have a yellow tint.
What is the indication for administering DigiFab in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coexistent renal failure
Explanation:Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).
DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.
The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:
Acute digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Potassium level >5 mmol/l
– Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
– Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
– Digoxin level >12 ng/mlChronic digoxin toxicity:
– Cardiac arrest
– Life-threatening arrhythmia
– Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
– Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his father who is concerned as the child has developed a rash. The father tells you the rash started yesterday evening but only affected the face and behind the ears. Dad thought the child had a cold as he has had a dry cough, itchy eyes, and runny nose for the past 2-3 days but became concerned when the rash and high fever appeared. On examination, you note the child has a widespread rash to the trunk, limbs, and face which is maculopapular in some areas while the erythema is more confluent in other areas. There are small blue-white spots seen to the buccal mucosa. The child's temperature is 39ºC. You note the child has not received any childhood vaccines.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:The rash in measles typically begins as a maculopapular rash on the face and behind the ears. Within 24-36 hours, it spreads to the trunk and limbs. The rash may merge together, especially on the face, creating a confluent appearance. Usually, the rash appears along with a high fever. Before the rash appears, there are usually symptoms of a cold for 2-3 days. Koplik spots, which are blue-white spots on the inside of the cheeks (usually seen opposite the molars), can be observed 1-2 days before the rash appears and can be detected during a mouth examination.
It is important to note that the rash in rubella infection is similar to that of measles. However, there are two key differences: the presence of Koplik spots and a high fever (>38.3ºC) are characteristic of measles. Erythema infectiosum, on the other hand, causes a rash that resembles a slapped cheek.
Further Reading:
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.
Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.
The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.
In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.
When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on the medication she takes for her heart condition. She informs you that she consumed verapamil immediate-release 240 mg tablets approximately 30 minutes ago. However, her spouse promptly discovered her and brought her to the hospital. Currently, she shows no signs of symptoms. Typically, how much time passes before symptoms manifest in cases of this overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1-2 hours
Explanation:Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that should always be taken seriously as it can be potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into the cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.
Significant toxicity can occur with the ingestion of more than 10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules). In children, even 1-2 tablets of immediate or sustained-release verapamil or diltiazem can be harmful. Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of taking standard preparations, but with slow-release versions, the onset of severe toxicity may be delayed by 12-16 hours, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.
The main clinical manifestations of calcium-channel blocker overdose include nausea and vomiting, low blood pressure, slow heart rate and first-degree heart block, heart muscle ischemia and stroke, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, and high blood sugar levels.
When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, certain bedside investigations are crucial. These include checking blood glucose levels, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), and obtaining an arterial blood gas sample. Additional investigations that can provide helpful information include assessing urea and electrolyte levels, conducting a chest X-ray to check for pulmonary edema, and performing an echocardiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 120
Incorrect
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You are part of the team managing a 60 year old patient who has experienced cardiac arrest. What is the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to administer to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 mg IV
Explanation:In cases of cardiac arrest, it is recommended to administer 1 mg of adrenaline intravenously (IV) every 3-5 minutes. According to the 2021 resus council guidelines for adult advanced life support (ALS), the administration of vasopressors should follow these guidelines:
– For adult patients in cardiac arrest with a non-shockable rhythm, administer 1 mg of adrenaline IV (or intraosseous) as soon as possible.
– For adult patients in cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm, administer 1 mg of adrenaline IV (or intraosseous) after the third shock.
– Continuously repeat the administration of 1 mg of adrenaline IV (or intraosseous) every 3-5 minutes throughout the ALS procedure.Further Reading:
In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.
Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.
Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.
Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.
Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.
It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A student nurse on a clinical rotation in the Emergency Department experiences a needlestick injury from a patient with a history of chronic hepatitis B.
Which ONE statement about hepatitis B prophylaxis is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An accelerated regime is available for post-exposure prophylaxis
Explanation:Hepatitis B vaccination is included in the routine childhood immunisation schedule to provide long-term protection against hepatitis for children under 1 year of age. For these children, the vaccination consists of a primary course that includes the diphtheria with tetanus, pertussis, hepatitis B, poliomyelitis, and Haemophilus influenza type B vaccine. This primary course is given at 4 weekly intervals.
The Hepatitis B vaccine is a conjugate vaccine that contains a surface antigen of the hepatitis virus (HBsAg) and is combined with an aluminium adjuvant to enhance its effectiveness. It is produced using a recombinant DNA technique.
When administering the vaccine to adults and older children, the preferred injection site is the deltoid muscle. However, in younger children, the anterolateral thigh is the preferred site. It is not recommended to inject the vaccine in the gluteal area as it has been found to have reduced efficacy.
The standard vaccination regime for Hepatitis B consists of three primary doses. The initial dose is followed by further doses at one and six months later. A booster dose is recommended at five years if the individual is still at risk.
In cases of post-exposure prophylaxis, an accelerated vaccination regime is used. This involves administering a vaccination at the time of exposure, followed by repeat doses at one and two months later.
In high-risk situations, Hepatitis B immunoglobulin can be given up to 7 days after exposure. Ideally, it should be administered within 12 hours, but according to the BNF, it can still be effective if given within 7 days after exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 62 year old man is brought into the emergency department by his daughter. The patient had been dozing on the beach chair for a few hours during the scorching weather but then became increasingly disoriented and started vomiting. The patient takes furosemide for swollen ankles. The patients observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 118/68 mmHg
Pulse 108 bpm
Respiratory rate 24 bpm
Temperature 41.4ºC
Oxygen sats 96% on air
The patient's skin is hot and dry to the touch. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heat stroke
Explanation:Anhydrosis, or the inability to sweat, is frequently observed in individuals who experience heat stroke. This patient exhibits the main characteristics of heat stroke, including a core body temperature exceeding 40ºC and encephalopathy, which is evident through significant confusion. Additionally, the patient’s use of diuretics and advanced age are risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing severe heat-related illness. It is important to note that in the UK, most fatalities resulting from heat stroke occur in individuals aged 70 or older, typically within the initial days of a heat wave.
Further Reading:
Heat Stroke:
– Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
– Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
– Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
– Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
– Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
– Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
– Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
– Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°CHeat Exhaustion:
– Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
– Core temperature elevated but <40°C
– Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
– Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
– Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and restOther Heat-Related Illnesses:
– Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
– Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
– Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydrationRisk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
– Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factorsManagement:
– Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
– Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
– Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
– Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
– Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
– Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain associated with increased abdominal swelling, fever and vomiting. You note the patient has a long history of drug abuse and is well known to the local gastroenterology team who have diagnosed her with liver cirrhosis. You are concerned the patient may have developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP).
What is the most commonly identified causative pathogen in patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:The most commonly identified causative pathogen in patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is Escherichia coli. SBP is a serious infection that occurs in individuals with liver cirrhosis, where bacteria from the gut migrate into the peritoneal cavity, leading to infection and inflammation. E. coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines and is known to be a frequent cause of SBP. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat SBP to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman who is originally from Brazil has recently developed dilated cardiomyopathy and difficulty swallowing. She remembers being bitten by an insect approximately 10 years ago, which resulted in a fever and flu-like symptoms. On her ankle, where the bite occurred, she now has a firm, violet-colored lump.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chagas disease
Explanation:Chagas disease, also known as American Trypanosomiasis, is a tropical illness caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. It is transmitted by Triatomine insects, commonly known as kissing bugs, which belong to the Reduviidae family. This zoonotic disease is prevalent in Central and South America, with an estimated 8 million people infected in the region. In Brazil alone, there are approximately 120,000 new cases reported each year.
The disease progresses through two stages: the acute stage and the chronic stage. During the acute stage, many patients may not experience any symptoms, and the infection can go unnoticed. However, some individuals may exhibit symptoms such as fever, malaise, muscle pain, loss of appetite, and occasionally vomiting and diarrhea. Clinical signs may include swollen lymph nodes and enlargement of the liver and spleen. At the site of the insect bite, an inflammatory response called a chagoma can occur. This is characterized by a swollen, violet-colored nodule that can last up to 8 weeks. Another distinctive sign of acute Chagas disease is Romaña’s sign, which is eyelid swelling caused by accidentally rubbing bug feces into the eyes.
Following the acute stage, an estimated 10-30% of individuals progress to the chronic stage of Chagas disease. There is typically a latent phase between the acute and chronic phases, which can last for as long as 20-30 years. The chronic phase is associated with various complications, including cardiovascular problems such as dilated cardiomyopathy, heart failure, and arrhythmias. Gastrointestinal issues like megacolon, megaesophagus, and secondary achalasia can also arise. Neurological complications, such as neuritis, sensory and motor deficits, and encephalopathy, may occur. Additionally, psychiatric symptoms, including dementia, can manifest in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy comes in with a mild fever and symptoms of a cold. He has a rash that looks like measles on the backs of his arms and legs, and a red rash on both of his cheeks.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fifth disease
Explanation:Fifth disease, also known as ‘slapped cheek syndrome’, is a common childhood exanthem caused by parvovirus B19.
The clinical features of fifth disease include:
– A mild coryzal illness usually occurs as a prodrome.
– The classic ‘slapped cheek’ rash appears after 3-7 days, characterized by a red rash on the cheeks with pale skin around the mouth.
– A morbilliform rash develops on the extensor surfaces of the arms and legs 1-4 days after the facial rash appears.This disease is generally harmless and resolves on its own in children. However, it can be dangerous for pregnant women who are exposed to the virus, as it can cause intrauterine infection and hydrops fetalis. Additionally, it can lead to transient aplastic crisis. Therefore, it is important to keep affected children away from pregnant women and individuals with weakened immune systems or blood disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 25 kg. What is the child's hourly maintenance fluid requirement when he is in good health?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 65 ml/hour
Explanation:The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration becomes evident only after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.
The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children: Bodyweight:
– First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg.
– Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg.
– Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg.
Based on this information, the hourly maintenance fluid requirements for this child can be calculated as follows:
– First 10 kg: 4 ml/kg = 40 ml
– Second 10 kg: 2 ml/kg = 20 ml
– Subsequent kg: 1 ml/kg = 5 ml
Therefore, the total hourly maintenance fluid requirement for this child is 65 ml.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child arrives in a deteriorated state with acute severe asthma. The child has a history of asthma and is currently on a daily maintenance dose of 5 mg prednisolone. The child weighs 18 kg.
Based on the BTS guidelines, what is the recommended dosage of prednisolone for this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 32 mg
Explanation:The BTS guidelines for acute asthma in children recommend administering oral steroids early in the treatment of asthma attacks. It is advised to give a dose of 20 mg prednisolone for children aged 2–5 years and a dose of 30–40 mg for children over 5 years old. If a child is already taking maintenance steroid tablets, they should receive 2 mg/kg prednisolone, up to a maximum dose of 60 mg. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose of prednisolone should be repeated. In cases where a child is unable to keep down orally ingested medication, intravenous steroids should be considered. Typically, treatment for up to three days is sufficient, but the duration of the course should be adjusted based on the time needed for recovery. Tapering off the medication is not necessary unless the steroid course exceeds 14 days. For more information, refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 15 kg toddler presents with clinical signs of shock and 10% dehydration as a result of gastroenteritis. A 20 ml/kg fluid bolus is given initially.
How much fluid should be given over the next 24 hours following this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4100 ml
Explanation:The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can. Shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space, whereas clinical dehydration is only noticeable after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.
The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children based on their body weight:
Bodyweight:
– First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg
– Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg
– Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kgIn general, a child showing clinical signs of dehydration without shock is assumed to be 5% dehydrated. If shock is also present, it is assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. 5% dehydration means the body has lost 5 g per 100 g body weight, which is equivalent to 50 ml/kg of fluid. Therefore, 10% dehydration implies a loss of 100 ml/kg of fluid.
In this case, the child is in shock and should receive a 20 ml/kg fluid bolus. The initial volume of fluid to administer should be 20 x 25% ml = 500 ml.
Following this, the child requires:
– 100 ml/kg replacement for the 10% dehydration = 100 x 25 = 2500 ml
– 1st 10 kg = 100 ml/kg for daily maintenance fluid = 100 x 10 = 1000 ml
– 2nd 10kg = 50 ml/kg for daily maintenance fluid = 50 x 10 = 500 ml
– Subsequent kg = 20 ml/kg for daily maintenance fluid = 20 x 5 = 100 mlThe total fluid needed for rehydration and maintenance is 2500 + 1600 = 4100 ml over a 24-hour period.
The clinical features of dehydration are summarized below:
Dehydration (5%):
– Appears ‘unwell’
– Normal heart rate or tachycardia
– Normal respiratory rate or tachypnea
– Normal peripheral pulses
– Normal or mildly prolonged -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes in with a 4-month history of increasing fatigue, occasional diarrhea, and occasional abdominal pain. A blood test is ordered, which reveals microcytic anemia. She is then referred for a colonoscopy, and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy report indicates the presence of non-caseating granulomas with transmural inflammation.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:In a young patient who has been experiencing diarrhea and abdominal pain for more than 6 weeks, it is important to consider inflammatory bowel disease as a possible diagnosis. The challenge lies in distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. In this case, a biopsy was performed and the results showed transmural inflammation with the presence of non-caseating granulomas, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease.
To differentiate between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, it is helpful to consider the following characteristics. Ulcerative colitis typically only affects the rectum and colon, although the terminal ileum may be affected in some cases known as backwash ileitis. On the other hand, Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus, and there may be areas of normal mucosa between the affected areas, known as skip lesions.
There are also differences in the associations and systemic manifestations of these two conditions. Ulcerative colitis has a decreased incidence in smokers and is associated with liver conditions such as primary biliary cirrhosis, chronic active hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Crohn’s disease, on the other hand, has an increased incidence in smokers and is more commonly associated with systemic manifestations such as erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, iritis/uveitis, cholelithiasis, and joint pain/arthropathy.
Pathologically, ulcerative colitis primarily affects the mucosa and submucosa, with the presence of mucosal ulcers, inflammatory cell infiltrate, and crypt abscesses. In contrast, Crohn’s disease is characterized by transmural inflammation, lymphoid aggregates, and neutrophil infiltrates. Non-caseating granulomas are seen in approximately 30% of cases, which is a distinguishing feature of Crohn’s disease.
When it comes to clinical features, abdominal pain is less prominent in ulcerative colitis, while bloody diarrhea is present in 90% of cases. The passage of mucus is also common, and fever may be present. Symptoms such as urgency, tenesmus (a feeling of incomplete bowel movement), and pre-defecation pain that is relieved by passing stools are frequently reported. In Crohn’s disease, abdominal pain is more prominent, and diarrhea is common, with the possibility of it being bloody.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in the morning) and difficulty falling asleep, mood changes throughout the day, fatigue, and absence of menstrual periods.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:In this scenario, there are similarities between hypothyroidism and perimenopause in terms of their features. However, the most frequent cause of experiencing these symptoms together is depression. Therefore, it is necessary to delve deeper into this woman’s mood to rule out depression and provide appropriate management.
To exclude hypothyroidism as a potential cause, a TSH blood test should be conducted. Additionally, it is important to inquire about other symptoms that may align with early menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with a laceration on his forearm caused by a broken glass. You intend to clean and examine the wound using local anesthesia. The patient's weight is recorded as 70kg. What is the maximum amount of 1% lidocaine you should administer to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 16.5 ml
Explanation:The concentration of the solution is 10 mg/mL, meaning there are 10 milligrams of the active ingredient in every milliliter of the solution. The maximum recommended dose for an adult is 16.5 mL. However, when performing a digital ring block, it is typically only necessary to use 2-3 mL of the local anesthetic solution, which is a much smaller amount compared to the maximum dose.
Further Reading:
Digital nerve blocks are commonly used to numb the finger for various procedures such as foreign body removal, dislocation reduction, and suturing. Sensation to the finger is primarily provided by the proper digital nerves, which arise from the common digital nerve. Each common digital nerve divides into two proper digital nerves, which run along the palmar aspect of the finger. These proper digital nerves give off a dorsal branch that supplies the dorsal aspect of the finger.
The most common technique for digital nerve blocks is the digital (ring) block. The hand is cleaned and the injection sites are cleansed with an alcohol swab. A syringe containing 1% lidocaine is prepared, and the needle is inserted at the base of the finger from a dorsal approach. Lidocaine is infiltrated under the skin, and the needle is then advanced towards the palmar aspect of the finger to inject more lidocaine. This process is repeated on the opposite side of the finger.
It is important not to use lidocaine with adrenaline for this procedure, as it may cause constriction and ischemia of the digital artery. Lidocaine 1% is the preferred local anesthetic, and the maximum dose is 3 ml/kg up to 200 mg. Contraindications for digital nerve blocks include compromised circulation to the finger, infection at the planned injection site, contraindication to local anesthetic (e.g. allergy), and suspected compartment syndrome (which is rare in the finger).
Complications of digital nerve blocks can include vascular injury to the digital artery or vein, injury to the digital nerve, infection, pain, allergic reaction, intravascular injection (which can be avoided by aspirating prior to injection), and systemic local anesthetic toxicity (which is uncommon with typical doses of lidocaine).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the department after ingesting an excessive amount of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) four hours ago.
Which of the following ECG findings is most frequently observed in cases of TCA overdose?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia
Explanation:The most commonly observed change in the electrocardiogram (ECG) during a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is sinus tachycardia. Additionally, other ECG changes that can be seen in TCA overdose include prolongation of the PR interval, broadening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and the occurrence of ventricular arrhythmias in cases of severe toxicity. The cardiotoxic effects of TCAs are caused by the blocking of sodium channels, which leads to broadening of the QRS complex, and the blocking of potassium channels, which results in prolongation of the QT interval. The severity of the QRS broadening is associated with adverse events: a QRS duration greater than 100 ms is predictive of seizures, while a QRS duration greater than 160 ms is predictive of ventricular arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of persistent vomiting, severe diarrhea, and loss of appetite. The patient reports feeling extremely weak. A peripheral cannula is inserted and blood samples are collected. The initial laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium (Na+): 134 mmol/L
Potassium (K+): 2.4 mmol/L
Urea (Ur): 8.2 mmol/L
Creatinine (Cr): 115 umol/L
Based on these findings, which of the following additional tests should be prioritized and requested?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnesium
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia frequently occurs alongside hypokalaemia. It is important to note that potassium levels may not improve with supplementation until the magnesium deficiency is addressed.
Further Reading:
Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.
Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.
Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.
Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.
In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of sickle-cell disease undergoes a blood transfusion for severe anemia. Four weeks later, she arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a skin rash, high temperature, and diarrhea. The medical team orders blood tests, which reveal low levels of all blood cells and abnormal liver function. What is the most probable transfusion reaction that occurred?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graft-vs-host disease
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a potentially life-saving treatment that can provide great clinical benefits. However, it also carries several risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, immune dilution, and transfusion errors. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and efforts to minimize the use of transfusion, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
One rare complication of blood transfusion is transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD). This condition typically presents with fever, rash, and diarrhea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Laboratory findings may show pancytopenia and abnormalities in liver function. Unlike GVHD after marrow transplantation, TA-GVHD leads to severe marrow aplasia with a mortality rate exceeding 90%. Unfortunately, there are currently no effective treatments available for this condition, and survival is rare, with death usually occurring within 1-3 weeks of the first symptoms.
During a blood transfusion, viable T lymphocytes from the donor are transfused into the recipient’s body. In TA-GVHD, these lymphocytes engraft and react against the recipient’s tissues. However, the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes due to factors such as immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens. Supportive management is the only option for TA-GVHD.
The following summarizes the main complications and reactions that can occur during a blood transfusion:
Complication Features Management
Febrile transfusion reaction
– Presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise.
– Most common reaction, occurring in 1 out of 8 transfusions.
– Usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.
– Supportive management, with the use of paracetamol for symptom relief.Acute haemolytic reaction
– Symptoms include fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine.
– Often accompanied by a feeling of ‘impending doom’.
– Most serious type of reaction, often due to ABO incompatibility caused by administration errors.
– Immediate action required: stop the transfusion, administer IV fluids, and consider diuretics if necessary.Delayed haemolytic reaction
– Typically occurs 4-8 days after a blood transfusion.
– Symptoms include fever, anemia and/or hyperbilirubinemia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 25 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat and fever that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. The patient is specifically asking for a prescription for antibiotics. Which scoring system would be the most suitable for evaluating the patient's requirement for antibiotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FeverPAIN
Explanation:The FeverPAIN score is a clinical scoring system that helps determine the probability of streptococcal infection and the necessity of antibiotic treatment. NICE recommends using either the CENTOR or FeverPAIN clinical scoring systems to assess the likelihood of streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotics. The RSI score is utilized to evaluate laryngopharyngeal reflux, while the CSMCPI is employed to predict clinical outcomes in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Lastly, the Mallampati score is used to assess the oropharyngeal space and predict the difficulty of endotracheal intubation.
Further Reading:
Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.
Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.
When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.
Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.
To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active at the moment and has no other health issues. She does not report any itching symptoms but has observed a strong fishy odor and a greyish-white appearance in the discharge.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral metronidazole
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common condition that affects up to a third of women during their childbearing years. It occurs when there is an overgrowth of bacteria, specifically Gardnerella vaginalis. This bacterium is anaerobic, meaning it thrives in environments without oxygen. As it multiplies, it disrupts the balance of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a rise in pH levels and a decrease in lactic acid-producing lactobacilli. It’s important to note that BV is not a sexually transmitted infection.
The main symptom of BV is a greyish discharge with a distinct fishy odor. However, it’s worth mentioning that around 50% of affected women may not experience any symptoms at all.
To diagnose BV, healthcare providers often use Amsel’s criteria. This involves looking for the presence of three out of four specific criteria: a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, a positive fishy smell test when potassium hydroxide is added, the presence of clue cells on microscopy, and a thin, white, homogeneous discharge.
The primary treatment for BV is oral metronidazole, typically taken for 5-7 days. This medication has an initial cure rate of about 75%. It’s crucial to provide special care to pregnant patients diagnosed with BV, as it has been linked to an increased risk of late miscarriage, early labor, and chorioamnionitis. Therefore, prompt treatment for these patients is of utmost importance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents very unwell with an acute exacerbation of his asthma.
Which of the following drug doses used in the treatment of acute adult asthma is incorrect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Terbutaline 5mg via oxygen-driven nebuliser
Explanation:The recommended drug doses for adult acute asthma are as follows:
– Salbutamol: Administer 5 mg using an oxygen-driven nebulizer.
– Ipratropium bromide: Deliver 500 mcg via an oxygen-driven nebulizer.
– Prednisolone: Take orally at a dose of 40-50 mg.
– Hydrocortisone: Administer 100 mg intravenously.
– Magnesium sulphate: Infuse 1.2-2 g intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.Terbutaline can be used as an alternative to salbutamol, with a dose of 10 mg via an oxygen-driven nebulizer. Intravenous salbutamol may be considered (250 mcg IV slowly) only when inhaled therapy is not possible, such as when a patient is receiving bag-mask ventilation.
According to the current ALS guidelines, IV aminophylline may be considered in severe or life-threatening asthma, following senior advice. If used, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg should be given over 20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 500-700 mcg/kg/hour. It is important to maintain serum theophylline levels below 20 mcg/ml to prevent toxicity.
For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents with acute theophylline toxicity. In addition to theophylline, he uses salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers.
What is the most likely factor that triggered this episode?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart failure
Explanation:Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.
Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.
Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.
Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.
There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.
The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.
Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with new onset difficulty breathing. During chest examination, you observe whispering pectoriloquy over her left lower lobe.
What is the PRIMARY probable cause of this chest sign?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lung consolidation
Explanation:Whispering pectoriloquy is a phenomenon that occurs when there is lung consolidation. It is characterized by an amplified and clearer sound of whispering that can be heard when using a stethoscope to listen to the affected areas of the lungs. To conduct the test, patients are usually instructed to whisper the phrase ninety-nine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe and persistent nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant. She is struggling to keep anything down and has experienced some weight loss over the past couple of weeks. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 103 bpm, respiratory rate 14, blood pressure 113/70 mmHg. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and a urine dipstick reveals 3+ ketones.
What is the MOST appropriate initial anti-emetic medication to be used in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promethazine
Explanation:Vomiting is a common occurrence during the early stages of pregnancy, typically happening between 7 and 12 weeks. However, there is a more severe condition called hyperemesis gravidarum, which involves uncontrollable and intense nausea and vomiting. This condition can lead to imbalances in fluids and electrolytes, significant ketonuria, malnutrition, and weight loss. It is relatively rare, affecting less than 1% of pregnancies.
For mild cases of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy, dietary adjustments and non-pharmacological methods like consuming ginger or using P6 wrist acupressure can often provide relief.
In severe cases where heavy ketonuria and severe dehydration are present, hospital admission is usually necessary for intravenous fluid rehydration. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary (CKS) on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy recommends using oral promethazine, oral cyclizine, or oral prochlorperazine as the first-line treatment if an anti-emetic is needed. After 24 hours, the situation should be reassessed to determine if the initial treatment is effective. If not, a second-line drug like metoclopramide or ondansetron should be considered.
It’s important to exercise caution when using metoclopramide in patients under the age of 20 due to the increased risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) and histamine H2-receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine) can be beneficial for women experiencing significant dyspepsia alongside their nausea and vomiting.
For more information, refer to the NICE CKS on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A middle-aged patient with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse presents feeling extremely ill. He has been on a week-long drinking spree and has consumed very little food during that time. After conducting tests, you diagnose him with alcoholic ketoacidosis.
What type of acid-base disorder would you anticipate in a patient with alcoholic ketoacidosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. Other causes include pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or certain medications.
Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by conditions like lactic acidosis (which can result from hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (commonly seen in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). Other causes include renal failure or poisoning (such as late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, or ethylene glycol).
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be attributed to conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man receives a blood transfusion and experiences a severe transfusion reaction. His condition quickly worsens, and he ultimately succumbs to this reaction. His death is reported to Serious Hazards of Transfusion (SHOT).
What is the primary cause of transfusion-related fatalities in the United Kingdom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TRALI
Explanation:Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is responsible for about one-third of all transfusion-related deaths, making it the leading cause. On the other hand, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) accounts for approximately 20% of these fatalities, making it the second leading cause. TACO occurs when a large volume of blood is rapidly infused, particularly in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are especially vulnerable to this reaction.
The typical signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening pulmonary edema on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid accumulation. In many cases, simply reducing the transfusion rate, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient to manage the condition. However, in more severe cases, it is necessary to halt the transfusion and consider non-invasive ventilation.
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is defined as new acute lung injury (ALI) that occurs during or within six hours of transfusion, not explained by another ALI risk factor. Transfusion of part of one unit of any blood product can cause TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD for severe psoriatic arthropathy. She has been experiencing increasing difficulty breathing during physical activity for the past few months. During the examination, you detect fine bibasal crepitations. You order a chest X-ray, which reveals signs of pulmonary fibrosis.
What is the SINGLE medication she is most likely taking?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:There is a significant link between methotrexate and the development of pulmonary fibrosis. While there have been instances of pulmonary fibrosis occurring as a result of infliximab, this particular side effect is more commonly associated with methotrexate use.
Methotrexate can also cause other side effects such as nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, dizziness, stomatitis, hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, and pneumonitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A young patient has developed a tremor and is experiencing nausea and vomiting as a result of taking a prescribed medication. Additionally, the patient has developed nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
Which of the following medications is most likely to be the cause of these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium is a commonly prescribed medication for bipolar disorder, as it helps stabilize mood. The recommended therapeutic range for lithium levels is typically between 0.4 and 0.8 mmol/l, although this range may vary depending on the laboratory. For maintenance therapy and treatment in older individuals, the lower end of the range is usually targeted. Toxic effects of lithium are typically observed when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l. It is important to monitor lithium levels one week after starting therapy and after any dosage adjustments.
One potential side effect of lithium is the development of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to concentrate urine. However, lithium does not cause diabetes mellitus. Another known side effect is hypothyroidism, which is a decrease in thyroid hormone production, but it does not lead to hyperthyroidism, an overactive thyroid.
Signs of lithium toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, ataxia (loss of coordination), confusion, increased muscle tone, clonus (repetitive, involuntary muscle contractions), nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, convulsions, coma, and renal failure. It is crucial to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. He is currently prescribed 15 mg sustained-release morphine twice daily for pain management, but is now encountering breakthrough pain.
According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first-line rescue medication for breakthrough pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral immediate-release morphine
Explanation:When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.
For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.
When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.
In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.
For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 70 year old male visits the emergency department with a complaint of increasing shortness of breath. You observe that the patient had moderate aortic regurgitation on an echocardiogram conducted 12 months ago.
What is a characteristic symptom of aortic regurgitation (AR)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Water hammer pulse
Explanation:A collapsing pulse, also known as a water hammer pulse, is a common clinical feature associated with aortic regurgitation (AR). In AR, the pulse rises rapidly and forcefully before quickly collapsing. This pulsation pattern may also be referred to as Watson’s water hammer pulse or Corrigan’s pulse. Heart sounds in AR are typically quiet, and the second heart sound (S2) may even be absent if the valve fails to fully close. A characteristic early to mid diastolic murmur is often present. Other typical features of AR include a wide pulse pressure, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur in severe cases, a soft S1 and S2 (with S2 potentially being absent), a hyperdynamic apical pulse, and signs of heart failure such as lung creases, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and tachypnea.
Further Reading:
Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.
Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.
Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).
Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with burns on their hands. After evaluation, it is determined that the patient has superficial partial thickness burns on the entire palmar surfaces of both hands. The burns do not extend beyond the wrist joint due to the patient wearing a thick jacket.
To document the extent of the burns on a Lund and Browder chart, what percentage of the total body surface area is affected by this burn injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-3%
Explanation:Based on the Lund and Browder chart, the total percentage of burns is calculated as 3 since it affects one side of both hands.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department from his nursing home due to the sudden onset of profuse foul smelling diarrhea over the past 2 days that has not improved. The patient has been feeling slightly unwell for the past few weeks and was prescribed a week-long course of amoxicillin by his GP for a chest infection, which he completed. He then started taking clindamycin for lower limb cellulitis five days ago, which he is still taking. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stool cytotoxin assay
Explanation:C. difficile diarrhoea is typically diagnosed by testing a stool sample for the presence of its toxin using the cytotoxin assay. This patient has several risk factors for developing c.diff diarrhoea, including recent use of broad spectrum antibiotics, being over the age of 65, and residing in a nursing home. The gold standard for diagnosing c.diff diarrhoea is the detection of exotoxin in the stool using the cytotoxin assay. The C13 urea breath test is used to detect h.pylori infection, while stool antigen testing is commonly used to detect h.pylori as well as rotavirus and other viral causes of gastroenteritis. Stool microscopy is utilized to identify the presence of parasitic organisms such as protozoa and helminths.
Further Reading:
Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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John is a 68-year-old man with a history of memory impairment and signs of cognitive decline.
Which ONE of the following signs is MOST indicative of a diagnosis of vascular dementia rather than Alzheimer's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sudden onset
Explanation:Vascular dementia is not as common as Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for about 20% of dementia cases compared to 50% for Alzheimer’s. Most individuals with vascular dementia have a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and/or hypertension.
There are notable differences in how these two diseases present themselves. Vascular dementia often has a sudden onset, while Alzheimer’s disease has a slower onset. The progression of vascular dementia tends to be stepwise, with periods of stability followed by sudden declines, whereas Alzheimer’s disease has a more gradual decline. The course of vascular dementia can also fluctuate, while Alzheimer’s disease shows a steady decline over time.
In terms of personality and insight, individuals with vascular dementia tend to have relatively preserved personality and insight in the early stages, whereas those with Alzheimer’s disease may experience early changes and loss in these areas. Gait is also affected differently, with individuals with vascular dementia taking small steps (known as marche a petit pas), while those with Alzheimer’s disease have a normal gait.
Sleep disturbance is less common in vascular dementia compared to Alzheimer’s disease, which commonly presents with sleep disturbances. Focal neurological signs, such as sensory and motor deficits and pseudobulbar palsy, are more common in vascular dementia, while they are uncommon in Alzheimer’s disease.
To differentiate between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia, the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can be used. This scale assigns scores based on various features, such as abrupt onset, stepwise deterioration, fluctuating course, nocturnal confusion, preservation of personality, depression, somatic complaints, emotional incontinence, history of hypertension, history of strokes, evidence of associated atherosclerosis, focal neurological symptoms, and focal neurological signs. A score of 2 or greater suggests vascular dementia.
Overall, understanding the differences in presentation and using tools like the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can help in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 150
Incorrect
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There is a high number of casualties reported after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident. It is believed that sarin gas is the responsible agent. Which of the following antidotes can be administered for sarin gas exposure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pralidoxime
Explanation:The primary approach to managing nerve gas exposure through medication involves the repeated administration of antidotes. The two antidotes utilized for this purpose are atropine and pralidoxime.
Atropine is the standard anticholinergic medication employed to address the symptoms associated with nerve agent poisoning. It functions as an antagonist for muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, effectively blocking the effects caused by excessive acetylcholine. Initially, a 1.2 mg intravenous bolus of atropine is administered. This dosage is then repeated and doubled every 2-3 minutes until excessive bronchial secretion ceases and miosis (excessive constriction of the pupil) resolves. In some cases, as much as 100 mg of atropine may be necessary.
Pralidoxime (2-PAMCl) is the standard oxime used in the treatment of nerve agent poisoning. Its mechanism of action involves reactivating acetylcholinesterase by scavenging the phosphoryl group attached to the functional hydroxyl group of the enzyme, thereby counteracting the effects of the nerve agent itself. For patients who are moderately or severely poisoned, pralidoxime should be administered intravenously at a dosage of 30 mg/kg of body weight (or 2 g in the case of an adult) over a period of four minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel movements is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a pork dish that was contaminated with the parasite.
Which of the following organisms is the most probable cause of this infestation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Taenia solium
Explanation:Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.
Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.
The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department (ED) with a decreased level of consciousness. An arterial blood gas sample is collected. The results are as follows:
pH 7.21
pO2 12.6 kPa
pCO2 6.9 kPa
Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L
Chloride 96 mmol/L
Potassium 5.4 mmol/L
Sodium 135 mmol/L
Which of the following options best describes the acid-base disturbance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mixed acidosis
Explanation:In cases of mixed acidosis, both the respiratory and metabolic systems play a role in causing the low pH levels. This means that the patient’s acidotic state is a result of both low bicarbonate levels in the metabolic system and high levels of CO2 in the respiratory system.
Further Reading:
Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.
To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.
Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.
The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.
The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.
The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.
Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.
The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 153
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 7-year-old boy with a 4-month history of recurring episodes of abdominal pain. The pain has typically occurred 2-3 days per week during that time. There have been no changes in bowel movements or episodes of vomiting. He has missed some school days, but his parents note that the pain has also occurred on weekends. His physical examination is unremarkable, and a colleague recently ordered a series of blood tests, which were all normal. Upon reviewing his growth chart, you observe that his weight has remained consistent on the 50th percentile.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional abdominal pain
Explanation:Functional abdominal pain is a common issue among children in this age group. The pain can occur in episodes or be continuous. In order to diagnose functional abdominal pain, it is important to rule out any inflammatory, anatomical, metabolic, or neoplastic causes that could explain the symptoms. The criteria for diagnosis must be met at least once a week for a minimum of two months.
If the pain is present for at least 25% of the time and there is a loss of daily functioning, it is referred to as functional abdominal pain syndrome. In this syndrome, additional somatic symptoms such as headache, limb pain, or sleep disturbance are often present.
For a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome, the pain must also improve with defecation or be associated with changes in the frequency and form of stools.
School refusal is typically not associated with pain outside of school time. Since this child is experiencing pain on weekends, it makes the diagnosis of school refusal less likely.
Abdominal migraine is characterized by intense, acute periumbilical pain that occurs in paroxysmal episodes lasting over an hour. Patients generally have periods of wellness lasting weeks to months between attacks. The pain is often accompanied by anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia, and pallor.
Based on the child’s well-being, normal examination, and blood tests, a diagnosis of coeliac disease seems unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the potential presence of an underlying physiological factor contributing to this condition.
Which ONE of the following is NOT a potential physiological cause for depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiamine deficiency
Explanation:Thiamine deficiency is linked to episodes of acute confusion, but it is not typically associated with depression. On the other hand, depression is commonly seen in individuals with hypercalcemia. Chronic diseases like Parkinson’s disease and COPD are strongly correlated with depression. Additionally, both psychosis and depression can be associated with the use of steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals that they have microcytic anemia.
Which of the following is the LEAST probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).
On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.
Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.
It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Which characteristic is considered to be a ‘B’ symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:The ‘B’ symptoms associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma include fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Fever is defined as a body temperature exceeding 38 degrees Celsius. Night sweats refer to excessive sweating during sleep. Weight loss is considered significant if it amounts to more than 10% of a person’s body weight over a period of six months. It is important to note that pain after consuming alcohol is a distinctive sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it is not classified as a ‘B’ symptom. This symptom is relatively rare, occurring in only 2-3% of individuals diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful knee. She first noticed the pain a few days ago and is now experiencing general malaise and a fever. Upon examination, the joint appears swollen, hot, and red. The patient is hesitant to move the knee due to the intense pain. No other joints are affected.
What is the MOST LIKELY causative organism in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Septic arthritis in adults is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. However, Streptococcus spp. is the most common group of bacteria responsible for this condition. In the past, Haemophilus influenzae used to be a significant cause of septic arthritis, but with the introduction of vaccination programs, its occurrence has significantly decreased. Other bacteria that can lead to septic arthritis include E. Coli, Salmonella, Neisseria gonorrhoea, and Mycobacterium.
It is important to note that viruses can also be a cause of septic arthritis. Examples of such viruses include hepatitis A, B, and C, coxsackie, adenovirus, and parvovirus. Additionally, fungi can also be responsible for septic arthritis, with Histoplasmosa and Blastomyces being notable examples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old weightlifter who acknowledges frequent use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring present. Several have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing overall discomfort with joint pains and a sensation of fever. You measure his temperature, and it is currently 39°C.
What is the MOST LIKELY single diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acne fulminans
Explanation:Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.
The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:
– Sudden and abrupt onset
– Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
– Often painful lesions
– Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
– Severe acne scarring
– Fluctuating fever
– Painful joints and arthropathy
– General feeling of illness (malaise)
– Loss of appetite and weight loss
– Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A toddler develops a palsy of his left leg following a fall. On examination, there is a 'foot drop' deformity and sensory loss of the lateral side of the foot and lower leg. There is also evidence of a left sided Horner's syndrome.
Which nerve roots have most likely been affected in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C8 and T1
Explanation:Klumpke’s palsy, also known as Dejerine-Klumpke palsy, is a condition where the arm becomes paralyzed due to an injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus. The most commonly affected root is C8, but T1 can also be involved. The main cause of Klumpke’s palsy is when the arm is pulled forcefully in an outward position during a difficult childbirth. It can also occur in adults with apical lung carcinoma (Pancoast’s syndrome).
Clinically, Klumpke’s palsy is characterized by a deformity known as ‘claw hand’, which is caused by the paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles. There is also a loss of sensation along the ulnar side of the forearm and hand. In some cases where T1 is affected, a condition called Horner’s syndrome may also be present.
Klumpke’s palsy can be distinguished from Erb’s palsy, which affects the upper roots of the brachial plexus (C5 and sometimes C6). In Erb’s palsy, the arm hangs by the side with the elbow extended and the forearm turned inward (known as the ‘waiter’s tip sign’). Additionally, there is a loss of shoulder abduction, external rotation, and elbow flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. They inform you that the child has been sick for the past 48 hours, experiencing vomiting and diarrhea. The parents are concerned about the possibility of dehydration. As you evaluate the patient, you look for any red flag signs that may indicate an increased risk of progressing to shock.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced skin turgor
Explanation:Signs that a child with gastroenteritis may be at risk of progressing to shock include altered responsiveness (such as being irritable or lethargic), sunken eyes, a fast heart rate, rapid breathing, and reduced skin elasticity. In infants aged 3 months or younger, a temperature above 38ºC is also a red flag.
Further Reading:
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her right limbs, difficulty with coordination in her right arm, and difficulty speaking.
Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be impacted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up in front of her, resulting in a collision. She visits the emergency department, reporting upper abdominal pain caused by the handlebars. You determine that a FAST scan is necessary. What is the main objective of performing a FAST scan for blunt abdominal trauma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Detect the presence of intraperitoneal fluid
Explanation:The primary goal of performing a FAST scan in cases of blunt abdominal trauma is to identify the existence of intraperitoneal fluid. According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the purpose of using ultrasound in the initial evaluation of abdominal trauma is specifically to confirm the presence of fluid within the peritoneal cavity, with the assumption that it is blood. However, it is important to note that ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing injuries to solid organs or hollow viscus.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 163
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old male who has been referred to the emergency department after visiting his local Bootsâ„¢ store for a hearing assessment. The patient reports experiencing pain and hearing impairment on the right side a few days prior to the examination. The nurse who examined the patient's ears before conducting the audiogram expressed concerns regarding malignant otitis externa.
What is the primary cause of malignant otitis externa?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Malignant otitis externa, also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a severe infection that affects the external auditory canal and spreads to the temporal bone and nearby tissues, leading to skull base osteomyelitis. The primary cause of this condition is usually an infection by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. It is commonly observed in older individuals with diabetes.
Further Reading:
Otitis externa is inflammation of the skin and subdermis of the external ear canal. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, or chronic, lasting more than 3 months. Malignant otitis externa, also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a severe and potentially life-threatening infection that can spread to the bones and surrounding structures of the ear. It is most commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Symptoms of malignant otitis externa include severe and persistent ear pain, headache, discharge from the ear, fever, malaise, vertigo, and profound hearing loss. It can also lead to facial nerve palsy and other cranial nerve palsies. In severe cases, the infection can spread to the central nervous system, causing meningitis, brain abscess, and sepsis.
Acute otitis externa is typically caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Staphylococcus aureus, while chronic otitis externa can be caused by fungal infections such as Aspergillus or Candida albicans. Risk factors for otitis externa include eczema, psoriasis, dermatitis, acute otitis media, trauma to the ear canal, foreign bodies in the ear, water exposure, ear canal obstruction, and long-term antibiotic or steroid use.
Clinical features of otitis externa include itching of the ear canal, ear pain, tenderness of the tragus and/or pinna, ear discharge, hearing loss if the ear canal is completely blocked, redness and swelling of the ear canal, debris in the ear canal, and cellulitis of the pinna and adjacent skin. Tender regional lymphadenitis is uncommon.
Management of acute otitis externa involves general ear care measures, optimizing any underlying medical or skin conditions that are risk factors, avoiding the use of hearing aids or ear plugs if there is a suspected contact allergy, and avoiding the use of ear drops if there is a suspected allergy to any of its ingredients. Treatment options include over-the-counter acetic acid 2% ear drops or spray, aural toileting via dry swabbing, irrigation, or microsuction, and prescribing topical antibiotics with or without a topical corticosteroid. Oral antibiotics may be prescribed in severe cases or for immunocompromised individuals.
Follow-up is advised if symptoms do not improve within 48-72 hours of starting treatment, if symptoms have not fully resolved
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.
During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.
Which treatment is most likely responsible for causing these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous glucose
Explanation:This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.
This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.
Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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You are requested to educate the foundation doctors and medical students assigned to the emergency department on evaluating the vomiting toddler. What is a potential risk factor for pyloric stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First born child
Explanation:Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants and is often seen in those with a positive family history. It is more commonly observed in first-born children and those who were bottle-fed or delivered by c-section. Additionally, it is more prevalent in white and hispanic children compared to other races and ethnicities. Smoking during pregnancy and premature birth are also associated with an increased risk of developing pyloric stenosis.
Further Reading:
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.
Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.
Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.
The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 166
Incorrect
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You are overseeing the care of a 25-year-old male who has sustained a stab wound to the chest. During your examination, you observe air bubbling from the wound, indicating a potential sucking chest wound. What is the primary intervention that should be prioritized in managing this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Application of an occlusive dressing with one side left open
Explanation:Dressings that function as flutter valves are beneficial in the initial treatment of open pneumothorax. The first step involves applying an occlusive dressing that covers the wound, with one side intentionally left open to create a flutter-valve effect. Alternatively, a chest seal device can be used. The occlusive dressing should be square or rectangular in shape, with three sides securely sealed and one side left unsealed. When the patient inhales, the dressing is drawn against the chest wall, preventing air from entering the chest cavity. However, during exhalation, air can still escape through the open side of the dressing. Another option is to use a chest seal device that includes a built-in one-way (flutter) valve. Definitive management typically involves surgical intervention to repair the defect and address any other injuries. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) also recommends surgery as the definitive treatment, as inserting a chest drain may disrupt tissues that could otherwise be used to cover the defect with muscle flaps.
Further Reading:
An open pneumothorax, also known as a sucking chest wound, occurs when air enters the pleural space due to an open chest wound or physical defect. This can lead to ineffective ventilation, causing hypoxia and hypercarbia. Air can enter the pleural cavity passively or be sucked in during inspiration, leading to lung collapse on that side. Sucking wounds can be heard audibly as air passes through the chest defect, and entry wounds are usually visible.
To manage an open pneumothorax, respiratory compromise can be alleviated by covering the wound with a dressing or using a chest seal device. It is important to ensure that one side of the dressing is not occluded, allowing the dressing to function as a flutter valve and prevent significant air ingress during inspiration while allowing air to escape the pleural cavity. If tension pneumothorax is suspected after applying a dressing, the dressing may need to be temporarily removed for decompression.
Intubation and intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) can be used to ventilate the patient and alleviate respiratory distress. Definitive management involves either inserting a chest drain or surgically repairing the defect. Surgical repair is typically preferred, especially for large wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided with a wall. He was rescued at the scene and has been brought to the hospital by ambulance. He is currently wearing a cervical immobilization device. He is experiencing chest pain on the left side and is having difficulty breathing. As the leader of the trauma response team, his vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 110, blood pressure of 102/63, oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15 out of 15. Upon examination, he has extensive bruising on the left side of his chest and shows reduced chest expansion, dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds throughout the entire left hemithorax.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Massive haemothorax
Explanation:A massive haemothorax occurs when more than 1500 mL of blood, which is about 1/3 of the patient’s blood volume, rapidly accumulates in the chest cavity. The classic signs of a massive haemothorax include decreased chest expansion, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion. Both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds, but they can be differentiated through percussion. Hyperresonance indicates tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.
The first step in managing a massive haemothorax is to simultaneously restore blood volume and decompress the chest cavity by inserting a chest drain. In most cases, the bleeding in a haemothorax has already stopped by the time management begins, and simple drainage is sufficient. It is important to use a chest drain of adequate size (preferably 36F) to ensure effective drainage of the haemothorax without clotting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few of his father's ibuprofen tablets 30 minutes ago. The child is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends giving a dose of activated charcoal.
What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 g/kg
Explanation:Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.
Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.
The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of persistent foul-smelling discharge from her right ear. She has undergone three separate courses of antibiotic drops, but they have been ineffective in resolving the issue. Additionally, she is experiencing hearing difficulties in her right ear. Her medical history includes recurrent ear infections. Upon examination, a retraction pocket is observed in the attic, along with granulation tissue on the tympanic membrane and a significant amount of debris.
What is the MOST suitable next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:This individual is diagnosed with an acquired cholesteatoma, which is an expanding growth of the stratified keratinising epithelium in the middle ear. It develops due to dysfunction of the Eustachian tube and chronic otitis media caused by the retraction of the squamous elements of the tympanic membrane into the middle ear space.
The most important method for assessing the presence of a cholesteatoma is otoscopy. A retraction pocket observed in the attic or posterosuperior quadrant of the tympanic membrane is a characteristic sign of an acquired cholesteatoma. This is often accompanied by the presence of granulation tissue and squamous debris. The presence of a granular polyp within the ear canal also strongly suggests a cholesteatoma.
If left untreated, a cholesteatoma can lead to various complications including conductive deafness, facial nerve palsy, brain abscess, meningitis, and labyrinthitis. Therefore, it is crucial to urgently refer this individual to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a CT scan and surgical removal of the lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 3 year old is brought to the emergency department due to concern that the patient has developed a fever, symptoms of a cold, and a widespread rash with blisters. You diagnose the child with chickenpox and advise the mother on how to manage the condition. The mother informs you that she is 12 weeks pregnant and is worried about the potential consequences of contracting chickenpox during pregnancy.
What is the most significant complication of chickenpox infection for the mother during pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumonitis
Explanation:Pregnant women who contract chickenpox for the first time are more likely to develop pneumonitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the lungs. Additionally, these women face a five-fold increased risk of pneumonitis compared to non-pregnant individuals. Furthermore, the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome, a condition associated with chickenpox infection during pregnancy.
Further Reading:
Chickenpox exposure during pregnancy poses risks to both the mother and the fetus. The mother has a 5 times greater risk of developing pneumonitis, a potentially serious complication. The fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the maternal exposure occurs before 20 weeks gestation. The risk of FVS is around 1% in these cases and includes features such as skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There have been very few cases of FVS reported between 20-28 weeks gestation and none following 28 weeks.
Other risks to the fetus include the development of shingles in infancy, which has a 1-2% risk if the maternal exposure occurs in the second or third trimester. There is also a risk of severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth. This condition can be fatal to the newborn child in around 20% of cases.
In the management of chickenpox exposure during pregnancy, it is important to determine if the mother is immune to varicella. If there is any doubt, maternal blood should be urgently checked for varicella antibodies. If the pregnant woman is not immune, she should be given varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible. VZIG is considered effective up to 10 days post-exposure. Consensus guidelines also recommend the use of oral aciclovir if the pregnant woman presents with chickenpox within 24 hours of the rash onset.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. She has been in a car accident and has sustained severe burns. You examine her airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. Your plan is to intubate the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
As per the ATLS guidelines, what is the minimum internal diameter of the endotracheal tube that should be utilized?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7.5 mm
Explanation:Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.
According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.
To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 172
Incorrect
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You are overseeing the care of a 70-year-old male who suffered extensive burns in a residential fire. You have initiated intravenous fluid replacement and inserted a urinary catheter to monitor fluid output. What is the desired urine output goal for patients with severe burns undergoing intravenous fluid therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.5 ml/kg/hr
Explanation:When managing individuals with severe burns, the desired amount of urine output is 0.5 ml per kilogram of body weight per hour. For the average adult, this translates to a target urine output of 30-50 ml per hour.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to have a diagnosis of Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome.
Which of the following statements about LGL syndrome is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is caused by an accessory pathway for conduction
Explanation:Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conducting system of the heart. It is classified as a pre-excitation syndrome, similar to the more well-known Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, unlike WPW syndrome, LGL syndrome does not involve an accessory pathway for conduction. Instead, it is believed that there may be accessory fibers present that bypass all or part of the atrioventricular node.
When looking at an electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient with LGL syndrome in sinus rhythm, there are several characteristic features to observe. The PR interval, which represents the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles, is typically shortened and measures less than 120 milliseconds. The QRS duration, which represents the time it takes for the ventricles to contract, is normal. The P wave, which represents the electrical activity of the atria, may be normal or inverted. However, what distinguishes LGL syndrome from other pre-excitation syndromes is the absence of a delta wave, which is a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex.
It is important to note that LGL syndrome predisposes individuals to paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), a rapid heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles. However, it does not increase the risk of developing atrial fibrillation or flutter, which are other types of abnormal heart rhythms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 40 minutes before his arrival. On arrival, he is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. He is a known epileptic and is currently taking lamotrigine for seizure prevention. He has received a single dose of rectal diazepam by the paramedics en route approximately 15 minutes ago. His vital signs are as follows: HR 92, BP 120/70, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 36.8°C. His blood glucose level is 1.5 mmol/L, and he has an intravenous line in place.
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous glucose
Explanation:Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In such cases, it is important to address any low blood glucose levels urgently by administering intravenous glucose. While the patient may require additional antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy, the management of status epilepticus involves several general measures.
During the early stage of status epilepticus (0-10 minutes), the airway should be secured and resuscitation measures should be taken. Oxygen should be administered and the cardiorespiratory function should be assessed. It is also important to establish intravenous access. In the second stage (0-30 minutes), regular monitoring should be instituted and the possibility of non-epileptic status should be considered. Emergency AED therapy should be initiated and emergency investigations should be conducted. If there are indications of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition, glucose and/or intravenous thiamine may be administered. Acidosis should be treated if severe.
In the third stage (0-60 minutes), the underlying cause of status epilepticus should be identified. The anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU) should be alerted. Any medical complications should be identified and treated, and pressor therapy may be considered if appropriate. In the fourth stage (30-90 minutes), the patient should be transferred to intensive care. Intensive care and EEG monitoring should be established, and intracranial pressure monitoring may be initiated if necessary. Initial long-term, maintenance AED therapy should also be initiated.
Emergency investigations for status epilepticus include blood tests for blood gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of the convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be taken to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, may be conducted depending on the clinical circumstances.
Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 45 year old male attends the emergency department and complains about fatigue, muscle spasms and frequent urination. A capillary blood glucose is normal at 4.4 mmol/l. You review his medication list and suspect the patient may have acquired diabetes insipidus. Which medication is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus may develop in a certain percentage of individuals who take lithium.
Further Reading:
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by either a decrease in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (cranial DI) or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic DI). Antidiuretic hormone, also known as arginine vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. The typical biochemical disturbances seen in DI include elevated plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality, polyuria, and hypernatraemia.
Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, CNS infections, pituitary tumors, and pituitary surgery. Nephrogenic DI, on the other hand, can be genetic or result from electrolyte disturbances or the use of certain drugs. Symptoms of DI include polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, signs of dehydration, and in children, irritability, failure to thrive, and fatigue.
To diagnose DI, a 24-hour urine collection is done to confirm polyuria, and U&Es will typically show hypernatraemia. High plasma osmolality with low urine osmolality is also observed. Imaging studies such as MRI of the pituitary, hypothalamus, and surrounding tissues may be done, as well as a fluid deprivation test to evaluate the response to desmopressin.
Management of cranial DI involves supplementation with desmopressin, a synthetic form of arginine vasopressin. However, hyponatraemia is a common side effect that needs to be monitored. In nephrogenic DI, desmopressin supplementation is usually not effective, and management focuses on ensuring adequate fluid intake to offset water loss and monitoring electrolyte levels. Causative drugs need to be stopped, and there is a risk of developing complications such as hydroureteronephrosis and an overdistended bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 20 year old college student comes to the ER with a sore throat that has been bothering them for the past 10 days. After conducting a physical examination, you inform the patient that you suspect they may have glandular fever. You proceed to order blood tests.
Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of glandular fever?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphocytosis
Explanation:In the blood tests, certain findings can support a diagnosis of glandular fever. One of these findings is lymphocytosis, which refers to an increased number of lymphocytes in the blood. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response. In glandular fever, the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is the most common cause, and it primarily infects and activates lymphocytes, leading to their increased numbers in the blood.
On the other hand, neutropenia (a decreased number of neutrophils) and neutrophilia (an increased number of neutrophils) are not typically associated with glandular fever. Neutrophils are another type of white blood cell that helps fight off bacterial infections. In glandular fever, the primary involvement is with lymphocytes rather than neutrophils.
Monocytosis, which refers to an increased number of monocytes, can also be seen in glandular fever. Monocytes are another type of white blood cell that plays a role in the immune response. Their increased numbers can be a result of the immune system’s response to the Epstein-Barr virus.
Eosinophilia, an increased number of eosinophils, is not commonly associated with glandular fever. Eosinophils are white blood cells involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, and their elevation is more commonly seen in those conditions.
In summary, the presence of lymphocytosis and possibly monocytosis in the blood tests would support a diagnosis of glandular fever, while neutropenia, neutrophilia, and eosinophilia are less likely to be associated with this condition.
Further Reading:
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a cough producing green sputum that has been ongoing for the past two days. During the examination, she has a fever, with a temperature of 38.0°C, and exhibits coarse crackles in the lower right lung on chest examination.
What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are in line with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). The most frequent cause of CAP in an adult patient who is otherwise in good health is Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male presents with central chest pain radiating to the jaw and left arm. The patient is sweating profusely and appears pale. The pain began 4 hours ago. ECG reveals 2-3 mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. 300 mg aspirin has been administered. Transporting the patient to the nearest coronary catheter lab for primary PCI will take 2 hours 45 minutes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:Fibrinolysis is a treatment option for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) if they are unable to receive primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 120 minutes, but fibrinolysis can be administered within that time frame. Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset. However, if primary PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given, fibrinolysis should be considered. Along with fibrinolysis, an antithrombin medication such as unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), fondaparinux, or bivalirudin is typically administered.
Further Reading:
Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).
The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.
There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.
The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.
The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.
The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 38 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden tremors, excessive sweating, and a rapid heartbeat. Upon triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be extremely high at 230/124 mmHg. Phaeochromocytoma is suspected. What would be the most suitable initial treatment in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenoxybenzamine 10 mg by slow intravenous injection
Explanation:The first step in managing hypertension in patients with phaeochromocytoma is to use alpha blockade, usually with a medication called phenoxybenzamine. This is followed by beta blockade. Before undergoing surgery to remove the phaeochromocytoma, patients need to be on both alpha and beta blockers. Alpha blockade is typically achieved by giving phenoxybenzamine intravenously at a dose of 10-40 mg over one hour, and then switching to an oral form (10-60 mg/day in divided doses). It is important to start alpha blockade at least 7 to 10 days before surgery to allow for an increase in blood volume. Beta blockade is only considered once alpha blockade has been achieved, as starting beta blockers too soon can lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure.
Further Reading:
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.
The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.
Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.
The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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You are requested to standby in the resuscitation bay for a 28-year-old patient who is being transported to the emergency department after being hit in the face by the side mirror of a passing truck. The paramedics inform you that the patient is suspected to have a Le Fort III fracture. What characteristic differentiates a Le Fort III fracture from a Le Fort II fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Involvement of the zygomatic arch
Explanation:Le Fort III fractures can be distinguished from Le Fort II fractures by the presence of damage to the zygomatic arch.
Further Reading:
The Le Fort fracture classification describes three fracture patterns seen in midface fractures, all involving the maxilla and pterygoid plate disruption. As the classification grading increases, the anatomic level of the maxillary fracture ascends from inferior to superior.
Le Fort I fractures, also known as floating palate fractures, typically result from a downward blow struck above the upper dental row. Signs include swelling of the upper lip, bruising to the upper buccal sulcus, malocclusion, and mobile upper teeth.
Le Fort II fractures, also known as floating maxilla fractures, are typically the result of a forceful blow to the midaxillary area. Signs include a step deformity at the infraorbital margin, oedema over the middle third of the face, sensory disturbance of the cheek, and bilateral circumorbital ecchymosis.
Le Fort III fractures, also known as craniofacial dislocation or floating face fractures, are typically the result of high force blows to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures involve the zygomatic arch and extend through various structures in the face. Signs include tenderness at the frontozygomatic suture, lengthening of the face, enophthalmos, and bilateral circumorbital ecchymosis.
Management of Le Fort fractures involves securing the airway as a priority, following the ABCDE approach, and identifying and managing other injuries, especially cervical spine injuries. Severe bleeding may occur and should be addressed appropriately. Surgery is almost always required, and patients should be referred to maxillofacial surgeons. Other specialties, such as neurosurgery and ophthalmology, may need to be involved depending on the specific case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to the initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer another nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide.
What is the most common side effect experienced with ipratropium bromide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry mouth
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide commonly leads to dry mouth as a side effect. Additionally, it may result in constipation, cough, sudden bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. In patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction, it can cause urinary retention. Furthermore, susceptible individuals may experience acute closed-angle glaucoma as a result of using this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after stepping on a sharp object while playing barefoot in the backyard. The wound needs to be stitched under anesthesia. While obtaining parental consent from the accompanying adult, you notice that the adult has a different last name than the child. When asking about their relationship to the child, the adult states that they are the child's like a mother and is the partner of the girl's father. What is the term used to describe a parent or guardian who can provide consent on behalf of a child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parental responsibility
Explanation:Parental responsibility encompasses the legal rights, duties, powers, responsibilities, and authority that a parent holds for their child. This includes the ability to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of the child. Any individual with parental responsibility has the authority to give consent for their child. If a father meets any of the aforementioned criteria, he is considered to have parental responsibility. On the other hand, a mother is automatically granted parental responsibility for her child from the moment of birth.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 183
Incorrect
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You have been tasked with arranging a case-based teaching session for the junior doctors in the emergency department regarding vertigo. Which of the subsequent clinical features aligns with a central origin of vertigo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to stand up with the eyes open
Explanation:If a person is unable to stand up or walk, even with their eyes open, it is likely that the cause of their vertigo is central in nature. Additional features that increase suspicion of a central cause include focal neurology, prolonged and severe vertigo (although this can also be seen in vestibular neuronitis or Meniere’s disease), new-onset headache or recent trauma, a normal head impulse test, and the presence of cardiovascular risk factors.
Further Reading:
Vertigo is a symptom characterized by a false sensation of movement, such as spinning or rotation, in the absence of any actual physical movement. It is not a diagnosis itself, but rather a description of the sensation experienced by the individual. Dizziness, on the other hand, refers to a perception of disturbed or impaired spatial orientation without a false sense of motion.
Vertigo can be classified as either peripheral or central. Peripheral vertigo is more common and is caused by problems in the inner ear that affect the labyrinth or vestibular nerve. Examples of peripheral vertigo include BPPV, vestibular neuritis, labyrinthitis, and Meniere’s disease. Central vertigo, on the other hand, is caused by pathology in the brain, such as in the brainstem or cerebellum. Examples of central vertigo include migraine, TIA and stroke, cerebellar tumor, acoustic neuroma, and multiple sclerosis.
There are certain features that can help differentiate between peripheral and central vertigo. Peripheral vertigo is often associated with severe nausea and vomiting, hearing loss or tinnitus, and a positive head impulse test. Central vertigo may be characterized by prolonged and severe vertigo, new-onset headache, recent trauma, cardiovascular risk factors, inability to stand or walk with eyes open, focal neurological deficit, and a negative head impulse test.
Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, can also provide clues about the underlying cause of vertigo. Central causes of vertigo often have nystagmus that is direction-changing on lateral gaze, purely vertical or torsional, not suppressed by visual fixation, non-fatigable, and commonly large amplitude. Peripheral causes of vertigo often have horizontal nystagmus with a torsional component that does not change direction with gaze, disappears with fixation of the gaze, and may have large amplitude early in the course of Meniere’s disease or vestibular neuritis.
There are various causes of vertigo, including viral labyrinthitis, vestibular neuritis, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, Meniere’s disease, vertebrobasilar ischemia, and acoustic neuroma. Each of these disorders has its own unique characteristics and may be associated with other symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, or neurological deficits.
When assessing a patient with vertigo, it is important to perform a cardiovascular and neurological examination, including assessing cranial nerves, cerebellar signs, eye movements, gait, coordination, and evidence of peripheral
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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You review a patient with chronic severe back pain with a medical student that has examined the patient. He feels the most likely diagnosis is lumbar disc herniation. He explains that all five features of Reynold’s pentad are present.
Which of the following does NOT form part of Reynold’s pentad?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised white cell count
Explanation:Ascending cholangitis occurs when there is an infection in the common bile duct, usually caused by a stone that has led to a blockage of bile flow. This condition is known as choledocholithiasis. The typical symptoms of ascending cholangitis are jaundice, fever (often accompanied by chills), and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. It is important to note that ascending cholangitis is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening, as patients often develop sepsis. Approximately 10-20% of patients may also experience altered mental status and low blood pressure due to septic shock. When these additional symptoms are present along with the classic triad of symptoms (Charcot’s triad), it is referred to as Reynold’s pentad. Urgent biliary drainage is the recommended treatment for ascending cholangitis. While a high white blood cell count is commonly seen in this condition, it is not considered part of Reynold’s pentad.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 185
Incorrect
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You are treating a patient who fell from a rooftop and has sustained a fracture to the left calcaneus. Which of the following injuries is frequently associated with calcaneal fractures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vertebral fracture
Explanation:When patients have calcaneal fractures, it is important to evaluate them for any additional injuries that may be present. These can include vertebral fractures, fractures in the opposite calcaneus, and injuries to the cuboid bone.
Further Reading:
Calcaneus fractures are a common type of lower limb and joint injury. The calcaneus, or heel bone, is the most frequently fractured tarsal bone. These fractures are often intra-articular, meaning they involve the joint. The most common cause of calcaneus fractures is a fall or jump from a height.
When assessing calcaneus fractures, X-rays are used to visualize the fracture lines. Two angles are commonly assessed to determine the severity of the fracture. Böhler’s angle, which measures the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus, should be between 20-40 degrees. If it is less than 20 degrees, it indicates a calcaneal fracture with flattening. The angle of Gissane, which measures the depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, should be between 120-145 degrees. An increased angle of Gissane suggests a calcaneal fracture.
In the emergency department, the management of a fractured calcaneus involves identifying the injury and any associated injuries, providing pain relief, elevating the affected limb(s), and referring the patient to an orthopedic specialist. It is important to be aware that calcaneus fractures are often accompanied by other injuries, such as bilateral fractures of vertebral fractures.
The definitive management of a fractured calcaneus can be done conservatively or through surgery, specifically open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The orthopedic team will typically order a CT or MRI scan to classify the fracture and determine the most appropriate treatment. However, a recent UK heel fracture trial suggests that in most cases, ORIF does not improve fracture outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 186
Incorrect
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You are overseeing the care of a trauma patient in the resuscitation bay. A chest tube has been inserted through thoracostomy to drain the hemothorax. The initial amount of blood drained is documented, and there are plans to monitor the additional blood volume drained every hour. What would be an indication for thoracotomy in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 250 ml blood drained from pleural cavity (in addition to previous volumes) between hours 2 and 3 post insertion
Explanation:The main indications for thoracotomy in patients with haemothorax are prompt drainage of at least 1500 ml of blood, ongoing blood loss of more than 200 ml per hour for 2-4 hours, and the need for continued blood transfusion. Option 3 in the given choices meets these criteria as the blood loss remains above 200 ml per hour for more than 2 hours after the drain is inserted. Option 1 does not meet the criteria as the blood volume is below 1500 ml. Option 2 does not meet the criteria as the blood loss has not been ongoing for at least 2 hours. Option 4 does not meet the criteria as there is no information indicating the need for ongoing blood transfusion.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A young hiker who got stranded while hiking in freezing temperatures is brought to the emergency department with severe hypothermia and experiences cardiac arrest during transportation. You are working in a hospital equipped with Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) facilities. The patient is transferred to undergo CPB treatment. What is the likelihood of survival in cases of hypothermic cardiac-respiratory arrest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.
ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.
Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.
Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old baby girl presents with a low-grade fever, feeding difficulties, and a persistent cough that have been present for the past three days. You suspect bronchiolitis as the diagnosis.
What is the MOST likely causative organism in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection that primarily affects infants. It typically occurs between the ages of 3-6 months and is most prevalent during the winter months from November to March. The main culprit behind bronchiolitis is the respiratory syncytial virus, accounting for about 70% of cases. However, other viruses like parainfluenza, influenza, adenovirus, coronavirus, and rhinovirus can also cause this infection.
The clinical presentation of bronchiolitis usually starts with symptoms resembling a common cold, which last for the first 2-3 days. Infants may experience poor feeding, rapid breathing (tachypnoea), nasal flaring, and grunting. Chest wall recessions, bilateral fine crepitations, and wheezing may also be observed. In severe cases, apnoea, a temporary cessation of breathing, can occur.
Bronchiolitis is a self-limiting illness, meaning it resolves on its own over time. Therefore, treatment mainly focuses on supportive care. However, infants with oxygen saturations below 92% may require oxygen administration. If an infant is unable to maintain oral intake or hydration, nasogastric feeding should be considered. Nasal suction is recommended to clear secretions in infants experiencing respiratory distress due to nasal blockage.
It is important to note that there is no evidence supporting the use of antivirals (such as ribavirin), antibiotics, beta 2 agonists, anticholinergics, or corticosteroids in the management of bronchiolitis. These interventions are not recommended for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is hit by a car while crossing the street. She is brought to the resus area of your Emergency Department by a blue light ambulance. A trauma call is initiated, and a primary survey is conducted. She is stable hemodynamically, and the only abnormality found is a severely swollen and deformed left thigh area. An X-ray is taken, which shows a fracture in the proximal femoral shaft. The child is experiencing significant pain, and you decide to apply skin traction to immobilize the fracture. You also plan to administer a dose of intranasal diamorphine.
The child weighs 15 kg. What is the appropriate dose of intranasal diamorphine to administer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 mg
Explanation:Femoral shaft fractures are quite common among children and have a significant impact on both the child and their family. It is important to carefully examine children with these fractures for any associated injuries, such as soft-tissue injury, head trauma, or additional fractures. In fact, up to 40% of children who experience a femoral shaft fracture due to high-energy trauma may have these associated injuries. Additionally, a thorough neurovascular examination should be conducted.
Rapidly immobilizing the limb is crucial for managing pain and limiting further blood loss from the fracture. For distal femoral shaft fractures, well-padded long leg splints with split plaster casts can be applied. However, for more proximal shaft fractures, long leg splints alone may not provide adequate control. In these cases, skin traction is a better option. Skin traction involves attaching a large foam pad to the patient’s lower leg using spray adhesive. A weight, approximately 10% of the child’s body weight, is then applied to the foam pad and allowed to hang over the foot of the bed. This constant longitudinal traction helps keep the bone fragments aligned.
When children experience severe pain, it is important to manage it aggressively yet safely. Immobilizing the fracture can provide significant relief. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine recommends other pain control measures for children, such as intranasal diamorphine (0.1 mg/kg in 0.2 ml sterile water), intravenous morphine (0.1-0.2 mg/kg), and oral analgesia (e.g., paracetamol 20 mg/kg, max 1 g, and ibuprofen 10 mg/kg, max 400 mg).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 190
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 32-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia.
Which of the following is NOT a recognized complication of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection does not have a connection with infective endocarditis. However, it is associated with various extra-pulmonary complications. These include skin conditions such as erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. In the central nervous system, it can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome, meningitis, encephalitis, optic neuritis, cerebellar ataxia, and cranial nerve palsies. Gastrointestinal symptoms may include anorexia, nausea, diarrhea, hepatitis, and pancreatitis. Hematological complications can manifest as cold agglutinins, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection can also cause pericarditis and myocarditis. Rheumatic symptoms such as arthralgia and arthritides may occur, and acute glomerulonephritis can affect the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension arrived at the emergency department with a sudden and severe occipital headache accompanied by vomiting and neck stiffness. There is no reported head injury. Upon clinical examination, the patient has a temperature of 37ºC, a respiratory rate of 18 per minute, a pulse of 88 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 160/100. The physician observes a lateral and inferior deviation of the left eye with a dilated pupil and drooping of the left upper eyelid.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH).
When assessing patients who present with an SAH, they may exhibit focal neurological signs, which can indicate the potential location of the aneurysm. Common areas where aneurysms occur include the bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery, the junction of the anterior communicating cerebral artery, and the junction of the posterior communicating artery with the internal carotid artery. If there is complete or partial paralysis of the oculomotor nerve, it suggests the rupture of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.
While hypertension is a risk factor for SAH, a significant increase in blood pressure may occur as a reflex response following the haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden pain in his left scrotum and fever for the past 5 days. Upon examination, the epididymis is swollen and tender, and the skin over the scrotum is red and warm. The pain is relieved when the scrotum is elevated. The patient has no known allergies to medications.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ofloxacin
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful sex, and a thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative and her last period was four weeks ago. Her temperature today is 38.6°C.
What is the MOST suitable initial test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endocervical swab
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix. The most common culprits are sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea, with chlamydia being the most prevalent infection seen in UK genitourinary medicine clinics.
PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms do occur, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It’s important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be mistaken for PID, so a pregnancy test should always be conducted in patients with suspicious symptoms.
To investigate a potential case of PID, endocervical swabs are taken to test for chlamydia and gonorrhea using nucleic acid amplification tests. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic treatment as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made, without waiting for swab results.
Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings. However, patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.
The current recommended treatment for outpatient cases of PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.
For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment consists of intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. Afterward, the treatment is switched to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day course.
If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with occasional right upper quadrant pain. The pain typically lasts for 20 to 45 minutes and then goes away on its own. Nausea frequently accompanies the pain. The pain tends to occur following the consumption of a high-fat meal.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of biliary colic. Biliary colic occurs when a gallstone temporarily blocks either the cystic duct or Hartmann’s pouch, leading to contractions in the gallbladder. The blockage is relieved when the stone either falls back into the gallbladder or passes through the duct.
Patients with biliary colic typically experience colicky pain in the upper right quadrant of their abdomen. This pain can last anywhere from 15 minutes to 24 hours and is often accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. It is not uncommon for the pain to radiate into the right scapula area.
Eating fatty foods can exacerbate the pain as they stimulate the release of cholecystokinin, which in turn causes the gallbladder to contract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman comes in with a history of two episodes of atrial fibrillation (AF). The most recent episode lasted for six days before resolving on its own. How would you classify the type of AF she has experienced?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal
Explanation:In order to gain a comprehensive understanding of AF management, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the terminology used to describe its various subtypes. These terms help categorize different episodes of AF based on their characteristics and outcomes.
Acute AF refers to any episode that occurs within the previous 48 hours. It can manifest with or without symptoms and may or may not recur. On the other hand, paroxysmal AF describes episodes that spontaneously end within 7 days, typically within 48 hours. While these episodes are often recurrent, they can progress into a sustained form of AF.
Recurrent AF is defined as experiencing two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes self-terminate, they are classified as paroxysmal AF. However, if the episodes do not self-terminate, they are categorized as persistent AF. Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days or has occurred after a previous cardioversion. To terminate persistent AF, electrical or pharmacological intervention is required. In some cases, persistent AF can progress into permanent AF.
Permanent AF, also known as Accepted AF, refers to episodes that cannot be successfully terminated, have relapsed after termination, or where cardioversion is not pursued. This subtype signifies a more chronic and ongoing form of AF.
By understanding and utilizing these terms, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate and manage the different subtypes of AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She has had four bowel movements in the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she is stable with a heart rate of 80 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/77. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there are no visible signs of anorectal bleeding during rectal examination.
What is the shock index for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.66
Explanation:The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for evaluating cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are useful in determining which patients should be referred for further assessment.
When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable is defined as having a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP). For example, if the heart rate is 80 and the systolic blood pressure is 120, the shock index would be 0.66.
For patients with stable bleeds, they should be further classified as either major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management) based on a risk assessment tool. The BSG recommends using the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.
Patients with a minor self-terminating bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for outpatient investigation.
Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital for a colonoscopy, which will be scheduled based on availability.
If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 after initial resuscitation, and/or active bleeding is suspected, CT angiography (CTA) should be considered, followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.
If no bleeding source is identified by initial CTA and the patient is stable, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.
If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.
Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding source using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.
Red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/d
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 67 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness, difficulty breathing, and heart palpitations. The patient reports that these symptoms began six hours ago. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are as follows:
- Blood pressure: 118/76 mmHg
- Pulse rate: 86 bpm
- Respiration rate: 15 bpm
- Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, confirming the presence of atrial fibrillation. As part of the treatment plan, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.
According to NICE guidelines, what is the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case is 2.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.
AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.
Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.
Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.
Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.
Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with short episodes of vertigo that worsen in the morning and are triggered by head movement. You suspect a diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).
Which straightforward bedside test can be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Dix-Hallpike test
Explanation:The Dix-Hallpike test is a straightforward examination that can be utilized to verify the diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).
To conduct the Dix-Hallpike test, the patient is swiftly brought down to a supine position with the neck extended by the clinician executing the maneuver. The test yields a positive result if the patient experiences a recurrence of their vertigo symptoms and the clinician performing the test observes nystagmus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes ago. She is currently using tissues to catch the drips and you have been asked to see her urgently by the triage nurse. Her vital signs are stable, and she has no signs of low blood pressure. You assess the patient and recommend applying firm pressure to the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose for at least 10 minutes.
What is the most effective measure to help stop the bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sucking an ice cube
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.
Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department by coworkers. The patient was having lunch when he started to experience wheezing and noticed swelling in his lips. He is immediately taken to the resuscitation bay. One of the coworkers mentions that they saw the patient take a pill with his meal. Which of the following medications or medication classes is the primary culprit for inducing anaphylaxis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibiotics
Explanation:In cases of anaphylaxis, it is important to administer non-sedating antihistamines after adrenaline administration and initial resuscitation. Previous guidelines recommended the use of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone as third line treatments, but the 2021 guidelines have removed this recommendation. Corticosteroids are no longer advised. Instead, it is now recommended to use non-sedating antihistamines such as cetirizine, loratadine, and fexofenadine, as alternatives to the sedating antihistamine chlorpheniramine. The top priority treatments for anaphylaxis are adrenaline, oxygen, and fluids. The Resuscitation Council advises that administration of non-sedating antihistamines should occur after the initial resuscitation.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.
In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.
Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.
The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.
The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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