-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of lethargy. He denies any other systemic symptoms. During the physical examination, a non-pulsatile mass is palpated in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which does not move with respiration. Additionally, he has pale conjunctivae. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Urgent referral to local colorectal service
Explanation:The presence of an abdominal mass along with symptoms of lethargy and pallor may indicate the likelihood of colorectal cancer, which could also lead to anaemia.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man seeks counselling for a vasectomy. What is a true statement about vasectomy?
Your Answer: Sexual intercourse should be avoided for one month to reduce the chance of a sperm granuloma
Correct Answer: Chronic testicular pain is seen in more than 5% of patients
Explanation:Vasectomy: A Simple and Effective Male Sterilisation Method
Vasectomy is a male sterilisation method that has a failure rate of 1 per 2,000, making it more effective than female sterilisation. The procedure is simple and can be done under local anesthesia, with some cases requiring general anesthesia. After the procedure, patients can go home after a couple of hours. However, it is important to note that vasectomy does not work immediately.
To ensure the success of the procedure, semen analysis needs to be performed twice following a vasectomy before a man can have unprotected sex. This is usually done at 12 weeks after the procedure. While vasectomy is generally safe, there are some complications that may arise, such as bruising, hematoma, infection, sperm granuloma, and chronic testicular pain. This pain affects between 5-30% of men.
In the event that a man wishes to reverse the procedure, the success rate of vasectomy reversal is up to 55% if done within 10 years. However, the success rate drops to approximately 25% after more than 10 years. Overall, vasectomy is a simple and effective method of male sterilisation, but it is important to consider the potential complications and the need for semen analysis before engaging in unprotected sex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful left calf. This has been slowly getting worse for the past 2 days and came without any warning. He uses cocaine regularly but has otherwise no medical history of note. He admits to sometimes using blood vessels on his hands and the front of his elbow to inject.
On examination, the left calf is paler than his right. Radial pulses can be felt, but his extensor digitorum is difficult to find on the left. He is unable to move his left foot. There is no tenderness, changes in calf size or systemic upset.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute limb ischaemia
Explanation:The 6 P’s – pale, pulseless, pain, paralysis, paraesthesia, and perishingly cold – are characteristic symptoms of acute limb-threatening ischaemia. A man with a sudden onset of lower leg pain, loss of distal pulses, pallor, and paralysis may have developed an arterial thrombus due to heroin injection into an artery instead of a vein. Although not all 6 symptoms may be present, this constellation of symptoms should raise suspicion of acute limb ischaemia. Compartment syndrome, which typically presents with tenderness and a precipitating event, is an important differential diagnosis. Critical limb ischaemia, caused by chronic arterial occlusion, is unlikely in this case as symptoms would have been present for longer than 2 weeks. Deep vein thrombosis, which presents with redness, swelling, and tenderness, is another important differential diagnosis that can be ruled out in this scenario.
Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man has come to the clinic with a recent rectal bleed. He reports passing around 200 ml of fresh blood. During the examination, he appears stable and experiences no abdominal discomfort. Rectal examination shows fresh blood on the glove. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemorrhoids
Correct Answer: Angiodysplasia
Explanation:Causes and Management of Rectal Bleeding in the Elderly
Rectal bleeding is a common complaint among elderly patients, with most cases resolving with conservative measures. The leading cause of fresh rectal bleeding in this population is diverticular disease, followed by angiodysplasia, which is a malformation of the intestinal blood vessels. Colon cancer rarely presents with bleeding, and bleeding hemorrhoids are uncommon in the elderly. On the other hand, rectal bleeding resulting from a duodenal ulcer is usually severe and can rapidly lead to hemodynamic instability. In such cases, patients are treated with transfusion as necessary.
Angiodysplasia is characterized by cherry-red areas seen during colonoscopy, and it is thought to result from obstruction of the mucosal veins. To confirm the cause of severe rectal bleeding, selective mesenteric angiography is performed. This diagnostic procedure also allows for the control of bleeding by selectively embolizing the offending vessel. Overall, prompt evaluation and management of rectal bleeding in the elderly are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 56-year-old man visits your clinic with a complaint of altered bowel habit for the past 4 weeks. He also reports per rectal bleeding mixed with his stool, tenesmus after defecation, and a weight loss of 6 kilos in the last 8 weeks. Upon performing a PR examination, you detect a mass on the rectum's posterior wall, approximately 10 cm from the anal verge. The mass is irregular and measures 9 cm in diameter. You suspect rectal cancer and order an urgent suspected cancer review and colonoscopy. If your suspicions are correct, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of mortality rates. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%. Understanding the location of the cancer is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. With early detection and proper medical care, the prognosis for colorectal cancer can be improved.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 49-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner after discovering a suspicious lump in her left breast. Upon referral to a breast surgeon, she is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm HER2+ carcinoma. Although there are no palpable axillary lymph nodes during clinical examination, her pre-operative axillary ultrasound reveals multiple nodes that appear suspicious. What is the recommended course of action for managing the patient's axilla?
Your Answer: Sentinel node biopsy
Explanation:If a woman with breast cancer does not have any detectable lymph node swelling, a pre-operative axillary ultrasound can be used to identify any suspicious nodes. If a positive result is obtained, a sentinel node biopsy should be performed to determine the extent of nodal metastasis. This is preferred over a total axillary node clearance as it is less invasive. Letrozole is recommended for controlling the recurrence of the primary tumor in cases of ER+ disease. In situations where extensive nodal burden is identified during SNB, axillary radiotherapy can be used as an alternative to axillary node clearance. However, axillary clearance should not be the first option for managing axillary metastases, unless the sentinel node biopsy reveals a large number of involved nodes. The source of this information is the 2018 Nice guideline NG101.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following would be most consistent with a histologically aggressive form of prostate cancer?
Your Answer: FIGO stage IV disease
Correct Answer: Gleason score of 10
Explanation:The Gleason score is utilized to grade prostate cancer based on its histology, with a score of 10 indicating a highly aggressive form of the disease. Gynecological malignancies are staged using the FIGO system, while the EuroQOL score serves as a tool for measuring quality of life.
Prostate cancer is a common condition that affects up to 30,000 men each year in the UK, with up to 9,000 dying from the disease annually. Early prostate cancers often have few symptoms, while metastatic disease may present as bone pain and locally advanced disease may present as pelvic pain or urinary symptoms. Diagnosis involves prostate specific antigen measurement, digital rectal examination, trans rectal USS (+/- biopsy), and MRI/CT and bone scan for staging. The normal upper limit for PSA is 4ng/ml, but false positives may occur due to prostatitis, UTI, BPH, or vigorous DRE. Pathology shows that 95% of prostate cancers are adenocarcinomas, and grading is done using the Gleason grading system. Treatment options include watchful waiting, radiotherapy, surgery, and hormonal therapy. The National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends active surveillance as the preferred option for low-risk men, with treatment decisions made based on the individual’s co-morbidities and life expectancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
What is the most frequent non-cancerous bone tumor in individuals under the age of 21?
Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Correct Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondroma: The Most Common Skeletal Neoplasm
Osteochondroma, also known as osteocartilaginous exostosis, is a prevalent type of benign bone tumor. It accounts for 20-50% of all benign bone tumors and 10-15% of all bone tumors. This type of tumor is characterized by a cartilage-capped subperiosteal bone projection. Osteochondromas are most commonly found in the first two decades of life, with a male to female ratio of 1.5:1.
The most common location for osteochondromas is in long bones, particularly around the knee, with 40% of the tumors occurring in the distal femur and proximal tibia. Despite being benign, osteochondromas can cause complications such as nerve compression, vascular compromise, and skeletal deformities. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 76-year-old male presents with a one day history of abdominal distension and vomiting.
Upon examination, there is an irreducible lump in the right groin arising below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. A plain abdominal radiograph reveals distended loops of small bowel.
Which of the following hernias are most likely to have caused these symptoms?Your Answer: Femoral
Explanation:Small Bowel Obstruction and Femoral Hernias
This patient is experiencing a small bowel obstruction, which is likely caused by an obstructed femoral hernia. The lump in the left groin that cannot be reduced arises below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, indicating a femoral hernia rather than an inguinal hernia, which would produce a lump above and medial to the pubic tubercle. Femoral hernias are the third most common type of hernia, with a higher incidence in elderly multiparous women. It is important to repair all femoral hernias, as 40% of cases are strangulated upon initial presentation. If the overlying skin becomes erythematosus, it is a sign of poor outcome. Obturator hernias are rare and typically do not present with a lump.
Overall, it is crucial to identify the type of hernia causing a small bowel obstruction in order to provide appropriate treatment. Femoral hernias, in particular, require prompt repair to prevent strangulation and potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following is not a diagnostic criteria for brain death?
Your Answer: No response to sound
Explanation:Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death
Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.
The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.
It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)