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  • Question 1 - What is the most suitable medication for a pregnant woman experiencing symptoms of...

    Correct

    • What is the most suitable medication for a pregnant woman experiencing symptoms of a mixed affective state?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Due to the patient’s pregnancy, mood stabilisers cannot be used as a traditional treatment for their mixed affective state, which presents symptoms of both mania and depression. Instead, an antipsychotic is the preferred course of action.

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - In a healthy right-handed man, which structure is typically larger in the left...

    Correct

    • In a healthy right-handed man, which structure is typically larger in the left hemisphere compared to the right hemisphere?

      Your Answer: Planum temporale

      Explanation:

      Cerebral Asymmetry in Planum Temporale and its Implications in Language and Auditory Processing

      The planum temporale, a triangular region in the posterior superior temporal gyrus, is a highly lateralized brain structure involved in language and music processing. Studies have shown that the planum temporale is up to ten times larger in the left cerebral hemisphere than the right, with this asymmetry being more prominent in men. This asymmetry can be observed in gestation and is present in up to 70% of right-handed individuals.

      Recent research suggests that the planum temporale also plays an important role in auditory processing, specifically in representing the location of sounds in space. However, reduced planum temporale asymmetry has been observed in individuals with dyslexia, stuttering, and schizophrenia. These findings highlight the importance of cerebral asymmetry in the planum temporale and its implications in language and auditory processing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - What is the difference between rapid cycling and non-rapid cycling bipolar disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the difference between rapid cycling and non-rapid cycling bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Rapid cycling is more common in those with a shorter duration of illness

      Correct Answer: Rapid cycling is more common in women

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following newly prescribed medications is most likely to trigger a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following newly prescribed medications is most likely to trigger a sudden onset of mania in a 70-year-old patient with no prior psychiatric history?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs

      There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

      Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - What is the preferred medication for treating alcohol withdrawal in a patient who...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred medication for treating alcohol withdrawal in a patient who has significant liver damage?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Sedatives and Liver Disease

      Sedatives are commonly used for their calming effects, but many of them are metabolized in the liver. Therefore, caution must be taken when administering sedatives to patients with liver disease. The Maudsley Guidelines recommend using low doses of the following sedatives in patients with hepatic impairment: lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam, and zopiclone. It is important to note that zopiclone should also be used with caution and at low doses in this population. Proper management of sedative use in patients with liver disease can help prevent further damage to the liver and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - What symptom is commonly observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa? ...

    Correct

    • What symptom is commonly observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa often leads to constipation as a common complication.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism? ...

    Correct

    • What scales are suitable for assessing drug-induced Parkinsonism?

      Your Answer: Simpson-Angus scale

      Explanation:

      The Simpson-Angus scale was created to evaluate parkinsonism caused by medication, utilizing consistent assessments for stiffness, shaking, and excessive saliva production. The scale solely relies on observable symptoms.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - What is the most effective treatment for PTSD in adolescents? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective treatment for PTSD in adolescents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trauma focussed CBT

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the recommended initial treatment for PTSD is trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia asks for information regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia asks for information regarding their prognosis. What factor has been consistently linked to a poor prognosis in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Younger age of onset

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Epidemiology

      Prevalence:
      – In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
      – Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
      – The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
      – Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.

      Incidence:
      – In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
      – Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.

      Gender:
      – The male to female ratio is 1:1.

      Course and Prognosis:
      – Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
      – Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
      – Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
      – Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
      – Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
      – People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.

      Winter Births:
      – Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.

      Urbanicity:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.

      Migration:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.

      Class:
      – There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.

      Learning Disability:
      – Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - Which statement about St John's Wort is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about St John's Wort is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is recommended as an alternative to standard antidepressants

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort is a commonly used herbal remedy for mild depression, but it should not be recommended or prescribed for this purpose. This is because it can cause drug metabolising enzymes to be induced, which can lead to interactions with other medications, including conventional antidepressants. It is important to note that the amount of active ingredient in different preparations of St John’s Wort can vary, and switching between them can alter the degree of enzyme induction. If a patient stops taking St John’s Wort, the concentrations of interacting drugs may increase, which can result in toxicity. These concerns are outlined in the BNF 61.

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following sedatives is not recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following sedatives is not recommended by the Maudsley Guidelines for people with hepatic impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrazepam

      Explanation:

      Sedatives and Liver Disease

      Sedatives are commonly used for their calming effects, but many of them are metabolized in the liver. Therefore, caution must be taken when administering sedatives to patients with liver disease. The Maudsley Guidelines recommend using low doses of the following sedatives in patients with hepatic impairment: lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam, and zopiclone. It is important to note that zopiclone should also be used with caution and at low doses in this population. Proper management of sedative use in patients with liver disease can help prevent further damage to the liver and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - Which statement accurately describes the CATIE study? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the CATIE study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine was found to be more effective than the other atypical antipsychotics used in phase I

      Explanation:

      Olanzapine was found to have the highest duration of treatment before discontinuation due to inadequate efficacy, the longest period of successful treatment, and the lowest number of hospitalizations caused by worsening of schizophrenia among the patients.

      CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment

      The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.

      Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.

      The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

      Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

      The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A male patient with anorexia nervosa would likely have elevated levels of which...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient with anorexia nervosa would likely have elevated levels of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver enzymes

      Explanation:

      In individuals with anorexia, the majority of their blood test results are typically below normal levels, with the exception of growth hormone, cholesterol, and cortisol.

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old male shows resistance towards consuming meals that are made for him....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male shows resistance towards consuming meals that are made for him. What would be the most indicative of a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She achieves high grades at school

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a disorder characterized by an abnormal perception of body image. However, there are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. This test aims to assess your knowledge of differential diagnoses and features that may indicate an alternative diagnosis.

      Patients with anorexia nervosa often feel well despite others’ concerns about their appearance. They may also be highly motivated and successful in their academic of professional pursuits. However, the absence of delusions about food being poisoned may suggest a different diagnosis, such as a psychotic illness.

      Heavy drinking is another factor that may indicate a different diagnosis, such as alcoholism. On the other hand, if the patient is secretly abusing laxatives, this would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa rather than the use of anabolic agents.

      In summary, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with symptoms of anorexia nervosa. Factors such as delusions, heavy drinking, of the use of anabolic agents may suggest a different underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - What is the frequency of episodes of mania, hypomania, of depression within a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the frequency of episodes of mania, hypomania, of depression within a 12 month period that characterizes rapid cycling bipolar affective disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 of more

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A teenager complains that her boyfriend is extremely conceited, believes he is the...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager complains that her boyfriend is extremely conceited, believes he is the center of the universe, and will go to any lengths to achieve his desires. What personality disorder is he most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The inclination to prioritize one’s own desires over others, regardless of the consequences, is a shared characteristic of both antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders. Nevertheless, the conceitedness and exaggerated belief in one’s own significance are particularly indicative of narcissistic personality disorder.

      Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)

      Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - What is the appropriate course of action for an adult with ADHD who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate course of action for an adult with ADHD who experiences tics as a side effect of taking methylphenidate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (ng87 1.8.14), atomoxetine is the recommended medication in this situation, rather than clonidine or guanfacine.

      ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - Which drug is known to have the smallest impact on the threshold for...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is known to have the smallest impact on the threshold for seizures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Individuals with epilepsy are at a low risk when taking sertraline.

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - Among the listed medications, which one has the strongest evidence for reducing persistent...

    Incorrect

    • Among the listed medications, which one has the strongest evidence for reducing persistent aggression and violence in individuals with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Recent research suggests that clozapine may be effective in reducing persistent aggression in individuals with schizophrenia, even independent of its antipsychotic properties. However, this evidence is largely based on uncontrolled trials. Additionally, there is some indication that mood stabilizers, specifically carbamazepine, may be helpful as an adjunct treatment for assaultive behavior in schizophrenia. On the other hand, there is currently no strong evidence to support the use of benzodiazepines of high-dose antipsychotics for chronic aggression in this population. These findings were discussed in a 2005 article by Davison on the management of violence in general psychiatry.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A colleague in primary care contacts you for advice regarding a case of...

    Incorrect

    • A colleague in primary care contacts you for advice regarding a case of mild panic disorder in a 35-year-old woman. Medical causes have been ruled out.

      According to NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Individual self-help

      Explanation:

      Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.

      Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - What is the approximate lifetime prevalence of OCD? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the approximate lifetime prevalence of OCD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.50%

      Explanation:

      Approximately, what percentage of individuals are estimated to experience OCD at some point in their lifetime?

      Maudsley Guidelines

      First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)

      Second line:

      – SSRI + antipsychotic
      – Citalopram + clomipramine
      – Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
      – Lamotrigine + SSRI
      – Topiramate + SSRI

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - A 38-year-old lady attends clinic for a medication review. She has been established...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady attends clinic for a medication review. She has been established on lithium carbonate, once daily, for prophylaxis of recurrent depression for several years and has had stable levels. She also suffers from ankylosing spondylitis for which she has been prescribed celecoxib for many years. Her lithium level was checked three days prior to her appointment and was 0.6 mmol/L.

      When should her next lithium levels be checked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In three months

      Explanation:

      Patients taking lithium should be cautious when using celecoxib, an NSAID that has the potential to elevate lithium levels.

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following is not a recommended intervention for panic disorder according...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recommended intervention for panic disorder according to NICE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Anxiety (NICE guidelines)

      The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - Which antipsychotic is not advised by NICE for managing acute mania? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic is not advised by NICE for managing acute mania?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old patient presents with daily auditory hallucinations, delusional beliefs, and avolition that...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old patient presents with daily auditory hallucinations, delusional beliefs, and avolition that have been ongoing for five weeks. The patient had a two-month history of anxiety and increased social isolation prior to the onset of these symptoms.
      What is the most suitable ICD-11 diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of hallucinations and delusions that have been present for five weeks meet the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia according to the ICD-11. It should be noted that schizophreniform disorder is not recognized as a diagnosis in the ICD-11, but rather in the DSM-5. In the DSM-5, schizophreniform disorder is considered an intermediate diagnosis between brief psychotic disorder (similar to acute and transient psychotic disorder in the ICD-11) and schizophrenia.

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - What statement accurately describes the World Mental Health Survey Initiative? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It includes information on severity

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that England is not involved in the WMH Survey Initiative, which may limit the generalizability of the study’s findings to our own communities.

      World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries

      The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.

      As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - What condition is linked to the occurrence of rapid cycling bipolar disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is linked to the occurrence of rapid cycling bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - What evidence would be most indicative of a diagnosis of mania? ...

    Incorrect

    • What evidence would be most indicative of a diagnosis of mania?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mood congruent delusions

      Explanation:

      Mania: Features and Characteristics

      Mania is a mental state characterized by a range of symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s behavior, thoughts, and emotions. Some of the key features of mania include an elated of irritable mood, restlessness, and overactivity. People experiencing mania may also exhibit disinhibited and reckless behavior, such as excessive spending of engaging in risky activities. They may have over-ambitious plans for the future and experience a flight of ideas and pressured speech. Additionally, mania can involve mood congruent delusions, increased libido, and a decreased need for sleep. Overall, mania can be a challenging and disruptive condition that requires professional treatment and support.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - What is the recommended approach for managing a patient with severe depression according...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended approach for managing a patient with severe depression according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SSRI + high-intensity psychological interventions

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:

      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
      – Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
      – After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
      – Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
      – Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.

      The stepped care approach involves the following steps:

      – Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
      – Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.

      Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.

      NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.

      NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.

      When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.

      The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - What is a licensed treatment for PTSD? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a licensed treatment for PTSD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      While NICE recommends mirtazapine for the treatment of PTSD, its license only permits its use for major depression.

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

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  • Question 32 - Which antipsychotic medication is most commonly linked to elevated TSH levels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication is most commonly linked to elevated TSH levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs

      Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.

      One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.

      Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.

      AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.

      TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.

      Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).

      Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 33 - Which condition is linked to sialadenosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is linked to sialadenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia

      Explanation:

      Sialadenosis is the term used to describe the enlargement of the salivary glands, particularly the parotids, without any inflammation. This condition is typically recurrent and is commonly linked to an underlying systemic disorder such as alcoholism, diabetes, malnutrition, bulimia, and anorexia nervosa.

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 34 - Which treatment option is not suggested by the Maudsley Guidelines to enhance the...

    Incorrect

    • Which treatment option is not suggested by the Maudsley Guidelines to enhance the effectiveness of clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley Guidelines, there is insufficient evidence to support the use of olanzapine as an addition to treatment, and it may worsen metabolic side effects.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 35 - What is a true statement about medication prescribed for insomnia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about medication prescribed for insomnia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolerance to the hypnotic effects of benzodiazepines may occur within a few days

      Explanation:

      Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.

      Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 36 - A 30-year-old female who has experienced Herpes encephalitis presents with significant weight gain...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female who has experienced Herpes encephalitis presents with significant weight gain and intense cravings for carbohydrates. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 37 - An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression....

    Incorrect

    • An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression. You note a number of cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck. These are also apparent on the mucous membranes. Which of the following would you most suspect?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumor that develops due to human herpesvirus 8. When associated with AIDS, it typically appears as red to purple-red macules on the skin that quickly progress to papules, nodules, and plaques. These lesions are commonly found on the head, back, neck, trunk, and mucous membranes, and can also occur in the lymph nodes, stomach, intestines, and lungs. Individuals with severe mental illness are at a higher risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and have a greater prevalence of HIV infection compared to the general population. Therefore, it is important to have a basic understanding of the symptoms of this condition.

      HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.

      Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.

      Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 38 - Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of bulimia nervosa?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of bulimia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications

      Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - What was the most common disorder identified in the Epidemiological Catchment Area study?...

    Incorrect

    • What was the most common disorder identified in the Epidemiological Catchment Area study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Substance misuse disorders

      Explanation:

      The most common disorder identified in the study was substance misuse, which encompassed both alcohol and drug use. This finding differs from the National Psychiatric Morbidity Survey, which reported neurotic disorders as the most prevalent. However, this discrepancy is likely due to differences in study design rather than actual differences in prevalence. The ECA study specifically identified high rates of alcohol dependence and illicit drug use, but presented these findings as distinct categories.

      Epidemiological Catchment Area Study: A Landmark Community-Based Survey

      The Epidemiological Catchment Area Study (ECA) was a significant survey conducted in five US communities from 1980-1985. The study included 20,000 participants, with 3000 community residents and 500 residents of institutions sampled in each site. The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) was used to conduct two interviews over a year with each participant.

      However, the DIS diagnosis of schizophrenia was not consistent with psychiatrists’ classification, with only 20% of cases identified by the DIS in the Baltimore ECA site matching the psychiatrist’s diagnosis. Despite this, the ECA produced valuable findings, including a lifetime prevalence rate of 32.3% for any disorder, 16.4% for substance misuse disorder, 14.6% for anxiety disorder, 8.3% for affective disorder, 1.5% for schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder, and 0.1% for somatization disorder.

      The ECA also found that phobia had a one-month prevalence of 12.5%, generalized anxiety and depression had a prevalence of 8.5%, obsessive-compulsive disorder had a prevalence of 2.5%, and panic had a prevalence of 1.6%. Overall, the ECA was a landmark community-based survey that provided valuable insights into the prevalence of mental disorders in the US.

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      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 40 - What symptom of characteristic would indicate a diagnosis of avoidant-restrictive food intake disorder...

    Incorrect

    • What symptom of characteristic would indicate a diagnosis of avoidant-restrictive food intake disorder instead of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The pattern of eating behaviour is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight

      Explanation:

      Avoidant-restrictive food intake disorder can manifest in individuals of all ages, with some cases beginning in early childhood while others may present in older children, adolescents, of adults. Both males and females can be affected by this condition, which is characterized by a pattern of restricted eating and significantly low body weight, leading to similar health-related consequences as seen in anorexia nervosa. The key difference is that in anorexia nervosa, the desire for thinness of fear of weight gain is the primary motivator for maintaining an abnormally low body weight.

      Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.

      Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.

      It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 41 - Which symptom is not commonly linked to PTSD? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which symptom is not commonly linked to PTSD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Common signs of PTSD may include:

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 42 - How can histrionic personality disorder be identified? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can histrionic personality disorder be identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impressionistic and vague speech

      Explanation:

      Impressionistic and vague speech is a diagnostic criterion for histrionic personality disorder according to the DSM-5, while the other listed elements are characteristic of the borderline pattern as defined by the ICD-11.

      Personality Disorder: Histrionic

      A histrionic personality disorder, also known as a dramatic personality disorder, is a psychiatric condition characterized by a consistent pattern of attention-seeking behaviors and exaggerated emotional responses. To diagnose this disorder, the DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five of the following symptoms: discomfort when not the center of attention, seductive of provocative behavior, shallow and shifting emotions, using appearance to draw attention, vague and impressionistic speech, dramatic of exaggerated emotions, suggestibility, and considering relationships to be more intimate than they actually are. However, the ICD-11 has removed the diagnosis of histrionic personality disorder from its list of recognized disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 43 - Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of anxiety? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tightness in the throat

      Explanation:

      Globus, a sensation of tightness of feeling of something stuck in the throat, can be caused by stress of anxiety. It is a common symptom that often improves after eating and is not considered a serious condition. Despite being bothersome, globus is generally harmless.

      Generalised Anxiety Disorder: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Generalised anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by persistent symptoms of anxiety that last for several months and occur on most days. The symptoms can be either general apprehension of excessive worry about multiple everyday events, such as family, health, finances, and work of school. In addition to these symptoms, individuals with generalised anxiety disorder may experience muscular tension, motor restlessness, sympathetic autonomic overactivity, nervousness, difficulty concentrating, irritability, of sleep disturbance.

      To diagnose generalised anxiety disorder, healthcare professionals look for specific essential features. These include marked symptoms of anxiety that are not restricted to any particular environmental circumstance, and are accompanied by additional characteristic symptoms such as muscle tension, autonomic overactivity, nervousness, difficulty concentrating, irritability, and sleep disturbances. The symptoms must persist for at least several months, for more days than not, and cannot be better accounted for by another mental disorder of medical condition. The symptoms must also result in significant distress of impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 44 - What is your suspicion regarding the male remand prisoner's condition based on his...

    Incorrect

    • What is your suspicion regarding the male remand prisoner's condition based on his inconsistent responses during the interview, despite retaining core details about his identity and awareness of his surroundings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ganser's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Ganser’s syndrome is a disputed diagnosis that typically involves vague responses, confusion, physical symptoms without a clear medical explanation, false perceptions, and memory loss for the time when the symptoms were present. It is commonly observed in incarcerated individuals awaiting trial and seems to be a manifestation of their perception of what a psychotic disorder entails. As a result, some experts argue that it is a type of feigning illness. The condition is classified as a dissociative disorder.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 45 - A 32 year old man with a long standing history of bipolar disorder...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man with a long standing history of bipolar disorder is referred by his GP for a medication review. He is prescribed semi-sodium valproate 750 mg twice daily. He has been low in mood for over 2 months, has a reduced appetite and has lost some weight. He is currently 65kg.
      Which of the following would NICE guidelines recommend at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose of semi-sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      The man is experiencing depression. The initial step would be to assess if an elevated dosage of semi-sodium valproate could alleviate his symptoms. The typical dosage of semi-sodium valproate is 1-2G per day, divided into multiple doses. It is recommended to avoid doses exceeding 45 mg/kg, of at least monitor closely. However, considering his weight of 65kg, he could tolerate 1G twice daily. It is advisable to avoid introducing additional medications whenever possible, as each new medication carries the risk of potential side effects.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 46 - According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, which of the following refers to hypomania of...

    Incorrect

    • According to Klerman's bipolar subtypes, which of the following refers to hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar IV

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes

      Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.

      In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.

      Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.

      Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).

      Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 47 - What measures should be taken to address erratic compliance in individuals with bipolar...

    Incorrect

    • What measures should be taken to address erratic compliance in individuals with bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Patients who are likely to have poor compliance should avoid intermittent treatment with lithium as it can exacerbate the natural progression of bipolar disorder, according to the Maudsley 13th Edition.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - A 72 year old man with a progressive history of breathlessness is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old man with a progressive history of breathlessness is brought to the emergency department by his daughter. She reports that his breathing has recently worsened. Upon diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, he is prescribed several new medications. However, two weeks later, he returns to the emergency department with his daughter reporting that he has stopped sleeping, has become agitated, and will not stop talking. What is the most probable cause of his new presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Budesonide

      Explanation:

      Budesonide is a type of steroid that is often administered through an inhaler to manage asthma symptoms. However, it has been noted that the use of inhaled steroids can trigger episodes of hypomania and mania. This information was reported in a study by E Brown et al. titled The psychiatric side effects of corticosteroids, which was published in the Annals of Allergy, Asthma & Immunology in 1999.

      Drug-Induced Mania: Evidence and Precipitating Drugs

      There is strong evidence that mania can be triggered by certain drugs, according to Peet (1995). These drugs include levodopa, corticosteroids, anabolic-androgenic steroids, and certain classes of antidepressants such as tricyclic and monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

      Additionally, Peet (2012) suggests that there is weaker evidence that mania can be induced by dopaminergic anti-Parkinsonian drugs, thyroxine, iproniazid and isoniazid, sympathomimetic drugs, chloroquine, baclofen, alprazolam, captopril, amphetamine, and phencyclidine.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for drug-induced mania and to monitor patients closely for any signs of symptoms. Patients should also be informed of the risks associated with these medications and advised to report any unusual changes in mood of behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 49 - Which of the following symptoms would not be indicative of PTSD in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms would not be indicative of PTSD in a soldier who has been referred by their GP due to concerns about mental health issues resulting from their experience in the Iraq war?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is planning to return to Iraq to seek revenge

      Explanation:

      It is typical for individuals with PTSD to try to steer clear of circumstances that trigger memories of the traumatic event.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - What methods can be employed to increase the number of white blood cells...

    Incorrect

    • What methods can be employed to increase the number of white blood cells in individuals with neutropenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (6/7) 86%
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