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  • Question 1 - You are asked to see a 3-day-old newborn baby who was born by...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 3-day-old newborn baby who was born by normal vaginal delivery without any complications. The parents report that the baby has suddenly become ill and deteriorated over the last few hours. The child is drowsy and lethargic, has a bulging fontanelle, and a high fever. You suspect meningitis and call for immediate transfer to the hospital.
      What is the most probable causative agent for this condition?

      Your Answer: Listeria monocytogenes

      Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Newborn Meningitis: Signs, Causes, and Consequences

      Sepsis in newborns can cause nonspecific signs of unwellness, such as apnoeic episodes, drowsiness, lethargy, and irritability. However, meningitis in newborns may present differently, with a bulging fontanelle being a late and sometimes absent finding. The most common cause of meningitis in newborns is group B streptococcus (GBS), which is often transmitted vertically during labor and delivery. In some cases, infection may be delayed for up to one month.

      Meningitis as a whole has significant morbidity and mortality rates, with a mortality rate of 5-15% in infants. Even those who survive may experience learning difficulties, speech problems, visual impairment, and neural deafness. Recently, NICE has issued guidance on the prehospital care of patients with a clinical diagnosis of meningitis. It is crucial to recognize the signs of meningitis in newborns and seek prompt medical attention to prevent severe consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 2 - You have a follow-up appointment with a 4-year-old boy. He was seen two...

    Incorrect

    • You have a follow-up appointment with a 4-year-old boy. He was seen two weeks ago for left-sided ear pain and discharge, for which you prescribed amoxicillin. Today, his mother reports that he has improved and she has been able to keep his ear dry. However, upon examination of the left ear, a tympanic membrane perforation is observed. What should be done next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise to keep ear dry and see in a further 4 weeks time

      Explanation:

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.

      If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 3 - You are reviewing a 40-year-old lady who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 40-year-old lady who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). She presented to you with swollen and tender multiple metacarpal-phalangeal (MCP) joints. Blood tests revealed a raised rheumatoid factor, and you referred her urgently to rheumatology.

      She was seen by a rheumatologist last week who diagnosed RA and started treatment.

      Can you provide her with some additional information about RA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis predisposes a patient to lymphoproliferative diseases

      Explanation:

      Lymphoproliferative diseases, especially lymphoma, are more likely to occur in individuals with RA. Additionally, RA increases the risk of infection by about two-fold, with chest infections and sepsis being particularly concerning. Furthermore, those with RA have a higher likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease compared to the general population.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 4 - A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
    You want to...

    Incorrect

    • A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
      You want to know what proportion of patients with Alzheimer's disease would be accurately diagnosed by this new test.
      What value would indicate this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Positive Predictive Value in Medical Testing

      Medical testing is an essential tool in diagnosing diseases and conditions. Two important measures in evaluating the effectiveness of a test are sensitivity and positive predictive value. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of patients with the disease who are correctly identified by the test. In other words, it measures the accuracy of the test in detecting true positives. On the other hand, positive predictive value refers to the percentage of people who test positive for the disease and actually have it. This measure takes into account the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested and helps to determine the likelihood of a positive test result being a true positive. Understanding these measures is crucial in interpreting medical test results and making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits his GP complaining of milky discharge from his nipples. His blood test results show a prolactin level of 700 mu/l. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      There are several causes of raised prolactin, which can be remembered using the letter P. These include pregnancy, prolactinoma (a type of pituitary tumor), physiological changes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, primary hypothyroidism, and the use of certain medications such as phenothiazines, metoclopramide, and domperidone. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like fluoxetine have been linked to hyperprolactinemia in rare cases, the most likely culprit in this patient is metoclopramide. It’s worth noting that cimetidine is typically associated with gynecomastia rather than galactorrhea, although this side effect is considered very rare according to the British National Formulary.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 6-month-old, full-term boy presents with a four-week history of regurgitation of feeds....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old, full-term boy presents with a four-week history of regurgitation of feeds. He is otherwise well, with a normal growth chart. Examination is also normal.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Explanation:

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux, also known as posseting, is a common occurrence in infants between 1-4 months of age due to the underdeveloped lower oesophageal sphincter. This condition is characterized by effortless regurgitation and doesn’t require any investigation or treatment as it usually resolves on its own as the child grows and adopts an upright posture. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, and urinary tract infection are not the correct diagnoses for this scenario. Infective gastroenteritis may cause sudden onset diarrhea and vomiting, but it doesn’t fit with the symptoms described in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 7 - A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a...

    Incorrect

    • A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a dark red patch on their child's cheek that appears irregular. After examination, you diagnose it as a port wine stain. What should the parents know about this type of birthmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tend to darken over time

      Explanation:

      Understanding Port Wine Stains

      Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that can help to fade the color and reduce the raised appearance of the stain. However, it’s important to note that multiple laser sessions may be required to achieve the desired results. Overall, understanding port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - Which drug is listed as having a severe interaction with Cimetidine, considering that...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug is listed as having a severe interaction with Cimetidine, considering that Ranitidine is unavailable due to a manufacturing problem and GP practices in the area are advised to prescribe Cimetidine as a potential cost-effective alternative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Cimetidine and Nifedipine Interaction

      Cimetidine and nifedipine have a severe interaction as cimetidine moderately increases the exposure to nifedipine. The manufacturer advises monitoring and adjusting the dose accordingly. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes interactions as severe (red) or moderate (amber). While the list of amber interactions for a drug can be extensive, it is crucial to focus on the most severe (red) ones, especially when it comes to exams or clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary stream, dysuria and urinary frequency. He denies any possibility of a sexually transmitted disease. He feels quite unwell. On examination, he has temperature of 38.7°C and digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a very tender and slightly enlarged prostate.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysuria and a Tender Prostate on DRE in Men

      When a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE), several conditions may be considered. Acute prostatitis is a likely diagnosis, especially if the patient also has lower urinary tract symptoms and fever. The cause is often a urinary tract infection, with Escherichia coli being the most common culprit. In sexually active men under 35, Neisseria gonorrhoeae should also be considered.

      Prostate cancer is less likely to present with acute symptoms and is more commonly associated with a gradual onset of symptoms or urinary retention. Cystitis is rare in men and would not explain the tender prostate on examination. Urethritis may cause dysuria and urinary frequency but is not typically associated with a tender prostate on DRE. Prostatic abscess should be suspected if symptoms worsen despite treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis or if a fluctuant mass is palpable in the prostate gland.

      In summary, when a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on DRE, acute prostatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions should also be considered based on the patient’s history and clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - A rather embarrassed 27-year-old man is seen at the out-of-hours centre complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A rather embarrassed 27-year-old man is seen at the out-of-hours centre complaining of dysuria and discharge from his penis. This started about a week earlier and is increasingly uncomfortable. He is normally fit and well. You send a urethral swab for microscopy and culture and urine sample for NAAT & microscopy & culture. The results come back showing a few pus cells in his urine but no growth on either culture & negative NAAT.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: nonspecific urethritis

      Explanation:

      Common Genitourinary Conditions and Diagnostic Methods

      Chronic prostatitis is a condition that often results in pain in the perineal area. Gonorrhoea, on the other hand, can be diagnosed through a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) using urine samples in men or through a positive culture of urethral discharge. Urinary tract infections (UTIs) can be detected through a midstream urine culture. Meanwhile, balanitis xerotica et obliterans is a chronic condition characterized by atrophic white patches on the foreskin and glans penis. These conditions can be diagnosed through various diagnostic methods, which are essential in determining the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
      Select the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C

      Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.

      In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 12 - Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions?...

    Incorrect

    • Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions? Choose ONE option from the list.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Anti-Ro (Anti-SSA) Autoantibodies in Various Autoimmune Diseases

      Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) autoantibodies are a type of antinuclear antibody (ANA) that bind to the contents of the cell nucleus. These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune diseases, including systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and Sjögren syndrome. In SLE, up to 50% of ANA-positive patients have the anti-Ro subtype, particularly if there is cutaneous involvement. In Sjögren syndrome, up to 90% of patients have anti-Ro antibodies. Anti-La (anti-SS-B) is also typically present in Sjögren syndrome but only in about 15% of SLE patients. Inflammatory myopathy, rheumatoid arthritis, and seronegative arthropathy have lower rates of anti-Ro presence, while vitiligo is not typically associated with these antibodies. Understanding the role of anti-Ro antibodies in different autoimmune diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has been waking him up at night for the past ten days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 20 minutes and causing him to feel restless and agitated. He also experiences tearing from his left eye and nasal congestion. During attacks, he has noticed his left eyelid drooping. He recalls having similar symptoms for a few weeks last year, but they went away on their own and he did not seek medical attention. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. He has been a smoker for most of his life.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Migraine, Paroxysmal Hemicrania, Temporal Arteritis, and Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Cluster headache is a type of headache disorder that commonly affects middle-aged men in clusters lasting weeks to months. Verapamil and prednisolone are used for prophylaxis, while sumatriptan and oxygen are the main treatments for the acute attack. Migraine lacks the specific features of cluster headache and tends to have bilateral autonomic symptoms. Paroxysmal hemicrania is another type of trigeminal autonomic cephalgia that occurs multiple times throughout the day but for shorter periods and is more frequently seen in women. It responds to indomethacin and is often used as a diagnostic aid. Temporal arteritis is unusual in this age group and is usually throbbing and continuous with focal tenderness on direct palpation. Trigeminal neuralgia is sometimes mistaken for cluster headache, but the attacks are much shorter and autonomic activation is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the...

    Incorrect

    • When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the total quantity in both words and figures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      In January 2008, midazolam was reclassified as a controlled drug under Schedule 3.

      Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.

      Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 15 - A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in elderly individuals. Assuming that IgE levels are normally distributed, what proportion of elderly individuals will have an IgE level greater than 2 standard deviations from the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18)...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is in the third week of her cycle (day 18) and calls the surgery on the Monday morning after a weekend away with her boyfriend to say that she has missed three of her combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take pills to the end of her third week, start a new pack and use barrier contraception for a week

      Explanation:

      Missed Birth Control Pills

      When a woman misses three or more birth control pills in the third week of her cycle, she should complete the third week but skip the pill-free period and start a new pack immediately. This advice is according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH). It is also recommended to use barrier contraception for seven days. On the other hand, if only one pill is missed, the woman can maintain the pill-free week. It is not usually necessary to extend the pill-free period beyond seven days. However, emergency contraception may be necessary depending on when the pills were missed. It is important to review the latest FSRH guidance before taking any exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7 mmol/l on testing by the GP. His father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 60-years old. He has no other risk factors and is well. However, he himself has three daughters.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a lipid specialist

      Explanation:

      Management of Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Here are some management options for a patient suspected of having FH:

      Refer to a lipid specialist: If there is strong evidence of FH, NICE recommends referral to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and cascade testing. This is important to identify affected relatives and provide appropriate management.

      Prescribe atorvastatin: Atorvastatin 20 mg daily is the drug of choice for a patient with confirmed heterozygous FH. It is a high-intensity statin that effectively lowers cholesterol levels.

      Provide dietary advice: Patients with FH should be offered individualised advice from a dietician to help manage their cholesterol levels. This may include reducing saturated fat intake and increasing consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

      Avoid simvastatin: Simvastatin is only a moderate-intensity statin and is not recommended as the first-line treatment for FH. High-intensity statins such as atorvastatin and rosuvastatin are preferred.

      Avoid combination therapy with a fibrate: While fibrates can lower cholesterol levels, they are not recommended for use in FH management. Statins and/or ezetimibe are the drugs of choice, and treatment should be initiated by a lipid specialist if needed.

      In summary, FH requires careful management to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Referral to a lipid specialist, prescribing atorvastatin, providing dietary advice, and avoiding certain medications can all help to effectively manage FH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.

    Which of the following statements regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.

      Which of the following statements regarding Norwegian scabies is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. Scabies spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. The infestation can be easily spread to sexual partners and household members, and may also occur by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.

      The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, breast, and shoulder blades. Treatment options for scabies include permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.

      It is important to note that whilst common scabies is not associated with eosinophilia, Norwegian scabies is associated with massive infestation, and as such, eosinophilia is a common finding. Norwegian scabies also carries a very high level of infectivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - You see a 29-year-old female patient who has been trying to conceive with...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 29-year-old female patient who has been trying to conceive with her partner for 18 months. They are both typically healthy and have not previously had a successful pregnancy. She has a regular menstrual cycle and is not taking any medications. She expresses interest in being referred to a fertility clinic, but you explain that she must first undergo some blood tests and her partner must have a semen analysis. You also discuss the most common reasons for fertility problems. However, her partner is hesitant about having a semen analysis. What percentage of infertile couples experience male infertility as the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.

      By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent 3.2 kg (7 lb) weight loss. His urine contains a small amount of ketones.
      Which of the following features would suggest this patient is most likely to have type II rather than type I diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High circulating insulin level

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Diabetes Mellitus: Clarifying the Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. However, there are still misconceptions about the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of this disease. In particular, there are several incorrect statements that need to be clarified.

      Firstly, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance and high insulin levels, not low insulin levels as in type I diabetes. Insulin resistance is a precursor to type II diabetes and is linked to a higher risk of developing heart disease. The causes of insulin resistance are both genetic and lifestyle-related.

      Secondly, HLA DR-3 is not associated with type I diabetes mellitus. Instead, this disease is linked to HLA DR-3 or DR-4.

      Thirdly, patients with type II diabetes typically have a high BMI (>25 kg/m2), not a BMI of 23 kg/m2.

      Fourthly, a plasma bicarbonate level of 8 mmol/l (normal range 24–30 mmol/l) is not commonly seen in patients with type II diabetes. While these patients may have + or ++ ketones in their urine, severe acidosis is more common in type I diabetes, with diabetic ketoacidosis being a potentially fatal complication.

      Finally, positive islet-cell antibodies are not associated with type II diabetes. Instead, type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder characterised by the presence of autoantibodies to the islet cell, insulin or glutamic acid dehydrogenase.

      In conclusion, it is important to clarify the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of diabetes mellitus to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who has presented with left groin pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who has presented with left groin pain. She has also noticed a clicking sensation in her hip when she moves. She is a keen runner and is unable to participate in races. She thinks the pain may have started after a twisting injury she had during one of her runs. On examination, you notice that she complains of pain adduction and internal rotation of the hip. She is afebrile, and there is no pain on palpation of the outside of the hip and no joint swelling. A recent X-ray of her hip was normal.

      What could be a possible cause of Sarah's pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetabula labral tear

      Explanation:

      Hip and groin pain accompanied by a snapping sensation are common symptoms of acetabular labral tears. On the other hand, plain radiographs can reveal left hip osteoarthritis and an acetabular fracture. Septic arthritis is characterized by hip swelling and fever, while trochanteric bursitis typically causes pain when the side of the hip is palpated. Acetabular labral tears are a mechanical cause of hip pain that may result from minor injuries like twisting or falling. Diagnosis usually requires an MRI.

      Acetabular labral tear is a condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of trauma, while older adults may develop it due to degenerative changes. The main symptoms of this condition include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking sensations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 22 - As a GP visiting a residential home patient, you encounter a 74-year-old female...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP visiting a residential home patient, you encounter a 74-year-old female with a 4 week history of oral ulceration. The patient reports experiencing pain and bleeding due to the condition. She also mentions that her dentures have not been fitting well, leading her to stop using them. Additionally, she has lost a few kilograms in weight over the past few weeks. Based on NICE guidelines for suspected cancer, which aspects of this patient's history would necessitate referral (within 2 weeks) for oral cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      Alcohol consumption is linked to 30% of cases in the UK.

      When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery

      Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.

      Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 23 - A mother brings her 9-year-old son who has been vomiting for the last...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 9-year-old son who has been vomiting for the last day. He reports that since he was 4 years old he has had vomiting episodes 6 to 10 times a year every 4 to 8 weeks. The episodes last for around a day and no clear trigger has been found. He is a well and happy child who is able to eat, drink and gain weight appropriately between these episodes.

      He has been thoroughly investigated previously and he has been diagnosed with cyclical vomiting syndrome (CVS).

      He has now developed a new symptom associated with his attacks where he complains of abdominal pain, headache, and a sensitivity to light and noise.

      What is the most likely cause of this new set of symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Patients who have cyclical vomiting syndrome have a high probability of developing migraines. The diagnosis of cyclical vomiting syndrome, along with the presence of migraine symptoms such as abdominal pain (which can occur in children), makes migraine the most likely diagnosis. Meningitis is unlikely due to normal examination findings, and meningioma is rare in children and less common than migraine. Gastroenteritis cannot explain the headache or sensitivity to light and noise. There is no indication in the patient’s history of drug overdose.

      Understanding Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome

      Cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that is more commonly seen in children than adults. Females are slightly more affected than males. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it has been observed that 80% of children and 25% of adults who develop CVS also have migraines.

      The symptoms of CVS include severe nausea and sudden vomiting that can last for hours to days. Patients may also experience intense sweating and nausea before an episode. However, they may feel well in between episodes. Other symptoms that may be present include weight loss, reduced appetite, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dizziness, photophobia, and headache.

      To diagnose CVS, doctors may perform routine blood tests to exclude any underlying conditions. A pregnancy test may also be considered in women. Treatment for CVS involves avoiding triggers and using prophylactic medications such as amitriptyline, propranolol, and topiramate. During acute episodes, medications such as ondansetron, prochlorperazine, and triptans may be used.

      In summary, cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that can be challenging to diagnose and manage. However, with proper treatment and avoidance of triggers, patients can experience relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth of her third child by emergency Caesarean section. After the birth, she needed a blood transfusion. She complained to the health visitor of increasing problems some seven days earlier but was told that this was to be expected after the birth of her child. She has a sodium concentration of 120 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l), a potassium concentration of 5.6 mmol/l (3.5–5.0 mmol/l) and a urea of 7.5 mmol/l (2.5–6.5 mmol/l.)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sheehan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sheehan Syndrome: A Rare Cause of Hypopituitarism

      Sheehan syndrome is a rare condition that occurs as a result of severe hypotension caused by massive hemorrhage during or after childbirth, leading to necrosis of the pituitary gland. This condition is more common in underdeveloped and developing countries. Patients with Sheehan syndrome have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency, which can present progressively with symptoms such as failure to lactate, breast involution, and amenorrhea.

      In this case, the patient suffered from hypotension and blood loss during an emergency Caesarean section, leading to pituitary infarction and symptoms of hypoadrenalism. Treatment includes fluid rehydration and emergency steroid replacement with intravenous hydrocortisone, as well as thyroxine replacement for pituitary-dependent hypothyroidism. Restoration of fertility may require pulsed delivery of pituitary sex-axis hormones.

      Other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms, such as dehydration, hypothyroidism, and postnatal depression, were ruled out based on the lack of relevant history and electrolyte abnormalities. While primary adrenal failure can also cause hypoadrenalism, the preceding events make Sheehan syndrome a more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following a flu like illness 18 months previously.

      A diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is made.

      What is the appropriate initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a debilitating condition that affects many individuals. To receive a diagnosis of CFS, a patient must have severe chronic fatigue lasting four months or longer (three months in children or young people) and have other medical conditions excluded by clinical diagnosis. Additionally, they must have four or more of the following symptoms: impaired memory or concentration, sore throat, tender lymph nodes, muscle pain, joint pain without swelling or redness, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, or post-exertional malaise lasting more than 24 hours.

      For those with mild or moderate CFS, cognitive behavioral therapy and/or graded exercise therapy should be offered and provided to those who choose these approaches. These interventions have the clearest research evidence of benefit. Other treatment options have not been shown to be effective in treating CFS. It is important for individuals with CFS to work with their healthcare provider to find the best treatment plan for their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has taken around 30 tablets while alone at home and left a letter for his family. He was intoxicated but managed to call an ambulance after he had taken the tablets.
      Which of the following features would most strongly suggest that there is an ongoing risk of suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The fact that he took precautions to avoid discovery

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

      When assessing a patient who has attempted suicide, certain factors can indicate a higher risk of future attempts. These include planning and taking precautions to avoid discovery, not seeking help after the attempt, using a dangerous method, and leaving final acts such as making a will or leaving a note. While a family history of suicide is more common among those who complete suicide, it doesn’t increase the immediate risk of self-harm. Alcohol use can lower inhibitions and increase the risk of deliberate self-harm, but being intoxicated at the time of the attempt doesn’t necessarily mean a higher risk of future attempts. Stressful life events in the preceding months can predispose to depression and increase the likelihood of self-harm, but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of future attempts. Finally, taking a large amount of a dangerous substance may increase the risk of harm, but doesn’t confer a higher ongoing risk of suicide after the initial attempt. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of the patient’s mental state and risk factors is necessary to determine the appropriate level of care and support.

      Factors to Consider When Assessing the Risk of Suicide After an Attempt

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is associated with thyroid dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options and Risks for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that affects breathing during sleep, leading to interrupted sleep and daytime fatigue. In the UK, the Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) treatment is used for simple snoring, while in the USA, it is used to treat OSA with a success rate of around 65%. Tonsillectomy can also benefit some cases. However, successful treatment with continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the most effective way to reduce the risk of road traffic accidents (RTA) to normal levels and doesn’t exclude the sufferer from holding any type of driving licence. The risk of RTA, untreated, is estimated to be eight times normal. OSA is also associated with hypothyroidism and acromegaly, according to a study published in the Medicine Journal in May 2008. It is important to consider the various treatment options and risks associated with OSA to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with complaints that on waking...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with complaints that on waking that morning, the right side of his neck was very painful. On examination, his neck is deviated to the right side where there is palpable muscle spasm and local tenderness. He is otherwise well and there is no history of trauma or drug-taking.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute torticollis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Neck Pain: An Overview

      Neck pain is a common complaint that can be caused by various conditions. Here are some possible causes of neck pain and their characteristics:

      Acute Torticollis
      Acute torticollis is a condition that results from local musculoskeletal irritation, causing pain and spasm in neck muscles. It usually resolves within 24-48 hours, but recurrence is common.

      Acute Cervical Disc Prolapse
      Acute cervical disc prolapse occurs when the inner gelatinous substance breaks through the annulus of the disc, causing compression of the spinal cord or surrounding nerve. Patients may experience neck pain with associated numbness or paraesthesiae.

      Cervical Spondylosis
      Cervical spondylosis is a degenerative disease that affects the neck and becomes more common with advancing age. It usually presents with neck pain or stiffness, muscle spasms, and grinding or clicking noises with neck movements.

      Multiple Sclerosis
      Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune condition that causes repeated episodes of inflammation of the nervous tissue, resulting in the loss of the insulating myelin sheath. It presents with neurological symptoms and not neck pain.

      Retropharyngeal Abscess
      Retropharyngeal abscess is an abscess that forms in the space between the prevertebral fascia and the constrictor muscles. Patients with this condition may be unwell and often present with fever and dysphagia and may have secondary torticollis.

      In conclusion, neck pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to seek medical attention if the pain persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.

    She originally...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.

      She originally presented three to four months ago with arthralgia affecting her hands and feet and was referred to secondary care for disease management.

      She has recently been started on methotrexate once weekly to try and control her symptoms. She also continues to take oral steroids which are being tapered off since the initiation of DMARD therapy. Her current prednisolone dose is 5 mg daily. Her other medications consist of folic acid 5 mg weekly and PRN ibuprofen 400 mg.

      She had a full blood count performed recently which revealed:

      Haemoglobin 98 g/L (115-155)
      MCV 74.4 fL (76-96)
      Red cell count 4.2 ×1012/L -

      Further tests were then arranged which revealed:

      Ferritin 22 μg/L (15-300)

      Which of the following tests is most useful in identifying the underlying cause of this patient's anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum iron and total iron binding capacity measurement

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Microcytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      In a patient with rheumatoid arthritis presenting with microcytic anaemia, the possibility of anaemia of chronic disease should be considered. However, further tests should be done as a reversible or treatable factor may be found. B12 deficiency and haemolytic anaemia can be ruled out as they cause elevated MCV measurements. Microcytic anaemia should prompt consideration of iron deficiency, and thalassaemia trait should also be borne in mind if indicated clinically. Iron/TIBC measurement is the most likely test to diagnose microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency. However, the normal ferritin should be interpreted with caution as it may be elevated due to underlying inflammation or infection. In this case, iron/total iron binding capacity may be more useful markers of iron deficiency. It is also worth mentioning that DMARDs such as methotrexate can cause anaemia, but this is typically macrocytic and not the case in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents in a routine GP appointment feeling like everything is falling apart. Despite never taking a day off work, the patient is struggling to keep it together. The patient's spouse has noticed an increase in cleaning around the house, and the patient becomes easily irritated with others' inability to meet their personal standards. The patient has a history of perfectionism and avoids spending money on unnecessary items.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality

      Explanation:

      Individuals who exhibit obsessive-compulsive personality traits tend to be inflexible when it comes to their principles, beliefs, and standards, and frequently exhibit hesitancy in delegating tasks to others.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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