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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are checking your mail before the start of morning surgery, and receive a letter from a firm of solicitors informing you that you are being sued for negligence following the recent death of a patient of yours who died from mesothelioma. According to the letter, his son claims you failed to diagnose the condition until it was too late, and that he died as a result of your incompetence.
You review the notes of the deceased, a retired plumber in his 60s, and see that he came to see you three times over a period of six months for vague chest pains and coughs. You remember that when you finally arranged a chest x ray, the diagnosis was a complete surprise to you.
You plan to call your medical defence organisation for further advice, but based on what you know, how concerned should you be?Your Answer: Given that you didn't get the correct diagnosis and your patient died, things do not look promising
Correct Answer: You need to start thinking about how you can prove that you did not act negligently in diagnosing the deceased's mesothelioma, and in the way you treated him after diagnosis
Explanation:Understanding Medico-Legal Issues for GPs
All GPs must have a good understanding of medico-legal issues to avoid negligence claims. To win a case for negligence, the complainant must prove that the doctor owed them a duty of care, failed in that duty, and caused harm. The burden of proof is on the person making the claim. The first limb of the test is usually obvious if the patient is under the doctor’s care. The second limb requires that the doctor exercised reasonable care and skill, according to the Bolam test. The third limb requires that the doctor’s treatment was the cause or a major contributor to the harm.
In this case, it is unlikely that the patient’s daughter’s case would succeed, as the mesothelioma diagnosis would not have changed the outcome. However, it is important to discuss the case with a medical defence organisation. It is crucial to never alter records under any circumstances, as dishonesty can lead to a loss of reputation and being considered unfit for practice. By understanding medico-legal issues, GPs can provide better care and avoid negligence claims.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following statements about coeliac disease is accurate?
Your Answer: All coeliacs are intolerant to oats
Explanation:Coeliac Disease: Diagnosis and Risks
Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, causing damage to the small intestine. Failure to adhere to a gluten-free diet can increase the risk of gastrointestinal cancers and gut lymphoma. However, after three to five years on a gluten-free diet, the risk of cancer decreases to that of a person without coeliac disease. The prevalence of coeliac disease varies in different countries, with rates as low as 1:300 in Italy and Spain to 1:18 in the Sahara. Two types of antibodies are tested for in the patient’s serology: Endomysial antibodies (EMA) and Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGA). A small bowel biopsy is still considered the gold standard for diagnosis, and a referral to a gastroenterologist is necessary for patients with positive antibodies or those with negative antibodies but suspected CD. The suitability of oats for coeliacs is uncertain due to contamination by wheat.
To summarize, coeliac disease diagnosis involves testing for antibodies and a small bowel biopsy. Adherence to a gluten-free diet is crucial to reduce the risk of cancer. The prevalence of coeliac disease varies globally, and the suitability of oats for coeliacs is uncertain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35 years old soccer player injures his knee while pivoting. He is brought to the emergency department and reports hearing a 'pop' sound and is unable to put weight on the affected knee. Upon examination, the doctor observes that the affected knee is also swollen.
What diagnostic test can aid in the diagnosis?Your Answer: Allen's test
Correct Answer: Thessaly's test
Explanation:Meniscal Tear: Causes and Symptoms
A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. The symptoms of a meniscal tear include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases of displaced tears. A positive Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by a doctor, indicates pain on twisting the knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 48-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with bothersome vasomotor symptoms. She is experiencing frequent hot flashes and is seeking relief. She is hesitant to take hormone replacement therapy but is open to trying other medications. What options are supported by evidence for the management of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:Antidepressants for Vasomotor Symptoms
Antidepressants in the SSRI and SNRI classes have been found to reduce vasomotor symptoms, such as hot flashes and night sweats, in studies. This is thought to be due to the involvement of serotonin in the pathogenesis of these symptoms. While there is some evidence for SSRIs like fluoxetine and paroxetine, the most convincing data is for the SNRI venlafaxine at a dose of 37.5 mg twice daily. However, the studies are short, lasting only a few weeks.
Despite their potential benefits, the main drawback of these medications is the high incidence of nausea. Patients should be monitored closely for side effects and may need to try different medications or doses to find the most effective and tolerable option. Overall, antidepressants may be a useful option for women experiencing vasomotor symptoms, but careful consideration of the risks and benefits is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 5
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdomen pain, headache, flushing, anxiety, and restlessness during her menstrual cycle. Her symptoms improve as she approaches the end of her period. Blood tests reveal no apparent cause, and a symptom diary suggests a possible diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome.
According to NICE, which of the following is a potential treatment option for premenstrual syndrome?Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Explanation:According to NICE, the treatment of premenstrual syndrome should be approached from various angles, taking into account the severity of symptoms and the patient’s preferences. Effective treatment options include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs taken orally, combined oral contraceptive, cognitive behavioural therapy and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. However, the copper intrauterine device, tricyclic antidepressants, diazepam and progestogen only pill are not recommended as treatment options.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You see a 70-year-old male smoker in clinic who describes symptoms of pain in his left leg which is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest.
On examination his pulses are weak in the left leg compared to the right. Suspecting intermittent claudication you arrange leg Dopplers. These show an ABPI (ankle brachial pressure Index) of 0.84.
What is the appropriate diagnosis for this man based on these findings?Your Answer: Peripheral arterial disease with ulceration risk
Correct Answer: Peripheral arterial disease
Explanation:Understanding ABPI and its Interpretation
The Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) is a ratio that compares the systolic pressure in the ankle to that in the arm. It is a non-invasive test that helps diagnose peripheral arterial disease (PAD), a condition that affects blood flow to the legs and feet.
An ABPI of less than 0.9 indicates the presence of PAD, while an ABPI of less than 0.8 suggests a higher risk of developing ulcers. An ABPI of less than 0.5 indicates critical ischaemia, a severe form of PAD that can lead to tissue damage and even amputation.
On the other hand, an ABPI of more than 1.5 is likely due to non-compressible vessels, which means that the arteries are too stiff to be accurately measured. In such cases, the ABPI cannot be relied upon to guide clinical decisions.
In summary, the ABPI is a useful tool in diagnosing and assessing the severity of PAD. Healthcare professionals should interpret the results carefully and take appropriate action based on the patient’s individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old otherwise healthy man comes to his General Practitioner with a 4-day history of a sore throat. It is painful to swallow but he is able to maintain his fluid intake. He is afebrile and has a mild cough. On examination, his tonsils are severely inflamed bilaterally but there is no exudate. There is tender cervical lymphadenopathy present.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: A prescription should be given for clarithromycin
Correct Answer: An antibiotic is not indicated
Explanation:Antibiotic Decision Making in a Case of Tonsillitis
Explanation:
When it comes to treating tonsillitis, the decision to prescribe antibiotics should be based on the severity of the infection and the presence of certain criteria. The Centor criteria, which include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough, can help determine if streptococcal infection is present. A FeverPAIN score can also be used to assess the severity of tonsillitis.
In the case of an otherwise healthy, afebrile patient with a Centor score of one for lymphadenopathy and a FeverPAIN score of one for severe tonsil inflammation, antibiotics are not indicated. However, if the condition doesn’t improve or worsens, a reassessment should be offered.
Admission to the hospital for fluids is not necessary if the patient is able to maintain fluid intake despite painful swallowing and shows no other signs of systemic illness.
If antibiotics are deemed necessary, a delayed prescription for phenoxymethylpenicillin may be given if the FeverPAIN score is two or three. Clarithromycin may be prescribed as a second-line option if there is a true penicillin allergy and group A streptococcus is suspected as the cause, based on a FeverPAIN score of four or five or Centor score of three or four. Phenoxymethylpenicillin would be the first-line option in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic with a severe, sudden-onset headache at the back of his head, associated with vomiting. His paternal aunt has been on dialysis since the age of 45.
On examination, his blood pressure is 190/100 mm/Hg and he has a mass in both loins.
Given the diagnosis, what is the likelihood that his sister is affected?Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Likelihood of Genetic Diseases: A Case Study of Autosomal-Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPCKD) affects 1 in 1000 individuals and is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease. This case study explores the likelihood of a patient having ADPCKD based on their symptoms and family history.
The patient presented with a headache caused by a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which is often caused by intracranial aneurysms. Individuals with ADPCKD have a higher risk of developing these aneurysms, which also rupture at a younger age than those in the general population. The patient also had hypertension, loin masses, and a family history of dialysis, all of which are indicators of ADPCKD.
The likelihood of the patient having ADPCKD is 50%, as it is highly unlikely that both parents have the ADPCKD gene. If one parent has the gene, there is a 50% chance of inheriting it.
It is important to note that 100% likelihood of genetic diseases is rare unless prenatal genetic testing has taken place. Prenatal testing can only be done if the specific genetic abnormality is known and can be tested for. This type of testing raises ethical implications that need to be considered.
Understanding the likelihood of genetic diseases is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment. In the case of ADPCKD, early detection and management can help prevent serious renal and neurological complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick for the past 2 weeks. At first, he had a sore throat but now he is having occasional joint pains in his knees, hips, and ankles. During the examination, some pink, ring-shaped lesions are observed on his trunk, and he occasionally experiences jerking movements of his face and hands. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.
To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.
Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in his INR levels. He has been on Warfarin for a decade and has consistently maintained an INR reading between 2 and 3. However, his most recent blood test showed an INR of 6.2. He reports receiving a topical medication for a facial rash at a walk-in centre two weeks ago.
What is the most probable treatment that led to the elevation in his INR?Your Answer: Mupirocin
Explanation:Miconazole Oral Gel and Warfarin Interaction
Miconazole oral gel, commonly known as Daktarin, is often used to treat candidal infections of the mouth and face. However, it can interact with the anticoagulant drug warfarin, which is metabolized by the CYP2C9 enzyme. Miconazole inhibits this enzyme, leading to increased levels of warfarin in the bloodstream and potentially causing bleeding. Other antimicrobial agents like Aciclovir, Clotrimazole, Fucidin, and Mupirocin can be used to treat infected rashes on the face, but they do not have significant interactions with warfarin. As a core competence of clinical management, safe prescribing and medicines management approaches should include awareness of common drug interactions, especially those that can affect patient safety when taking warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old pregnant woman is curious about why she has been recommended to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What makes her eligible for an oral glucose tolerance test?
Your Answer: Her family history
Correct Answer: Previous macrosomia
Explanation:It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the surgery complaining of a productive cough. Upon examination, he has a fever and bronchial breathing in the right lower zone. The working diagnosis is pneumonia and amoxicillin is prescribed with a chest x-ray scheduled for the following day. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and takes hydrocortisone (20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?
Your Answer: Continue to take the same dose
Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40 mg mornings and 20 mg afternoon
Explanation:Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency and dysuria for the last 3 days. She denies vomiting or fevers and has no back pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions.
During the examination, she experiences mild suprapubic tenderness, but there is no renal angle tenderness. Her heart rate is 68 beats per minute, blood pressure is 134/80 mmHg, and tympanic temperature is 36.8 oC. Urinalysis reveals 2+ leucocytes, positive nitrites, and no haematuria.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Send a urine culture and commence a 3 day course of nitrofurantoin immediately
Explanation:For women over 65 years old with suspected urinary tract infections, it is recommended to send an MSU for urine culture according to current NICE CKS guidance. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is common in older patients, so a urine dip is no longer recommended. However, a urine culture can help determine appropriate antibiotic therapy in this age group. Antibiotics should be prescribed for 3 days in women and 7 days in men with suspected urinary tract infections. Since the woman is experiencing symptoms, it is appropriate to administer antibiotics immediately rather than waiting for culture results.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient, who is being treated for TB and is sputum smear negative, complains of severe pain in her big toe.
On examination the toe is swollen and red and you suspect she has gout.
Which one of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer: Pyrazinamide
Explanation:Understanding Pyrazinamide Side Effects during TB Treatment
Treatment for tuberculosis (TB) is typically initiated in specialist clinics, but patients may present in primary care if they experience adverse reactions, interactions, or side effects. As a healthcare provider, it is important to have an understanding of common side effects and potential problems during treatment. Pyrazinamide, a medication commonly used in TB treatment, can cause hyperuricaemia and attacks of gout. Additionally, patients may experience hepatitis and rashes as side effects of pyrazinamide. Being aware of these potential side effects can help healthcare providers monitor and manage patients’ treatment effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents with weakness of the long flexors of the thumb and index finger and inability to pronate his forearm on one side. There is no history of trauma.
Identify the nerve that is most likely to be affected.Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:Anterior Interosseous Nerve: Function, Symptoms, and Treatment
The anterior interosseous nerve is a motor nerve that branches off from the median nerve just below the antecubital fossa. It runs along the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius and ends in the pronator quadratus muscle at the wrist. Its primary function is to supply the flexor pollicis longus, the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and the pronator quadratus.
However, the nerve can be affected by direct penetrating injury or compression, leading to a condition known as anterior interosseous syndrome. This condition causes weakness in the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers, as the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus are weakened.
Treatment for compression includes rest, immobilization, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and possibly steroid injections or nerve release and repair. While spontaneous recovery is possible, seeking medical attention is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with an acutely painful red left eye. She denies any history of foreign body injury and has had no coryzal symptoms. There is a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus which is currently controlled with hydroxychloroquine. The patient is afebrile and examination reveals an erythematous injected sclera with a bluish hue. The pupils are equal and reactive and the visual acuity is maintained bilaterally. There is no significant discharge noted.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Episcleritis
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history of autoimmune disease, severe pain and redness in the eye, and bluish hue, it is likely that they are experiencing scleritis. This is a serious condition that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Episcleritis, which is less severe and typically painless, can be ruled out due to the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but the patient’s clear and reactive pupils suggest otherwise. It is important to check the intraocular pressure to rule out glaucoma. While a foreign body injury is a potential cause of eye pain and redness, the lack of a history of eye injury and absence of discharge make this diagnosis less likely.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy complains of a burning pain in his feet that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. Despite taking duloxetine, he has not experienced any relief. Upon clinical examination, the only notable finding is reduced sensitivity to fine touch on both soles. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Pregabalin
Explanation:Although amitriptyline is typically the preferred option, it is advisable to steer clear of it in this case due to the patient’s history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, which increases the risk of urinary retention.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.Your Answer: Trimethoprim 200 mg bd for 10 days
Correct Answer: No action required
Explanation:Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.
Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 43-year-old man presents to the urgent treatment centre with a concern about a tick that he found attached to his calf after walking in the nearby woods. There are no signs of infection or erythema in the surrounding skin.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Remove the tick using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick firmly by the head as close to the skin as possible and pulling firmly upwards
Explanation:To effectively remove a tick, it is recommended to use fine-tipped tweezers and grasp the tick as close to the skin as possible. Pulling upwards firmly is important to keep the head and body of the tick intact and prevent the body from detaching. If the body detaches, the mouthparts may be left in the skin and cause a local infection. After removal, the bite area should be cleaned with antiseptic or soap and water, and the patient should monitor for any changes for several weeks.
It is not recommended to remove the tick with a fine-toothed comb or attempt to soak it off with saline solution, as these methods may cause the head to detach.
Prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended by NICE for preventing Lyme disease in patients with tick bites.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.
Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.
To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old female, recently diagnosed with hypertension, presents to the emergency department after collapsing. She reports feeling dizzy just before the incident and had recently begun a new medication prescribed by her GP. Her medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, glaucoma, and diverticular disease.
Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer: Prochlorperazine
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:First-dose hypotension is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors like ramipril, which is commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients. If a patient experiences dizziness or lightheadedness, it may be a warning sign of impending syncope.
Prochlorperazine is not indicated for any of the patient’s medical conditions and is unlikely to cause syncope. Fludrocortisone, on the other hand, can increase blood pressure and is therefore not a likely cause of syncope.
Metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia frequently, so it is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s collapse. While beta-blockers can cause syncope, it is unlikely to occur after the application of eye drops.
ACE inhibitors are a type of medication that can have side-effects. One common side-effect is a cough, which can occur in around 15% of patients and may happen up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased levels of bradykinin. Another potential side-effect is angioedema, which may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are also possible side-effects, especially in patients taking diuretics.
There are certain cautions and contraindications to be aware of when taking ACE inhibitors. Pregnant or breastfeeding women should avoid these medications. Patients with renovascular disease may experience significant renal impairment if they have undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis. Aortic stenosis may result in hypotension, and patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at increased risk of hypotension. Individuals with hereditary or idiopathic angioedema should also avoid ACE inhibitors.
Monitoring is important when taking ACE inhibitors. Urea and electrolytes should be checked before treatment is initiated and after increasing the dose. A rise in creatinine and potassium levels may be expected after starting treatment, but acceptable changes are an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. It is important to note that different guidelines may have slightly different acceptable ranges for these changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female presents with fatigue and episodic palpitations.
She presents during one of these episodes and the ECG reveals atrial fibrillation which resolves within 30 minutes.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this patient?Your Answer: 24 hour ECG monitoring
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation: Possible Causes and Diagnostic Tests
Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is essential to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate left ventricular function and valve function, which would be obtained from a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be performed. A full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid tests would not be useful in characterizing and treating AF. By conducting these diagnostic tests, healthcare professionals can identify the underlying cause of AF and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male attends regarding a concern over the future development of obesity. He has read on the internet about the metabolic syndrome and its association with diabetes. He wonders if he has this diagnosis.
Which of the following is a specific criterion in the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?Your Answer: A waist circumference of more than 94cm
Correct Answer: A fasting plasma glucose of 4.9 mmol/L
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Syndrome
Metabolic syndrome is diagnosed when an individual has central obesity, along with two other risk factors. The International Diabetes Federation and American Heart Association define central obesity as increased waist circumference, which is ethnicity-specific. For example, Caucasian men should have a waist circumference of at least 94 cm, while South Asian men should have a waist circumference of at least 90 cm. Other risk factors include raised triglycerides, reduced HDL-cholesterol, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose.
The importance of diagnosing metabolic syndrome lies in its associated morbidity. Individuals with metabolic syndrome have a four times increased risk of developing diabetes and a two-fold risk of developing ischemic heart disease. Central obesity is more highly correlated with metabolic risk factors than body mass index, making it an important measurement in identifying the bodyweight component of metabolic syndrome. Therefore, measuring waist circumference is recommended to identify individuals with metabolic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You encounter a 44-year-old man who has been evaluated in a neurology clinic for epileptic seizures. He has been given carbamazepine, a drug that induces cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes. Which medication would carbamazepine have the most significant interaction with?
Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:The Impact of CYP Inducers on Medications: A Case Study
CYP inducers can have a significant impact on medications that are metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes. In the case of carbamazepine and ciclosporin, carbamazepine’s induction of the enzymes would increase the rate of metabolism of ciclosporin, potentially leading to decreased plasma levels and serious implications due to ciclosporin’s narrow therapeutic window. Paracetamol is also metabolized by CYP, and while it is not contraindicated with carbamazepine, the production of a hepatotoxic metabolite may be relevant in cases of overdose. Lithium, on the other hand, is excreted renally, so induction of P450 enzymes would not alter its excretion rate, but changes in renal function could still impact its plasma level. Penicillins have a wide therapeutic index, so the impact of CYP inducers or inhibitors is not significant. As for salicylate, there is currently no listed interaction with carbamazepine, making it unlikely to cause any issues in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman who is 16-weeks pregnant comes in with acne vulgaris. Which of the following treatments is recognized to be detrimental to the growth of the fetus?
Your Answer: Topical isotretinoin
Explanation:Women using oral or topical isotretinoin must take effective contraception as both forms are highly prohibited during pregnancy.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to move his legs during the night. He recalls his mother also suffering from a similar condition, which she managed with magnesium salts.
Which test is most probable to reveal an anomalous outcome?Your Answer: Magnesium
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:The most important blood test for diagnosing restless legs syndrome is measuring the ferritin level, as it is commonly associated with iron deficiency. While a full blood count may be performed to ensure the patient is not anemic, it is not the most likely test to be abnormal. Magnesium levels are not the most likely abnormality in this condition, although it may be appropriate to check along with other tests for a comprehensive assessment. Nerve conduction studies would not be warranted for a patient with restless leg syndrome unless there was diagnostic uncertainty and concern for possible nerve damage.
Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).
There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.
Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a blanching rash that started on her abdomen and chest before spreading to her neck, legs, and arms. The rash is rough and has a sandpaper-like texture. She reports feeling feverish with a temperature of 38.5 ºC, a sore throat, and nausea two days before the rash appeared. On examination, you note her tongue has a beefy, red appearance and prominent cervical lymphadenopathy. You suspect scarlet fever. The patient has no significant medical history and no allergies. Hospital admission is not necessary. What is the most appropriate management option in primary care?
Your Answer: Notify public health england (PHE) and commence 10 days of oral phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V)
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She denies experiencing any vaginal bleeding or discharge and reports no contractions. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis reveals the presence of nitrates and 3+ leucocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.
What is the next best course of action in primary care?Your Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral nitrofurantoin. No need for repeat urine culture following treatment
Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure
Explanation:When treating a suspected urinary tract infection in pregnant women, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidance. This includes sending urine for culture and sensitivity before and after treatment, and starting treatment before awaiting culture results. Local antibiotic prescribing guidelines should be followed, but nitrofurantoin should be avoided at term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. Cefalexin is a safe alternative. The recommended course of antibiotics is seven days.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 49-year-old female presents with complaints of superficial dyspareunia. Her medical history includes treatment for two UTIs in the past six months, an IUS fitted at age 47, and two years of taking the lower dose of oestrogen only HRT for hot flashes. What is the most suitable course of action from the options provided below?
Your Answer: She should be offered vaginal oestrogen therapy in addition to her oral HRT
Explanation:Topical Oestrogens for Genitourinary Symptoms of Menopause
Topical oestrogens can be used alongside transdermal/oral HRT to treat genitourinary symptoms of menopause. In fact, systemic HRT doesn’t improve these symptoms in 10-15% of women. Topical oestrogens are effective in these cases and can be combined with systemic HRT.
Combined HRT is not better than oestrogen-only therapy for treating genitourinary symptoms, and progestogens are only used for endometrial protection. If a patient already has protection via an IUS, combination therapy would not be beneficial. Topical oestrogen preparations have been shown to improve vaginal symptoms, including vaginal atrophy and pH decrease, and to increase epithelial maturation compared to placebo or non-hormonal gels.
It is important to note that systemic absorption of vaginal oestrogen is very low. Therefore, topical oestrogens work better for genitourinary symptoms of menopause compared to oral HRT and can be used in combination. According to NICE NG23, vaginal oestrogen should be offered to women with urogenital atrophy, including those on systemic HRT, and treatment should continue for as long as needed to relieve symptoms.
If vaginal oestrogen doesn’t relieve symptoms, the dose can be increased after seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in menopause. Women should be informed that symptoms often return when treatment is stopped, but adverse effects from vaginal oestrogen are very rare. They should report any unscheduled vaginal bleeding to their GP. Additionally, moisturisers and lubricants can be used alone or in addition to vaginal oestrogen for vaginal dryness. Routine monitoring of endometrial thickness during treatment for urogenital atrophy is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 29
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding the metabolic syndrome is accurate?
Your Answer: Decisions on cardiovascular risk factor modification should be made regardless of whether patients meet the criteria for metabolic syndrome
Explanation:The determination of primary prevention measures for cardiovascular disease should rely on established methods and should not be influenced by the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.
Understanding Metabolic Syndrome
Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.
Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A 27-year-old man presents with a lump on the right side of his neck which he first noticed two months ago. He tried several homeopathic medications but the lump steadily increased in size. He also noticed some shortness of breath and sweating at night. On examination, he has a large mass that is firm, non-tender and not fixed to deeper structures or to the skin. You suspect the mass is lymph nodes. He is slightly pale but no other masses are palpable. His temperature is 38°C.
Which of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?Your Answer: Excision biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging for Unilateral Lymphadenopathy: Excision Biopsy as the Best Option
Unilateral lymphadenopathy without pain is most likely caused by lymphoma, either Hodgkin’s or non-Hodgkin’s. Tuberculosis is a less likely diagnosis but should not be ruled out, especially in patients with risk factors. Systemic symptoms (B symptoms) suggest Hodgkin’s disease. Excisional node biopsy is the best diagnostic option as it allows for the identification of lymphomas based on lymph node morphology. CT scans of the thorax and abdomen are used for staging Hodgkin’s lymphoma, while fine-needle aspiration biopsy is less helpful as it fails to reveal the lymph node architecture and may not retrieve Reed-Sternberg cells. MRI scans of the neck are not commonly used for lymphoma assessment, while ultrasonography is commonly used for thyroid lump detection and assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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